BIO 205 Exam 3

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269 Terms

1
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Which of the following types of medical items require sterilization?
needles
2
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Which of the following is suitable for use on tissues for microbial control to prevent infection?
antiseptic
3
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Which biosafety level is appropriate fro research with microbes or infectious agents that pose moderate risk to laboratory workers and the community, and are typically indigenous?
BSL-2
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Which of the following best describes a microbial control protocol that inhibits the growth of molds and yeast?
fungistatic
5
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The decimal reduction times refers to the amount of time it takes to which of the following?
reduce a microbial population by 90%
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Which of the following methods brings about cell lysis due to cavitation induced by rapid localized pressure changes?
sonication
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Which of the following terms is used to describe the time required to kill all of the microbes within a sample at a given temperature?
thermal death time
8
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Which of the following microbial control methods does not actually kill microbes or inhibit their growth but instead removes them physically from samples?
9
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filtration
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desiccation
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lyophilization
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nonionizing
filtration
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Which of the following refers to a disinfecting chemical dissolved in alcohol?
tincture
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Which of the following peroxygens is widely used as a household disinfectant, is inexpensive, and breaks down into water and oxygen gas?
hydrogen peroxide
15
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Which of the following chemical food preservatives is used in the wine industry but may cause asthmatic reactions in some individuals?
sulfites
16
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Bleach is an example of which group of chemicals used for disinfection?
halogens
17
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Which chemical disinfectant works by methylating enzymes and nucleic acids and is known for being toxic and carcinogenic?
formaldehyde
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Which types of test is used to determine whether disinfectant solutions actively used in a clinical setting are being used correctly?
in-use test
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The effectiveness of chemical disinfectants has historically been compared to that of which of the following?
phenol
20
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Which of the following refers to a germicide that can kill vegetative cells and certain enveloped viruses but no endospores?
low-level germicide
21
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Sanitization leaves an object free of microbes
false
22
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Ionizing radiation can penetrate surfaces, but nonionizing radiation cannot
True
23
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Moist-heat sterilization protocols require the use of higher temperatures for longer periods of time than do dry-heat sterilization protocols do.
false
24
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Soaps are classified as disinfectants
False
25
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Mercury-based compounds have fallen out of favor for use as preservatives and antiseptics
true
26
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A medical item that comes into contact with intact skin and does not penetrate sterile tissues or come into contact with mucous membranes in called a(n) _____ item
noncritical
27
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The goal of ____ _____ protocols is to rid canned produce of clostridium botulinum endospores.
commercial sterilization
28
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In an autoclave, the application _____ is increased to allow the steam to achieve temperatures above the boiling point of water
steam
29
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Doorknobs and other surfaces in clinical settings are often coated with _____, _____, or ____ to prevent the transmission of microbes
copper, nickel, zinc
30
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If a chemical disinfectant is more effective than phenol, then its phenol coefficient would be ____ than 1.0
greater
31
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if used for extended periods of time, ____ germicides may lead to sterility
high-level
32
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In the disk-diffusion assay, a large zone of inhibition around a disk to which chemical disinfectant has been applied indicates ____ of the test microbes to the chemical disinfectant
susceptibility or sensitivity
33
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.
34
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A scientist discovers that a soil bacterium he has been studying produces an antimicrobial that kills gram-negative bacteria. She isolates and purifies the antimicrobial compound, then chemically converts a chemical side chain to a hydroxyl group. When she tests the antimicrobial properties of this new version, she finds that this antimicrobial drug can now also kill gram-positive bacteria. The new antimicrobial drug with broad-spectrum activity is considered to be which of the following?
semisynthetic
35
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which of the following antimicrobial drugs is synthetic?
sulfanilamide
36
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Which of the following combinations would most likely contribute to the development of a superinfection?
long-term use of broad spectrum antimicrobials
37
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Which of the following routes of administration would be appropriate and convenient for home administration of an antimicrobial to treat a systemic infection?
oral
38
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Which clinical situation would be appropriate for treatment with narrow-spectrum antimicrobial drug?
treatment of strep throat caused by culture identified Streptococcus pyogenes
39
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which of the following terms refers to the ability of an antimicrobial drugs to harm the target microbe without harming the host?
selective toxicity
40
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Which of the following is not a type of B-lactam antimicrobial?
41
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penicillins
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glycopeptides
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cephalosporins
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monobactams
glycopeptides
45
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Which of the following does not binds to the 50S ribosomal subunit
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tetracyclines
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lincosamides
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macrolides
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chloramphenicol
tetracyclines
50
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Which of the following antimicrobials inhibits the activity of DNA gyrase
nalidixic acid
51
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Which of the following is not an appropriate target for antifungal drugs?
52
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ergosterol
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chitin
54
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cholesterol
55
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B(1->3) glucan
cholesterol
56
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Which of the following drugs classes specifically inhibits neuronal transmission in helminths?
avermectins
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Which of the following is a nucleoside analog commonly used as a reverse transcriptase inhibitor in the treatment of HIV?
azidothymidine
58
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Which of the following is an antimalarial drug that is thought to increase ROS levels in target cells?
artemisinin
59
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Which of the following resistance mechanisms describes the function of B-lactamase?
drug inactivation
60
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Which of the following resistance mechanisms is commonly effective against a wide range of antimicrobials in multiple classes?
efflux pump
61
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Which of the following resistance mechanisms is the most nonspecific to a particular class of antimicrobials?
efflux pump
62
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Which of the following types of drug-resistant bacteria do not typically persist in individuals as a member of their intestinal microbiota?
MRSA
63
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In the Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion test, the ____of the zone of inhibition is measured and used for interpretation.
diamete
64
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Which of the following techniques cannot be used to determine the minimum inhibitory concentration of an antimicrobial drug against a particular microbe?
65
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Etest
66
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microbroth dilution test
67
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Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion test
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macrobroth dilution test
Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion test
69
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The utility of an antibiogram is that it shows antimicrobial susceptibility trends
in a localized population
70
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Which of the following has yielded compounds with the most antimicrobial activity?
soil
71
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Narrow-spectrum antimicrobials are commonly used for prophylaxis following surgery.
false
72
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B-lactamases can degrade vancomycin
false
73
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Echinocandins, known as "penicillin for fungi," target B(1->3) glucan in fungal cell walls
true
74
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If drug A produces a larger zone of inhibition than drug B on the kirby-bauer disk diffusion test, drug A should always be prescribed.
false
75
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The rate of discovery of antimicrobial drugs has decreased significantly in recent decades
true
76
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The group of soil bacteria known for their ability to produce a wide variety of antimicrobials is called the ____
actinomycetes
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The bacterium known for causing pseudomembranous colitis, a potentially deadly superinfection, is ____
Clostridium difficile
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Selective toxicity antimicrobials are easier to develop against bacteria because they are ____ cells, whereas human cells are eukaryotic
prokaryotic
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Antiviral drugs, like Tamiflu and Relenza, that are effective against the influenza virus by preventing viral escape from host cells are called ____
neuraminidase inhibitors
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Staphylococcus aureus, including MRSA strains, may commonly be carried as a normal member of the ____ microbiota in some people
nasal
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The method that can determine the MICs of multiple antimicrobial drugs against a microbial strain using a single agar plate is called the ____
Etest
82
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which of the following would be a sign of an infection?
fever
83
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Which of the following is an example of noncommunicable infectious disease?
food poisoning due to a performed bacterial toxin in food
84
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During an oral surgery, the surgeon nicked the patient's gum with a sharp instrument. This allowed Streptococcus, a bacterium normally present in the mouth, to gain access to the blood. As a result, the patient developed bacterial endocarditis (an infection of the heart). Which type of disease is this?
iatrogenic
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Which period is the stage of disease during which the patient begins to present general signs and symptoms?
prodromal
86
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A communicable disease that can be easily transmitted from person to person is which type of disease?
contagious
87
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Which fo the following is a pathogen that could not be identified by the original Koch's postulates?
88
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Staphylococcus aureus
89
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Pseudomonas aeruginosa
90
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Human immunodeficiency virus
91
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Salmonella enterica serovar typhimurium
Human immunodeficiency virus
92
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Pathogen A has an ID50 of 50 particles, pathogen B has an ID50 of 1,000 particles, and pathogen C has an ID50 of 1x10^6 particles. Which pathogen is most virulent?
pathogen A
93
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Which of the following choices lists the steps of pathogenesis in the correct order?
exposure, adhesion, invasion, infection
94
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Which of the following would be a virulence factor of a pathogen?
a surface protein allowing the pathogen to bind to host cells
95
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You have recently identified a new toxin. It is produced by a gram-negative bacterium. It is composed mostly of protein, has high toxicity, and is not heat stable. You also discover that it targets liver cells. Based on these characteristics, how would you classify this toxin?
exotoxin
96
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Which of the following applies to hyaluronidase?
it acts as a spreading factor
97
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Phospolipases are enzymes that do which of the following?
degrade cell membranes to allow pathogens to escape phagosomes
98
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Which of the following is a major virulence factor for the fungal pathogen cryptococcus?
capsule
99
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Which of the following pathogens undergoes antigenic variation to avoid immune defenses?
Plasmodium
100
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A difference between an acute disease and chronic disease is that chronic disease have an extended period of _____.
illness