Biopsychology Exam 2

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60 Terms

1
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as sound makes its way from the ear to the auditory cortex, the medial geniculate nuclei can be found in the

a) frontal lobe

b) thalamus

c) basilar membrane

d) occipital lobe

e) cochlea

b) thalamus

2
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the auditory system is organized

a) somatotopically

b) tonotopically

c) volumetrically

d) retinotopically

e) geographically

b) tonotopically

3
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what is the correct pathway that soundwaves travel from the external world to the inner ear?

a) oval window - hammer - anvil - auditory nerve

b) hammer - anvil - oval window - cochlea - auditory nerve

c) anvil - hammer - stirrup - auditory nerve - cochlea

d) cochlea - eardrum - hammer - anvil

e) anvil - stirrup - ear canal - vestibular organ

b) hammer - anvil - oval window - cochlea - auditory nerve

4
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severe chronic pain in the absence of a recognizable pain stimulus is classified as

a) analgesic

b) neuropathic

c) psychophysical

d) psychophysiological

e) pheromonal

b) neuropathic

5
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areas of neocortex that receive most of their input from the thalamic relay nuclei of one sensory system are classified as

a) primary sensory cortex

b) association cortex

c) secondary sensory cortex

d) motor cortex

e) tertiary cortex

a) primary sensory cortex

6
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the axons of the olfactory receptors run through the

a) olfactory bulb to the thalamus

b) olfactory bulb to the paleocortex

c) cribriform plate to the olfactory bulbs

d) olfactory epithelium to olfactory cortex

e) cribriform plate to the thalamus

c) cribriform plate to the olfactory bulbs

7
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for humans, sounds are the product of those molecular vibrations between about _____ hertz

a) 20 and 20,000

b) 200 and 2,000

c) 200 and 8,000

d) 2,000 and 20,000

e) 20 and 200

a) 20 and 20,000

8
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the major auditory projections of the inferior colliculi go to the

a) medial geniculate nuclei

b) superior olives

c) auditory nerve

d) cochlear nuclei

e) lateral geniculate nuclei

a) medial geniculate nuclei

9
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endorphins are

a) the primary source of pressure-related pain

b) receptor cells that link Merkel’s disks with the raphe nuclei

c) found primarily in the medulla

d) the primary source of thermal-related pain

e) internally produced opioid analgesics

e) internally produced opioid analgesics

10
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free nerve endings are thought to mediate the perception of

a) skin stretch

b) constant pressure

c) temperature change

d) movement

e) skin indentation

c) temperature change

11
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the olfactory tracts project from the olfactory bulbs to the structures of the medial temporal lobes, particularly to the

a) amygdala

b) medulla

c) pons

d) thalamus

e) cerebellum

a) amygdala

12
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semicircular canals respond to

a) changes in visual information

b) changes in gustatory signaling

c) changes in the rotation of the head

d) changes in auditory sound

c) changes in the rotation of the head

13
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individuals with the variant G allele of mu-opioid receptor tend to experience

a) worse balance

b) more physical pain

c) less auditory acuity

d) less physical pain

b) more physical pain

14
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their cilia of the semi-circular canals are embedded in a gelatinous mass called the

a) cilia

b) cupula

c) cone

d) gelula

b) cupula

15
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the ability to focus on only a small subset of the stimuli that are being received by sensory organs is called

a) sensory focus

b) selective attention

c) selective perception

d) subliminal perception

e) subliminal attention

b) selective attention

16
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it has been estimated that over half the neurons of the brain are in a structure that constitutes only 10 percent of the brain’s total mass. this structure is the

a) corpus callosum

b) cerebellum

c) neocortex

d) brain stem

e) hippocampus

b) cerebellum

17
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the mutation that causes Huntington’s disease is a dominant mutation. thus, if one parent has the disease, their child has a _____ chance of developing it, too.

a) 50%

b) 10%

c) 25%

d) 100%

a) 50%

18
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the dorsolateral prefrontal association cortex

a) plays a critical role in the elicitation and blocking of reflexes

b) is located posterior to the cerebellum

c) is located under the central fissure

d) sends projections to the posterior parietal cortex

e) appears to be important in the initiation of complex voluntary movements

e) appears to be important in the initiation of complex voluntary movements

19
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the huntingtin gene contains a DNA sequence that consists of three nucleotides in repetition—-a pattern known as a trinucleotide repeat. the three nucleotides that repeat are:

a) cytosine, adenine, and guanine

b) thymine, adenine, guanine

c) guanine, thymine, cytosine

d) cytosine, adenine, cytosine

a) cytosine, adenine, and guanine

20
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the effects of damage to the primary motor cortex include

a) coma

b) blindness

c) difficulty in moving one part of the body independently of others

d) paralysis

e) deafness

c) difficulty in moving one part of the body independently of others

21
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a deficit in the ability to recognize objects by touch is called

a) stereognosis

b) asomatognosia

c) apraxia

d) homunculus

e) astereognosia

e) astereognosia

22
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intrafusal is to extrafusal as

a) muscle spindle is to skeletal muscle

b) voluntary is to ballistic

c) dynamic is to static

d) voluntary is to reflex

e) central nervous system is to peripheral nervous system

a) muscle spindle is to skeletal muscle

23
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muscles are protected from damage caused by excessive contraction by

a) extrafusal motor pools

b) gamma efferents

c) golgi tendon organs

d) spindle afferents

e) synergistic muscles

c) golgi tendon organs

24
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the somatotopic map of the primary motor cortex is called the

a) motor homunculus

b) somatosensory homunculus

c) stereognosis

d) somatotopic homuculus

e) supplementary map

a) motor homunculus

25
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the pathophysiology of ALS seems to be characterized by _____ within neurons

a) mitochondrial clusters

b) excessive sodium

c) clusters of dysfunctional proteins

d) calcium crystals

c) clusters of dysfunctional proteins

26
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evidence suggests that the decision to initiate a voluntary response comes from the _____ in concert with other areas of cortex

a) dorsolateral prefrontal cortex

b) posterior occipital cortex

c) premotor cortex

d) primary motor cortex

e) supplementary motor area

a) dorsolateral prefrontal cortex

27
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neurofibrillary tangles are caused by a misfolding of the protein

a) amyloid

b) tau

c) prosopagnosia

d) none of these is correct

b) tau

28
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someone with Huntington’s disease who has 40 or more CAG repeats in their huntingtin gene will develop Huntington’s disease

a) true

b) false

a) true

29
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the consequences of widespread cerebellar damage include

a) experiencing auditory hallucinations

b) inducing a state of persistent fatigue

c) difficulty in maintaining steady postures

d) intermittent nausea with occasional vertigo

e) an inability to form new memories

c) difficulty in maintaining steady postures

30
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a hallmark sign of Alzheimer’s disease is the formation of clusters of misfolded _____ both inside and outside of neurons

a) vesicles

b) receptors

c) grotons

d) proteins

d) proteins

31
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in addition to the radial migration of developing neurons, there is considerable _____ migration

a) tangential

b) intermediate

c) rapid

d) axonal

e) circuitous

a) tangential

32
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the last part of the human brain to reach full maturity is the

a) amygdala

b) hippocampus

c) occipital cortex

d) prefrontal cortex

e) hypothalamus

d) prefrontal cortex

33
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many new neural tube cells migrate radially

a) from a tangent to a sub-tangent

b) along axons of other neurons

c) along radial glial cells

d) to the ventricular zone

e) to the translocal zone

c) along radial glial cells

34
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in the context of synaptogenesis, neurons display a substantial degree of

a) specificity

b) celibacy

c) monogamy

d) promiscuity

e) inertia

d) promiscuity

35
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there seem to be two different mechanisms of neural migration: glia-mediated migration and

a) amoeboid migration

b) neural cresting

c) somal translocation

d) growth cone translocation

e) pioneer migration

c) somal translocation

36
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most neural proliferation in the developing neural tube occurs in the layer adjacent to

a) the marginal zone

b) the cortex

c) layer 6

d) the fluid-filled ventricle

e) the neural crest

d) the fluid-filled ventricle

37
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most cases of Williams syndrome are associated with

a) multiple sclerosis

b) increased levels of elastin

c) creative and accurate drawing skills

d) the mutation of a gene on chromosome 7

e) an abnormal gene on chromosome 1

d) the mutation of a gene on chromosome 7

38
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the neural groove develops into the neural

a) mesoderm

b) plate

c) aqueduct

d) tube

e) endoderm

d) tube

39
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at the tip of each developing axon or dendrite is an amoebalike structure called a

a) growth cell

b) pioneer cell

c) growth cone

d) blueprint cell

e) synaptic cleft

c) growth cone

40
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dendritic branching during postnatal development follows a(n) _____ pattern similar to that of neural migration during prenatal development

a) inside-out

b) all-or-none

c) outside-in

d) forward-and-back

e) through-and-over

a) inside-out

41
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cell adhesion molecules are thought to mediate the process of

a) aggregation

b) differentiation

c) cell death

d) sprouting

e) proliferation

a) aggregation

42
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most of the cell death associated with early development of the brain is

a) necrotic

b) apoplectic

c) passive

d) neurotic

e) apoptotic

e) apoptotic

43
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synaptogenesis seems to depend on the presence of

a) neurons

b) pioneer cones

c) astrocytes

d) guidance molecules

e) growth cones

c) astrocytes

44
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apoptosis is safer than necrosis because apoptosis does not provoke

a) totipotency

b) synapse rearrangement

c) further cell degeneration

d) potential harmful inflammation

e) neuron death

d) potential harmful inflammation

45
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the prefrontal cortex seems to play a role in all of these processes except

a) inhibiting responses that are inappropriate in the current situation

b) working memory

c) following rules for appropriate social behavior

d) complex visual processing

e) planning and carrying out sequences of action

d) complex visual processing

46
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the amygdala appears to be involved in the _____ component of memory, whereas the cerebellum appears to be involved in the _____ component

a) emotional; sensorimotor

b) sensory; emotional

c) visual; temporal

d) spatial; visual

e) procedural; implicit

a) emotional; sensorimotor

47
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oligodendrocytes modulate their myelination of axons in response to

a) engram deterioration

b) transcription factors

c) experience

d) LTD

e) electrical stimulation

c) experience

48
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the two types of glutamate receptors that are key to LTP are

a) NMDA, Ampa

b) NMDA, glutamate

c) NMDA, GABA

d) MKNA, Ampa

a) NMDA, Ampa

49
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the main reason why LTP is one of the most widely studied phenomena is that it

a) can be studied quickly and inexpensively, even by scientists untrained in memory research

b) involves a synaptic change similar to the synaptic change that has been hypothesized to be the basis of memory storage

c) can easily be studied in human volunteers

d) occurs in only mammals

e) involves readily accessible neocortical circuits

b) involves a synaptic change similar to the synaptic change that has been hypothesized to be the basis of memory storage

50
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which is the most prevalent excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain?

a) NMDA

b) epinephrine

c) GABA

d) glycine

e) glutamate

e) glutamate

51
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long-term potentiation

a) has not been studied in mammals

b) cannot be induced by electrical stimulation

c) has been most commonly studied in several different neural circuits in the hippocampus

d) is not associated with changes in synaptic transmission

e) is usually induced by the intense stimulation of motor neurons

c) has been most commonly studied in several different neural circuits in the hippocampus

52
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the main source of the brain’s acetylcholine is the

a) hippocampus

b) basal forebrain

c) mammillary bodies

d) frontal cortex

e) substantia nigra

b) basal forebrain

53
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according to the reconsolidation notion, long-term memories are temporarily susceptible to posttraumatic amnesia when they are

a) consolidated

b) transferred to the cortex

c) recalled into short-term memory

d) transferred to the hippocampus

e) transferred to long-term potentiation

c) recalled into short-term memory

54
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targeted knockout mice for gene encoding _____ do not show LTP

a) Ampa

b) P3

c) GABA

d) CaM-KII

d) CaM-KII

55
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dysfunction in the brains of people with Alzheimer’s disease who have progressed to the dementia stage is often

a) widespread

b) localized in the parietal lobe

c) limited to the amygdala

d) concentrated in the prefrontal cortex

e) localized in the occipital lobe

a) widespread

56
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long-term potentiation is induced only when the high-intensity, high-frequency stimulation activates

a) the hippocampus and the perforant path

b) the hippocampus

c) the presynaptic neurons but not the postsynaptic neurons

d) the postsynaptic neurons but not the presynaptic neurons

e) both the presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons

e) both the presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons

57
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which factor is regarded as critical in the induction of LTP?

a) the amygdala

b) reinforcement

c) co-occurrence of activity in presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons

d) the hippocampus

e) expression

c) co-occurrence of activity in presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons

58
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hippocampal lesions in rats reliably disrupt the performance of tasks that involve memory for

a) spatial locations

b) time

c) instrumental conditioning

d) Pavlovian conditioning

e) objects

a) spatial locations

59
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Ampa and NMDA are

a) calcium receptors

b) GABA receptors

c) sodium receptors

d) glutamate receptors

d) glutamate receptors

60
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co-occurrence in the context of long-term potentiation refers to the requirement for simultaneous activity in

a) presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons

b) the CA1 and CA3 regions

c) the hippocampus and dentate

d) pyramidal and granule cells

e) sensory neurons and motor neurons

a) presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons