Lecture 9 - Transfusion Therapy

0.0(0)
studied byStudied by 0 people
learnLearn
examPractice Test
spaced repetitionSpaced Repetition
heart puzzleMatch
flashcardsFlashcards
Card Sorting

1/112

encourage image

There's no tags or description

Looks like no tags are added yet.

Study Analytics
Name
Mastery
Learn
Test
Matching
Spaced

No study sessions yet.

113 Terms

1
New cards

Three types of blood donation

Allogeneic donation- routine community blood donation
Directed donation- intended recipient selects specific donors
Autologous donation-donating for oneself

2
New cards

Every unit of donated blood is subjected to these tests:

-ABO blood typing
-Infectious disease testing

3
New cards

What are the 5 different blood components available for transfusion?

-whole blood
-RBC's
-Platelets
-Frozen plasma
-cryoprecipitate

4
New cards

Leukoreduction

Filtration technique designed to remove 99.99% of WBC's from RBC or platelet products

5
New cards

What population of patients are at most risk of cytomegalovirus?

Immunocompromised patients (e.g. neonates)

6
New cards

What is the effect of irradiation of cellular blood products? What patient group is this procedure indicated?

Gamma irradiation renders lymphocytes unable to proliferate

*Important in preventing GvHD in immunocompromised patients

7
New cards

Washing

Removes plasma on RBC and platelet units by repeated saline addition and removal from the unit.

8
New cards

Apheresis

-Blood is collected from the donor and separated into components -Those portions of the blood not required are returned to the donor *Can be used to collect platelets

9
New cards

What coagulation factor concentrates are available?

Factor VIII

10
New cards

What should be done clinically when a patient is in emergent need of transfusion but there is a typing discrepancy?

In emergency situations

11
New cards

Causes of typing discrepancies

-very weakly expressed A or B antigens
-absent blood group antibodies in immunocompromised patients

12
New cards

What individuals have anti-D antibodies?

-Rh negative individuals develop anti-D antibodies only if they are stimulated to produce an antibody by exposure to Rh positive blood -This can occur if Rh- patient gets an Rh+ unit of blood or an Rh- mother is exposed to blood of her Rh+ infant through a fetal-maternal bleed

13
New cards

What isotype are anti-D antibodies?

IgG

14
New cards

Weak "D"

Weakened expression of the "D" antigen in Rh+ individual that can result in mis-typing of patient.

15
New cards

Rh null

-rare individuals who have no Rh antigens on their RBC surface; type as Rh-
-mild, compensated hemolytic anemia, reticulocytosis, stomatocytosis and sometimes elevated bilirubin
-can only be transfused blood from another Rh null individual

16
New cards

What does pre-transfusion testing consist of?

-Performing ABO and Rh testing
-An antibody screen is done to determine if the patient has developed an antibody to a blood group antigen such as anti-K -Antibody screen is done by combining patient serum with carefully selected screening red cells-> if agglutination occurs then the red cell antigen is probably present
-Selection of the same or compatible blood type from an inventory labeled by ABO and Rh type
-Cross-match patient serum with RBCs from donors final check for compatibility

17
New cards

If whole blood is to be transfused, what are the restrictions on type selection?

The blood must be of the same ABO/Rh type--- type-identical

18
New cards

If red blood cells are to be transfused, what are the typing restrictions?

They don't have to be identical, but compatible.

19
New cards

What blood groups are acceptable for platelet transfusion?

All ABO groups are acceptable. However, women of child-bearing age and children who are Rh negative should receive Rh negative blood.

20
New cards

What blood groups restrictions for plasma transfusion?

Must be compatible with recipients RBCs.

21
New cards

What blood groups compatibility concerns are there for cryoprecipitate transfusion?

All ABO groups are acceptable

22
New cards

What blood groups compatibility concerns are there for granulocyte transfusion?

Must be compatible with the recipient's plasma

23
New cards

What are most transfusion errors caused by?

Failure to properly identify the patient at the time of transfusion and failure at the time of initial phlebotomy.

24
New cards

Crossmatch

Mixing donor RBCs with the patient's plasma to determine if agglutination occurs which indicates that an antibody is present in the patient that reacts with antigens on the donor red cells-->INCOMPATIBLE

25
New cards

Direct Anti-globulin Test(DAT)(Coombs)

-not a routine part of transfusion testing
-used to determine if there is IgG antibody or complement(C3d) attached to surface of RBCs

26
New cards

What are the only 4 reasons for a DAT?

1)Hemolytic transfusion reaction(transfusion of incompatible blood)
2)Hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn(maternal IgG RBC antibody crosses placenta and sensitizes fetal RBCs)
3)Autoimmune hemolysis(IgG or IgM)
4)Drug-induced autoantibodies

27
New cards

What are the 3 types of antiglobulin reagents?

1)Broad-spectrum(contains BOTH IgG and C3d)
2)Anti-IgG
3)Anti-C3d

28
New cards

Why/How is IgG removed from RBCs?

By a technique called elution so that it can be identified and studied.

29
New cards

What are some compensatory mechanisms for anemia?

-Increased cardiac output (HR/SV)
-Redistribution of blood flow
-Increased oxygen extraction
-Increased red cell 2

30
New cards

At what Hgb level is a transfusion indicated?

less than 6 g/dL

31
New cards

At what Hgb level is transfusion generally not indicated?

greater than 10 g/dL

32
New cards

Exchange transfusion

Apheresis procedure to remove patient red cells and replace with normal, non-sickling red cells

33
New cards

What result of chronic transfusion causes increased morbidity and mortality?

Iron overload

34
New cards

What causes Iron Overload?

-Each red cell unit contains ~250 mg of iron with a maximum daily excretion of ~1 mg

-As transfused red cells are destroyed excess iron cannot be adequately eliminated
-Excess iron is stored in the body as hemosiderin and ferritin
-Iron accumulates in RES

35
New cards

What are the treatment for Iron Overload?

Chelation therapy (deferoxamine, deferipone, deferoxamine)

36
New cards

What are the 4 general causes of thrombocytopenia?

-increased destruction
-decreased production
-platelet sequestration
-dilutional thrombocytopenia

37
New cards

Normal platelet count:

150-450,000

38
New cards

What are the indications for transfusing plasma?

-Active bleeding due to MULTIPLE coagulation factor deficiencies
-Patients receiving massive transfusions due to dilution of coagulation factors
-Patients with single factor deficiency when there is no specific factor concentrate available
-Rapid reversal of Warfarin therapy

39
New cards

For an emergency reversal of Warfarin therapy, _______ is used:

Frozen plasma

40
New cards

For a 24-hour reversal of Warfarin therapy _______ is used:

IV Vitamin K

41
New cards

For a 48 hour reversal of Warfarin therapy, _______ is used:

stopping of Warfarin

42
New cards

What are the indications for transfusion of cryoprecipitate?

-Used to treat patients with decreased fibrinogen levels
-Can also be used to treat patients with severe vWD who are deficient in vWF(Type 1 and 2A can be treated with DDAVP)
-Patients with uremic bleeding to improve primary hemostasis

43
New cards

Hemophilia A? Treatment?

deficiency of Factor VIII

Treated with recombinant and high purity plasma-derived Factor VIII

44
New cards

Hemophilia B? Treatment?

deficiency of Factor IX

Treated with recombinant and high purity plasma-derived FactorIX

45
New cards

When is the use of Factor VIIa concentrates indicated?

In patients with hemophilia who have developed an inhibitor(alloantibody)

Off license use in selected cases of refractory bleeding.

46
New cards

When is granulocyte transfusion indicated?

In immunosuppressed patients when:
-profound neutropenia(<500/microL)
-documented sepsis
-failed trial of appropriate antibodies

47
New cards

Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn(HDFN)

Anemia and hyperbilirubinemia of the fetus and/or newborn caused by an incompatibility between maternal and fetal red cells

-HDFN is caused by maternal IgG antibodies crossing the placenta; maternal IgM cannot cross and cannot cause HDFN

48
New cards

What percentage of cases of HDFN is due to ABO incompatability? Symptoms?

60%

-generally mild (increased postnatal bilirubin)
-can affect first and subsequent pregnancies

49
New cards

Immune-antibody HDFN

-40% of cases
-most common immune antibody is anti-D
-symptoms can be severe
-generally only affects later pregnancies

50
New cards

Exposure of an Rh- mother to Rh+ blood occurs by:

1)transfusion of Rh+ blood to an Rh- patient
2)fetal-maternal hemorrhage during previous pregnancy

51
New cards

Prenatal presentation of HDFN:

-erythroblastosis fetalis
-anemia
-high-output heart failure
-edema
-polyhydramnios(hydrops fetalis)

52
New cards

Postnatal presentation of HDFN:

-anemia -hyperbilirubinemia
-kernicterus(bilirubin-induced brain dysfunction)
-neonatal demise due to severe neurological complications (~90%)

53
New cards

Rh Immune Globulin

-HDFN prevention
-preparation of antibodies to D-antigen
-prevents development of anti-D in Rh- mothers
-standard dose covers up to a 30 mL bleed
-administer within 72 hours of hemorrhage -28-week dose---No FMH prior to this time

54
New cards

For expected mothers with a positive anti-D antibody screen, what is evaluated?

-Antibody type
-Maternal antibody titre
-Amniocentesis for hemolytic pigment
-Fetal middle cerebral artery systolic blood flow velocity

55
New cards

Critical titer

1:8 to 1:16 (titers of 8 and 16)

At this titer, an amniocentesis to assess the status of the fetus should be done

56
New cards

delta OD450

The abnormal increase in absorbed light at 450 nm caused by the amount of hemolytic pigment in the amniotic fluid.

-compared on a Liley graph to gestational age to determine severity of HDFN

Zone 1: mild
Zone 2: Questionable
Zone 3: Severely affected

57
New cards

Middle Cerebral Artery Peak Systolic Velocity(MCAPSV)

-doppler study -non-invasive
-MCAPSV correlates well with moderate to severe fetal anemia
-useful between 18 and 35 weeks (amniocentesis used after 38 weeks)

58
New cards

Prenatal management of HDFN in a severely affected fetus involves...

Intrauterine transfusion

-18-34 weeks
-Blood:antigen negative, ABO/Rh compatible and irradiated, hematocrit 75-85%

59
New cards

Postnatal treatment for HDFN in mildly affected neonate

-Phototherapy(effective, fluorescent)
-Exchange transfusion(decreases bilirubin, removes antibody-coated red cells, removes maternal antibody, corrects anemia)

60
New cards

What are the indications for exchange transfusion?

-cord Hgb <10 g/dL
-Rapidly rising bilirubin >0.5 mg/dL/hour
-Bilirubin >20 mg/dL in term infant

61
New cards

Transfusion complications fall into these two categories:

1)Infectious disease transmission
2)Non-infectious complications

62
New cards

Noninfectious complications of transfusion can be placed into these 4 categories:

1)Allergic
2)Hemolytic
3)Respiratory
4)Miscellaneous

63
New cards

Symptoms of simple allergic reaction:

-urticaria
-NO additional symptoms

64
New cards

Symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction:

-Urticaria
-Sever hypotension
-Dsypnea(bronchospasm)
-Chills
-Fever

65
New cards

Allergic reactions to transfusion are what type of HSR?

Type I

66
New cards

Pathophysiology of simple allergic reaction

-An allergen(usually some plasma protein) combines with a preformed IgE antibody in the recipient
-Mast cells are then activated by the binding of the allergen to IgE bound to the mast cell
-This results in degranulation and the release of histamine and other mediators

67
New cards

What is the treatment for simple allergic reactions from transfusion?

-Suspend the transfusion -Administer antihistamine prednisone; can be added if the antihistamine alone is insufficient
-Restart transfusion if hives resolve

68
New cards

69
New cards

How can simple allergic reactions to transfusion be prevented?

-Treatment with antihistamine 30 minutes prior to transfusion may reduce risk of recurrent allergic reaction
-For severe recurrent allergic reactions, or reactions unresponsive to antihistamine treatment, red cell and platelet products can be washed to remove residual plasma

70
New cards

Most anaphylactic reactions occur in patients who are______ deficient. Why?

IgA
-Patients who are deficient IgA can be stimulated to produce antibodies to IgA (IgE and anti-IgA) -Patients who are deficient in only one class of IgA(IgA1 or IgA2) can produce allotype specific antibodies which have been implicated in anaphylaxis

71
New cards

72
New cards

What is the treatment for anaphylactic reactions to transfusion?

-Stop transfusion
-Maintain oxygenation(supplemental)
-Stabilize hypotension (Trendelenberg position; crystalloids)
-Epinephrine

73
New cards

crystalloids) -Epinephrine

74
New cards

Symptoms of acute hemolytic reaction:

-Fever/chills -Pain(back, flank, inj. site,chest)
-Naseaa, vomiting
-Dyspnea
-Hypotension
-Hemoglobinemia, -uria

75
New cards

Symptoms of delayed hemolytic reaction:

-Minimal symptoms
-Unexpected anemia
-Jaundice

76
New cards

The majority of hemolytic transfusion reactions are caused by ______ errors.

clerical

77
New cards

Most causes of AHTR are due to.....

The transfusion of ABO-incompatible red cells to patients with preexisting anti-A or anti-B.

78
New cards

Anti-A and anti-B are usually which isotype?

IgM

79
New cards

Intravascular hemolysis is caused by? Results in?

Caused by anti-A/B of IgM type which can efficiently fix complement which can lead to formation of the MAC.

This results in increased levels of bilirubin, hemoglobinemia and hemoglobinuria and the appearance of schistocytes.

80
New cards

Extravascular hemolysis is caused by? Results in?

Caused by anti-A/B of the IgG type that fix complement and also cause intravascular hemolysis, but more often leading to extravascular hemolysis resulting in increased bilirubin.

81
New cards

The most significant threats of AHTR are:

1)Renal Failure(Acute Tubular Necrosis)
2)Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

82
New cards

What are the roles of Factor XII in the AHTR?

-Factor XII may cause hypotension through the production of bradykinin
-Activated Factor XII can also activate the coagulation cascade, THF-alpha and IL-1 =>ultimately leading to DIC

83
New cards

How is Factor XII activated in AHTR?

Antigen-antibody complexes that precipitate hemolysis activate Factor XII

84
New cards

What is done if AHTR is suspected?

-Stop transfusion immediately
-Maintain venous access infuse normal saline
-Maintain urine output(diuretics may be useful)
-Maintain BP
-Monitor coagulation status

85
New cards

infuse normal saline -Maintain urine output(diuretics may be useful) -Maintain BP -Monitor coagulation status

86
New cards

Most AHTR result from the transfusion of______ .

ABO incompatible blood

87
New cards

What causes delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions?

-In DHTR, red cell antibody is not present or detectable at the time of transfusion
-Red cell antibodies develop in the recipient during the 7-21 days after the transfusion and is caused by exposure to foreign red cell antigens on the transfused red cells
-Development of this antibody results in the destruction of the remaining transfused red cells

88
New cards

Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury(TRALI) symptoms

-Dyspnea/Hypoxia
-Fever/Chills
-HYPOTENSION
-CVP:normal or low
-CXR:bilat. puls infiltrates

89
New cards

What are the causes of TRALI?

-Single clinical event-infusion of donor antibodies directed against recipient leukocytes
-"Two-hit" mechanism- First "hit" refers to the clinical condition of the patient causing pulmonary endothelial activation and adherence of PMN's second "hit" is the transfusion of biologic response modifiers
-Agents that cause endothelial fenestration in neutropenic patients=> high levels of VEGF or high levels of HLA Class II antibodies

90
New cards

second "hit" is the transfusion of biologic response modifiers -Agents that cause endothelial fenestration in neutropenic patients=> high levels of VEGF or high levels of HLA Class II antibodies

91
New cards

Treatment for TRALI

-Stop transfusion
-Prompt respiratory support
-Intubation and mechanical ventilation, if necessary
-Vasopressors for hypotension
-Diuretics NOT indicated

92
New cards

How is TRALI prevented?

-Minimize the use of donors who have increased chance of having anti-leukocyte antibodies (e.g. multiparous females)

93
New cards

Transfusion Associated Circulatory Overload(TACO) symptoms

-Manifestation of simple volume overload
-Increased CVP
-Congestive Heart Failure

94
New cards

Treatment of TACO

-Stop transfusion
-Manage symptoms
-Diuretics indicated

95
New cards

TACO can be prevented by slowing the infusion rate to _____ .

1.0 mL/kg/hour (usual rate is 2.0-2.5 mL/kg/hour)

96
New cards

Febrile Nonhemolyitc Transfusion Reactions symptoms

-relatively common
-no long-term impact on the patient
-1-2 degree temperature increase during or within 4 hours of transfusion
-chills/rigors

97
New cards

What causes Febrile Nonhemolyitc Transfusion Reactions?

White blood cells and cytokines (IL-1, 6, 8 TNF-a) elaborated in the donor blood product

98
New cards

How is Febrile, Nonhemolyitc Transfusion Reactions treated and prevented?

-Antipyretics
-Leukoreduction of blood products

99
New cards

Graft versus Host Disease(GvHD)

The immunologic manifestation of tissue damage as the result of the proliferation of donor lymphocytes in an immunocompromised host

-Immunocompromised host fails to recognize donor T-cells
-Infusion of viable T-cells
-Proliferation of donor T-cells proliferate in host
-Immunologic damage to liver

100
New cards

GvHD affects only severely immunocompromised patients such as those who have ___________.

-congenital immunodeficiencies
-Hodgkin's disease
-Intrauterine transfusion
-Bone marrow transplants