NR 283 Exam 1: Cellular Injury, Genetics, Inflammation, Immunity, Infections, Wounds, Skin Conditions Questions with 100% correct answers -Chamberlain

What happens when a patient's cells are deprived of oxygen?

ATP drops → Na+/K+ pump fails → Na+ stays inside → water follows → cell swells

What term describes a lack of oxygen in the body's tissues?

Hypoxia

What is an increase in the NUMBER of liver cells an example of?

Hyperplasia

What describes a bodybuilder's skeletal muscle cells enlarging due to weight training?

Hypertrophy

What is it called when respiratory tract cells are replaced by more resistant squamous cells in a smoker?

Metaplasia

What cellular change occurs when a patient immobilized for 6 weeks develops decreased muscle mass?

Atrophy

What is an example of PRIMARY prevention?

Vaccination against influenza

What level of prevention does routine mammogram screening represent?

Secondary

What level of prevention is screening children ages 6 months to 5 years for blood lead levels?

Secondary

What does attending physical therapy to regain function after a stroke represent?

Tertiary prevention

Which physical characteristic is MOST associated with Down syndrome?

Flattened nasal bridge

Which diagnostic test confirms Down syndrome prenatally?

Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)

What causes Down syndrome?

Trisomy 21

What is the risk of transmission for a parent with an autosomal dominant disorder?

50% for each child

Turner syndrome results from which chromosomal pattern?

XO

What type of genetic disorder is congenital heart disease an example of?

Multifactorial

What findings are expected in a female with an XO chromosomal pattern?

Short stature, Infertility, Female phenotype

What inheritance pattern does Huntington's disease follow?

Autosomal dominant

What term describes the causative factors of a particular disease?

Etiology

What does it mean if a disease is classified as idiopathic?

The cause is unknown

What describes the mechanism by which a disease develops and progresses?

Pathogenesis

What would a patient experiencing acute stress MOST likely exhibit?

Hypertension and tachycardia

Which are PSYCHOLOGICAL stressors?

Searching for a job, New life experiences, Ending a friendship

What effects does cortisol release during chronic stress cause?

Decreased WBC count, Decreased allergic response

What occurs during hyperthermia when the body attempts to release heat?

Peripheral vessels dilate

What primarily determines whether a chemical causes adverse health effects?

The duration of exposure

What diagnostic test is anticipated for a patient with a suspicious skin growth?

Biopsy

What process describes tumor cells growing into adjacent tissue?

Local invasion

How do tumors most commonly cause pain?

By compressing surrounding tissues

What characteristics describe a BENIGN tumor?

Systemic effects are rare, Slower growth rate, Does not invade surrounding tissue readily

What is elevated CRP MOST associated with?

Acute inflammation

Which sign of inflammation is caused by vasodilation?

Redness

What results from chronic inflammation?

Tissue destruction and scar tissue formation

Which finding represents a systemic manifestation of inflammation?

C. Anorexia

Scar tissue formation following chronic inflammation results in:

C. Obstructions from fibrous tissue

Which represents the first line of defense against infection?

C. Skin and mucous membranes

Acute inflammation lab findings include: (Select all that apply)

A. Elevated CRP, B. Elevated WBC, C. Elevated ESR

A child receives the measles vaccine. This represents which type of immunity?

C. Active artificial

A breastfed infant receives maternal antibodies. This is:

D. Passive natural immunity

Which immunoglobulin is most abundant in blood and crosses the placenta?

D. IgG

Which immunoglobulin mediates Type I hypersensitivity/anaphylaxis?

C. IgE

A patient develops hives and difficulty breathing after penicillin. This is most consistent with:

D. Type I — IgE-mediated

A patient receives an incompatible blood transfusion. This reaction is classified as:

B. Type II hypersensitivity

A patient with rheumatoid arthritis has antigen-antibody complexes deposited in joints. This is:

C. Type III hypersensitivity

A patient reacts to poison ivy 48 hours later. This delayed response is:

D. Type IV — cell-mediated

Which finding is most indicative of anaphylaxis vs. mild allergic reaction?

C. Dyspnea (difficulty breathing)

Primary immunodeficiency is best described as:

C. A congenital loss of immune components

An infection by a normally harmless organism due to immune compromise is called:

C. Opportunistic

Which person is at highest risk for contracting HIV?

C. A person who regularly uses intravenous heroin

During which infection stage does the patient have generalized symptoms while the pathogen is actively multiplying?

B. Prodromal period

A patient develops an infection while hospitalized for surgery. This is classified as:

C. Nosocomial infection

An infection occurring in higher-than-expected numbers in a population is:

C. Epidemic

The primary purpose of universal precautions is to:

C. Reduce transmission of pathogens

Several different pathogens infect the same wound simultaneously. This is a:

C. Mixed infection

During the incubation period of infection, which statement is accurate?

C. The pathogen is present but no symptoms have appeared

A clean surgical incision is closed with sutures. This heals by:

C. Primary intention

A pressure ulcer is left open to heal. This represents:

C. Secondary intention

A pressure ulcer shows non-blanching redness with intact skin. This is classified as:

B. Stage 1

A pressure ulcer has damage into the adipose layer with full thickness skin loss. This is:

C. Stage 3

Pressure ulcers are most likely at which sites when a patient is repositioned to side-lying?

A. Hip, C. Ankle, D. Sacrum

Which factors delay wound healing? (Select all that apply)

A. Smoking, C. Obesity, E. Malnutrition

A patient with shingles asks why the rash is painful. The nurse explains it is caused by:

C. Herpes zoster virus

After eating shellfish, a patient develops urticaria. The nurse anticipates they will also experience:

B. Pruritus (itching)

A patient with chickenpox has an elevated, thin-walled lesion with clear fluid. This lesion is a:

D. Vesicle

A patient has a flat, discolored skin spot that is not elevated. This is a:

C. Macule

Which lesion is solid, elevated, and contains no fluid?

D. Papule

A patient has an elevated lesion filled with pus. This is a:

D. Pustule

What happens to ATP levels without O2?

ATP drops.

What does the Na+/K+ pump require?

ATP.

What occurs when the Na+/K+ pump fails?

Na+ accumulates inside the cell, causing it to swell.

What is hypoxia?

Lack of O2 in tissues.

What is anemia?

Low RBCs.

What is necrosis?

Cell death.

What is hyperplasia?

Increased number of cells.

What is hypertrophy?

Increased size of individual cells.

What is metaplasia?

One cell type replaced by a different type.

What is atrophy?

Decreased cell size due to disuse or denervation.

What is primary prevention?

Stops disease before it occurs.

What is secondary prevention?

Early detection of developing disease before symptoms appear.

What is tertiary prevention?

Managing/reducing the impact of established disease.

What are the features of Down syndrome?

Flattened nose, large tongue, small hands, decreased muscle tone.

What does CVS allow?

Prenatal chromosomal analysis.

What is Trisomy 21?

An extra copy of chromosome 21.

What is autosomal dominant inheritance?

50% probability of transmission to each child.

What is Turner syndrome?

XO — only one sex chromosome, affecting females.

What is multifactorial inheritance?

Multiple genes plus environment.

What is the etiology of a disease?

The cause of disease.

What is pathogenesis?

The mechanism of disease development.

What does acute stress activate?

SNS fight-or-flight response.

What does cortisol do?

Decreases WBCs and allergic response.

What is hyperthermia?

Peripheral vasodilation increases blood flow to skin.

What is the key determinant of harmful chemical effects?

Duration of exposure.

What is the definitive diagnostic method for suspicious skin masses?

Biopsy.

What is local invasion in tumors?

Tumor cells growing into adjacent tissue.

What causes pain in tumors?

Compression of surrounding tissues and nerves.

What are the hallmarks of acute inflammation?

Elevated CRP, WBC, and ESR.

What is vaccination?

Active and artificial immunity.

What is breastfeeding in terms of immunity?

Passive and natural immunity.

What does IgG do?

Most common blood antibody, crosses the placenta.

What mediates Type I hypersensitivity?

IgE.