Blood bank lec: Hemolytic disease of the Fetus and Newborn (HDFN)

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83 Terms

1
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This is the destruction of the RBCs of a fetus and or neonate by antibodies produced by pregnant individual

hemolytic disease of the newborn and fetus

2
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About 95% of cases of HDFN were caused by antibodies in the pregnant individual directed against what antigen?

Rh/D antigen

3
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Why has HDFN caused by anti-D decreased since 1968?

introduction of Rh immune globulin (RhIG)

4
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True or false. Rh(D) incompatibility is common, although other rBC incompatibilities have surpassed D in frequency at referral centers.

true

5
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What is the etiology of HDFN? (2)

- antibodies of IgG class are transported across the placenta
- antibodies directed against antigen on fetal RBCs that were inherited from father

6
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Is the firstborn that is Rh+ with an Rh- mother affected by HDFN? Explain.

No, first born is unaffected because parent hasn't been immunized

7
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When do fetal RBCs enter maternal circulation?

during gestation and delivery when placenta separates from uterus

8
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How does Rh HDFN occur? (3)

- D antigen inherited paternally and fetal cells immunize pregnant mom and stimulate production of anti-D
- once pregnant individual immunized to D antigen, later offspring who inherit D antigen will be affected
- maternal anti-D cross placenta and binds to fetal Rh-positive cells

9
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Transplacental hemorrhage of fetal RBCs into the maternal circulation occurs in up to ______ of pregnant individuals during gestation. What percentage of transplacental hemorrhage is seen at delivery?

- 7%
- more than 50%

10
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What can increase the risk of fetomaternal hemorrhage? (3)

- amniocentesis
- chorionic villus sampling
- trauma to abdomen

11
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The ability of individuals to produce antibodies in response to antigenic exposure can vary depending on what?

complex genetic factors

12
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When an Rh- person is transfused with 200mL of positive blood, what percentage of people form anti-D? What percentage of Rh-negative mothers form anti-D after Rh positive pregnancy with no RhIG?

1. 20%
2. 16%

13
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What subclasses of IgG are more efficient in causing RBC hemolysis of fetal cells?

IgG1 and IgG3 (not IgG2 or IgG4)

14
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When does IgG transport across the placenta take place during pregnancy? What do the subclasses of IgG affect?

- starts in second trimester
- severity of the hemolytic disease

15
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What is the most antigenic RBC antigen? What antigens follow this?

1. D antigen
2. C, then E, then c

16
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Other than Rh group, this is considered the most clinically significant in its ability to cause HDFN.

anti-Kell

17
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What does it mean if anti-Kell is present on immature erythroid cells in bone marrow on fetal cells?

severe anemia due to destruction of peripheral cell and precursor cells

18
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What antibodies most commonly cause HDFN? (8)

- anti-D
- anti-D+C
- anti-D+E
- anti-C
- anti-E
- anti-c
- anti-e
- anti-K

19
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What antibodies rarely cause HDFN? (6)

- anti-fya
- anti-s
- anti-M
- anti-N
- anti-S
- anti-Jka

20
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What antibodies never cause HDFN? (5)

- anti-lea
- anti-leb
- anti-I
- anti-IH
- anti-P1

21
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When does hemolysis occur in HDFN?

when maternal IgG attaches to specific antigens of fetal RBCs

22
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What does rate of fetal RBC destruction depend on? (3)

- antibody titer
- specificity
- number of RBC antigenic sites

23
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The rate of RBC destruction after birth ___________ because no additional maternal antibody is entering the infant's circulation through the placenta.

decreases

24
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Fetal RBC destruction and the resulting anemia stimulate what?

fetal bone marrow to produce RBCs at an accelerated rate

25
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What is the effect of half life of maternal IgG on fetal red cells?

antibody binding and hemolysis of RBCs continue for several days to weeks post-deliver

26
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Pathogenesis in HDFN: immature fetal RBCs (erythroblasts) are released into circulation. Hepatosplenomegaly results from extra medullary hematopoiesis.

erythroblastosis fetalis

27
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Pathogenesis in HDFN: severe anemia and hypoproteinemia lead to development of high-output cardiac failure with generalized edema, effusions, and ascites

hydrops fetalis

28
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RBC destruction releases hemoglobin which is metabolized to ________.

bilirubin

29
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How is bilirubin transported across the placenta? (2)

- indirect bilirubin transported across placenta and conjugated in maternal liver to direct bilirubin
- pregnant individual excretes conjugated bilirubin

30
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What happens to bilirubin in infants after birth?

immature newborn liver cannot adequately process unconjugated bilirubin

31
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Moderate to severe hemolysis levels can cause bilirubin levels to reach 18-20 mg/dL which causes what in the infant?

permanent damage to parts of the brain

32
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What is the recommended obstetric practice for diagnosis of HDFN? (2)

- perform type (ABO and Rh) and antibody screen at first prenatal visit
- previous pregnancies and their outcomes and prior transfusions

33
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What is the methodology of the antibody screen of the pregnant mother?

detect clinically significant IgG alloantibodies that are reactive at 37C and in AHG phase

34
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What happens if the antibody screen is reactive? (2)

- antibody identify is determined
- follow up testing will depend on antibody specificity and clinical significance

35
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many Rh-negative pregnant women have weakly reactive anti-D in the _________ trimester.

third

36
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Why is anti-D weakly reactive in the third trimester of Rh- mothers?

due to RhIg injection given at 28 weeks or after event that results in fetomaternal hemorrhage

37
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How long does RhIG remain reactive in mother? What titer indicates active immunization? What titer is seen with RhIG?

1. remain reactive for 2+ months
2. 4 or higher
3. <4

38
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If a pregnant individuals has anti-D and paternal parent is D-positive, an Rh phenotype can help determine what?

chance of infant being homozygous or heterozygous for D antigen

39
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Paternal genotyping can be done by what more sensitive and precise method?

DNA methods

40
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How do paternal phenotype and genotype help in HDFN? (2)

- guides further testing of pregnant individual
- counseling for potential treatment plants and complications of HDFN

41
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If a pregnant individual has anti-D and the father is likely heterozygous for D antigen, what can be done to determine if the fetus has the gene for D antigen? (3)

- amniocentesis
- chorionic villous sapling
- performed as early as 10-12 weeks gestastion

42
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Amniocentesis and chorionic villous testing be performed for the genes coding what? (9)

- c
- e
- C
- E
- K
- Fya
- Jka
- Jkb
- M

43
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What is the relative concentration of antibodies capable of crossing the placenta and causing HDFN is determined by?

antibody titration

44
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The antibody titration method must include what phase?

indirect antiglobulin phase using anti-IgG reagent

45
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What is the antibody titration result expressed as?

reciprocal of titration endpoint or as titer score (1:6= 6)

46
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True of false. The titration must be performed exactly the same way each time the patient's serum is tested.

TRUE (important)

47
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How long is antibody titers incubated and at what phases? What samples are stored to run in tandem with other specimens?

- 60 min incubation at 37C and AHG
- first serum/plasma sample

48
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A difference of _____ dilutions or a score of ______ is considered a significant antibody titer.

>2; 10

49
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What test can be done at 16 weeks gestation when a titer is repeatedly at 32 or above? What does this test determine?

- color doppler imaging to asses middle cerebral artery peak systolic velocity (MCA-PSV)
- presence of fetal anemia

50
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What test is done if titer is <32?

MCA-PSV repeated at 4 week intervals beginning at 16-20 weeks then 2to 4 weeks in third trimester

51
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What procedure is rarely used on mothers to test for HDFN? What procedure is noninvasive and gives the same information as the uncommon one?

1. amniocentesis
2. MCA-PSV

52
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The concentration of bilirubin pigment in the amniotic fluid measured by the ______________ procedure as pregnancy proceeds predicts worsening of the fetal hemolytic disease.

∆OD 450 nm

53
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Intrauterine transfusion intervention becomes necessary under what conditions? (4)

- MCA-PSV indicates anemia
- fetal hydrops is noted on ultrasound examination
- fetal hemoglobin level is less than 10g/dL
- amniotic fluid ∆OD 450 nm results are high

54
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What risks and benefits must be weighed and evaluated before doing an intrauterine transfusion? (3)

- infection
- premature labor
- trauma to placenta

55
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How is intrauterine transfusion performed?

accessing fetal umbilical vein and injecting donor RBCs directly into vein

56
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After delivery, the neonate can develop what issue with bilirubin?

hyperbilirubinemia of unconjugated bilirubin

57
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Phototherapy at what wavelength is used to change unconjugated bilirubin to isomers which has what benefit?

1. 460 to 490nm
2. less lipophilic and less toxic to brain

58
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What does the IVIG do when given to a pregnant person? (2)

- IVIG competes with pregnant persons antibodies for the FC receptors on the macrophages in infants spleen
- reduces amount of hemolysis

59
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The use of whole blood or equivalent to replace the neonate's circulating blood

Exchange transfusion

60
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Why are exchange transfusions rarely required?

due to advances in phototherapy and IVIG

61
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What is exchange transfusion used primarily to remove?

high levels of unconjugated bilirubin

62
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What are other advantages of exchange transfusion? (3)

- removal of part of circulating maternal antibody
- removal of sensitized RBCs
- replacement of incompatible RBCs with compatible RBCs

63
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What hemoglobin levels in the newborn require transfusion? What hemoglobin level indicates severe anemia and hypoxia in the newborn?

1. levels below 10 g/dL
2. <7 g/dL

64
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Cord blood sample correlates with hemoglobin levels during __________.

gestation

65
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What serologic testing of cord blood is used to confirm HDFN and prepare possible transfusion? (4)

- ABO grouping (ABO antigens weak on newborns so weak reactions seen)
- Rh typing
- Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT)
- elution

66
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What blood considerations are needed for intrauterine and neonatal transfusions? (6)

- group O RBCs
- cytomegalovirus (CMV) negative
- irradiated units used to prevent TA-GVHD
- RBCs must be antigen-negative for respective antibodies of birthing parent
- blood units less than 7 days from collection of donor
- Hgb S negative

67
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Why must blood for neonatal and intrauterine transfusions be Hgb S negative?

decrease oxygen tension in neonatal period can cause blood to sickle

68
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Active immunization induced by RBC antigen can be prevented by the concurrent administration of the corresponding RBC antibody. This principle is used to prevent immunization to D antigen by use of this.

RHIG

69
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How does RHIg work? (2)

- RHIG attaches to fetal Rh positive cells in maternal circulation
- antibody coated cells removed by macrophages in maternal spleen

70
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When is antenatal RhIg given? What risk does it pose to fetus?

1. 28 weeks in third trimester
2. no risk to fetus (titer of 1 or 2 in pregnant moms)

71
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Why is RhIG adminstered?

known risk of immunization during pregnancy

72
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Rh-negative non immunized patients receive RhIg within what time frame after delivery of an Rh-positive infant?

72 hours

73
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The regular-dose vial of RhIg in the US contains sufficient anti-D to protect against what volume of packed red cells and whole blood? (2)

- 15 ml of packed RBCs
- 30mL of whole blood

74
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What test is used to determine the volume of fetal hemorrhage?

Kleihauer-Betke test

75
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How many cells are counted to determine the percentage of fetal cells in the Kleihauer-Betke test?

2,000 cells

76
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True or false. RhIG has a benefit on those who have been actively immunized and has formed anti-D

false, RhIg has no benefit on person who has formed anti-D

77
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RhIg is not indicated for the birthing parent if the infant is found to be what type?

D-negative

78
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This occurs when infants are A or B and there are group O moms. A reaction occurs during first pregnancy.

ABO HDFN

79
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What antibody causes ABO HDFN?

potent anti-A,B

80
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When is the prenatal screening for ABO HDFN done?

detection best done after birth (no correlation with IgG antibodies and fetal RBC destruction)

81
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What is the postnatal diagnosis of ABO HDFN? (4)

- no single serologic test diagnosis for ABO HDFN
- collecting cord blood samples on all delivered infants recommended
- jaundice occurring 12-48 hours after brith
- DAT positive

82
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When the pregnant individual is ABO-incompatible with the fetus (major incompatibility), the incidence of detectable fetomaternal hemorrhage is ____________.

decreased

83
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What is the benefit/ influence of ABO group HDFN? (2)

- protect against Rh immunization
- hemolysis in patient's circulation of ABO-incompatible D-positive fetal RBCs happens before the D antigen can be recognized by patient's immune system