Pathophysiology Exam 2 Quiz Answers

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55 Terms

1

Both carbon dioxide and oxygen are able to bind with hemoglobin

True

False

True

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2

COVID19 is one the most common causes of death from infectious disease in the US

True

False

True

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3

Nearly all pulmonary emboli are thrombi arising from DVT in lower extremities

True

False

True

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4

Hyperventilation causes increase PCO2

True

False

False

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5

Treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is complicated by the fact that supplementary oxygen is ineffective

True

False

False

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6

When taking vital signs you observe your patient is breathing at a rate of 8 breaths per minutes with a regular depth and rhythm. As a nurse you know that this pattern of breathing is classified as:

A) Eupnea

B) Bradypnea

C) Cheyne-Stokes

D) Tachypnea

B) Bradypnea

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7

The Mode of transmission of tuberculosis is:

Airborne

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8

All of the following describe the pathophysiology of emphysema, except:

A) bronchospasm related to IgE mediate hypersensitivity

B) alveolar wall collapse trapping air inside alveoli

C) loss of elastic recoil in the alveoli

D) retention of CO2

A) bronchospasm related to IgE mediate hypersensitivity

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9

Infection which leads to inflamed alveoli that fill with exudate and other products of inflammation forming a consolidation in lung tissue describes which disease?

A) Emphysema

B) Pneumonia

C) Pulmonary Embolus

D) Asthma

B) Pneumonia

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10

The nurse is auscultating the lower lobes of the lungs of a patient with pulmonary edema. What sound is the nurse most likely to hear?

A) Wheezing

B) Crackles

C) Rhonchi

D) Stridor

B) Crackles

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11

The amount of air remaining in the lung after a maximal exhalation is called the:

Residual volume

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12

The central chemoreceptors for respiratory control are:

A) locate in the carotid artery

B) Responsive primarily to changes in pH and CO2

C) Responsive primarily to hypoxemia

D) deactivated by chronic hypocapnia

B) Responsive primarily to changes in pH and CO2

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13

A structure that participates in diffusion of respiratory gases is the:

A) bronchiole

B) alveolus

C) trachea

D) pharynx

b) alveolus

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14

Thick mucous in the airways would produce which adventitious sound?

A) Crackles

B) Wheezing

C) Rhonchi

D) Stridor

C) Rhonchi

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15

Pt presents to his primary care provider reporting difficulty breathing when lying down. What term is used to document this condition?

A) Dyspnea

B) Orthopnea

C) Apnea

D) Tachypnea

B) Orthopnea

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16

Viral pneumonia is characterized by:

A) productive cough

B) dry cough

C) exudate consolidation

D) significant ventilation-perfusion mismatch

B) dry cough

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17

A patient with a productive cough and a localized area of infiltrate or atelectasis on x-ray probably has:

A) bronchopneumonia

B) lobar pneumonia

C) atypical pneumonia

D) influenza

B) lobar pneumonia

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18

For symptomatic treatment of pneumonia, the nurse should question which order for a 6-year-old patient?

A) increased fluid

B) aspirin for control

C) cough deeply every 2 hours

D) out of bed as tolerated

B) aspirin for control

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19

The organism that causes tuberculosis is a:

A) parasite

B) fungus

C) bacterium

D) virus

C) bacterium

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20

Which of these manifestation would most likely not be present in a patient with TB?

A) night sweats

B) blood-tinged sputum

C) low grade fever

D) cyanosis

D) cyanosis

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21

Blood pressure is consistent in arteries and veins. TRUE OR FALSE

false

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22

Hypertension is associated with damage to seemingly unrelated organs such as liver and pancreas. TRUE OR FALSE

false

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23

Any heart condition that reduces the pumping ability of the heart can result in heart failure. TRUE OR FALSE

true

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24

The muscular portion of the heart is known as the myocardium. TRUE OR FALSE

true

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25

The function of baroreceptors is to:

A) adjust BP by changing peripheral resistance

B) signal the cardiovascular control center of changes in systemic BP

C) stimulate the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems at the SA node as needed

D) sense a change in blood oxygen and carbon dioxide levels

B) signal the cardiovascular control center of changes in systemic BP

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26

Which of the following causes increased heart rate?

A) Increased renin secretion

B) Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system

C) Stimulation of the vagus nerve

D) Administration of beta-blocking drugs

B) Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system

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27

Which event causes the QRS wave on and ECG tracing?

A) Ventricular depolarization

B) Atrial depolarization

C) Atrial repolarization

D) Ventricular depolarization

A) Ventricular depolarization

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28

What will a partial obstruction in a coronary artery likely cause?

A) Angina attacks

B) Myocardial infarction

C) Pulmonary Embolus

D) Hypertension

A) Angina attacks

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29

Left-sided heart failure is commonly associated with pulmonary edema. TRUE OR FALSE

true

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30

All of the following factors increase the risk of thrombus or clot formation, EXCEPT:
A) Decreased platelets

B) Use of oral contraceptives

C) Venous stasis

D) Damage to the vessel wall

A) Decreased platelets

Virchows triad describes the three broad categories of factors contributing to thrombosis:

1) Hypercoagulability (can be caused by use of oral contraceptives)

2) Circulatory stasis

3) Endothelial injury/dysfunction

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31

When stroke volume decreases, which of the following could maintain cardiac output?

A) Decreased venous return

B) Generalized vasodilation

C) Increased heart rate

D) Decreased peripheral resistance

C) Increased heart rate

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32

Which of the following causes increased heart rate?

A) administration of beta-blocking drugs

B) stimulation of the vagus nerve

C) stimulation of the SNS

D) increased renin secretion

C) stimulation of the SNS

vagus nerve and beta blockers decrease HR by blocking the SNS

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33

Which of the following is NOT a component of stroke volume?
A) heart rate

B) contractility

C) preload

C) afterload

A) heart rate

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34

Path of blood flow through heart:

Deoxygenated blood enters

right atrium to

tricuspid valve to

right ventricle to

pulmonic valve to

pulmonary artery to

lungs.

Oxygenated blood returns through

pulmonary vein to

left atrium to

bicuspid valve to

left ventricle to

aortic valve to

aorta

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35

The first heart sound (S1 or ‘lub’) corresponds to which action inside the heart?

A) closure of semilunar valves

B) opening of atrioventricular valves

C) closure of atrioventricular valves

D) opening of semilunar valves

C) closure of atrioventricular valves

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36

Which segment of the ECG tracing represents the depolarization (contraction) of the ventricles?

A) P wave

B) P-Q interval

C) QRS complex

D) T wave

C) QRS complex

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37

The most common cause of myocardial infarction is:

A) atherosclerosis

B) exercise

C) genetics

D) heart failure

A) atherosclerosis

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38

What is the basic underlying pathology involved in angina pectoris?
A) impaired cardiac output results in decreased coronary perfusion

B) One or more the coronary arteries becomes totally occluded

C) Myocardial oxygen demands exceed the myocardium’s oxygen supply

D) Hypotension reduces coronary perfusion

C) Myocardial oxygen demands exceed the myocardium’s oxygen supply

Deficit of oxygen

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39

which of the following best describes the basic pathophysiology of myocardial infarction?
A) Cardiac output is insufficient to meet the needs of the heart and body

B) Temporary vasospasm occurs in a coronary artery

C) Total obstruction of a coronary artery causes myocardial necrosis

D) Heart rate and force is irregular, reducing blood supply to coronary arteries

C) Total obstruction of a coronary artery causes myocardial necrosis

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40

Which of the following are typical early signs or symptoms of myocardial infarction?
A) Flushed face, rapid respirations, left-side weakness, numbness

B) Bradycardia, increased BP, severe dyspnea

C) Persistent chest pain radiating to the left arm, pallor, rapid and weak pulse

D) Brief, substernal pain radiating to the right arm, labored breathing

C) Persistent chest pain radiating to the left arm, pallor, rapid and weak pulse

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41

Which of the following confirms the presence of myocardial infarction?
A) the presence of elevated serum cholesterol and triglycerides

B) leukocytosis and elevated C-reactive protein

C) Characteristic patterns for serum isoenzymes and the ECG

D) A full description of the pain

C) Characteristic patterns for serum isoenzymes and the ECG

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42

The primary clinical manifestation of right heart failure as a result of congestion of blood backward in circulation is:
A) peripheral edema

B) pulmonary edema

C) myocardial infarction

D) cor pulmonale

A) peripheral edema

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43

Which is the best definition of congestive heart failure?
A) cessation of cardiac activity

B) insufficient circulating blood in the body

C) inability of the heart to pump enough blood to meet the metabolic needs of the body

D) the demand for oxygen by the heart is greater than the supply

C) inability of the heart to pump enough blood to meet the metabolic needs of the body

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44

Which of the following occur as compensation mechanisms for deceased cardiac output in cases of congestive heart failure?
A) decreased erythropoietin secretion

B) fatigue and cold intolerance

C) increased renin and adolsterone secretion

D) decreased erythropoietin secretion

C) increased renin and adolsterone secretion

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45

In which blood vessels will failure of the left ventricle cause increased hydrostatic pressure?
A) blood vessels of the liver and spleen

B) Pulmonary capillaries

C) Veins of the legs and feet

D) jugular veins

B) Pulmonary capillaries

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46

A client is admitted with early-stage HF. Which assessment finding would the nurse expect?
A) an increase in BP and urine output

B) a decrease in respirations and O2 sat

C) an increase in HR and RR
D) an increase in creatinine and extremity edema

C) an increase in HR and RR

compensatory mechanism to increase oxygen in the body

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47

What medications are used in treatment of septic shock?
A) Antibiotics

B) Antihistamines

C) Vasoconstrictors

D) Bronchodilators

A) Antibiotics

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48

Which type of shock is characterized by extreme dyspnea?
A) Septic shock

B) Hypovolemic shock

C) Anaphylactic shock

D) Cardiogenic shock

C) Anaphylactic shock

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49

All of the following are manifestations of shock except?

A) Thirst

B) Tachycardia

C) Metabolic alkalosis

D) Oliguria

C) Metabolic alkalosis

during shock there is decreased perfusion in the body, leading to anaerobic respiration and consequently metabolic acidosis.

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50

Which of the three major body systems are affected most by hypertension?
A) CNS, cardiovascular, nervous

B) Respiratory, cardiovascular, endocrine

C) Musculoskeletal, cardiovascular, renal

D) CNS, cardiovascular, respiratory

A) CNS, cardiovascular, nervous

HTN affects the brain, kidneys, and heart (also the eyes)

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51

Which of the following BP readings would be considered normal for a 50 yo man at rest?
A) 150/92

B) 125/80

C) 88/48

D) 135/100

B) 125/80

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52

What is the function of the baroreceptors?

Signal the cardiovascular control center of changes in BP

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53

What is considered to be the basic pathophysiologic change in essential hypertension?
A) recurrent inflammation and fibrosis in peripheral arteries

B) increase systemic vasoconstriction

C) development of lipid plaques in larger arteries

B) increase systemic vasoconstriction

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54

When is a diagnosis of essential hypertension likely to be considered in young or middle aged individuals?

A) chronic kidney disease leads to consistently elevate BP
B) BP increases rapidly and is unresponsive to meds

C) BP remains consistently above 130/80

D) BP fluctuates between 130/85 and 180/105

C) BP remains consistently above 130/80

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55

Hypovolemic shock results from acute blood loss> TRUE OR FALSE

true

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