CRC ABM/WD MQF Dec 24

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Flashcards for ABM/WD MQF December 2024 exam preparation.

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85 Terms

1
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What does NO JOY mean?

Aircrew does not have visual contract with the TARGET or BANDIT, Opposite of TALLY.

2
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TRUE or FALSE: Procedural control methods depend on adherence to published procedures with real-time changes directed by the controlling agency based on mission requirements, weather, and competing/conflicting requirements.

True

3
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What uses positive or procedural methods to control and deconflict airspace between participating aircraft, between aircraft and surface fires/missions, and between participating and non-participating aircraft?

Airspace control

4
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During check-out, aircrew will contact the controlling agency with what information?

callsign, location, and recovery base or recovery request

5
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According to AFMAN 11-214, what will the ABM/WD accomplish during check-out, as conditions permit?

Provide recovery instructions including base status and weather, copy and relay in- flight reports, and/or weather reports

6
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Before the 'FIGHTS-ON' call (or “vulnerability” start time) exercise directors, mission commanders, and ABM/WDs will notify and receive acknowledgment from all aircrews for any scenario changes affecting what?

safety of flight (e.g., airspace changes, weather in working area, block changes, altimeter setting)

7
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During exercises, exercise directors and mission commanders can use which of the following for separation of aircraft?

Time, Space (assigning specific geographical areas of flight), Altitude blocks

8
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A proper STROBE response to “RAMBO 1, STROBE 360” is; “RAMBO 1, STROBE RANGE 37, TWENTY-FIVE THOUSAND, HOSTILE, LEAD GROUP”, TRUE or FALSE?

TRUE

9
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The correct response expected by participating aircraft hearing a 'KNOCK-IT-OFF' is what?

acknowledge with callsign and cease tactical maneuvering/endscenario and deconflict flight paths, and address any problems/issues

10
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When is the LOWDOWN to be passed?

At the briefed time, and at initial check-in for late players

11
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When calling 'TERMINATE', anchor position how?

geographically or with a bullseye reference

12
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Use 'TERMINATE' when safety of flight is not a factor and in the following cases:

Desired Learning objectives are met, Exceeding area boundaries, Training rules or other limits met

13
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In a Communications Jamming environment, transmissions required for safety will be prefaced with what?

SAFETY,SAFETY

14
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Transmit what when situations develop that meet KNOCK-IT-OFF criteria because of communication jamming.

KNOCK-IT-OFF

15
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Do not conduct communications jamming on what frequency?

Guard / any predesignated safety

16
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According to AFMAN 11-214, when conducting training missions in a designated airspace, avoiding lateral spill-outs is a responsibility; avoiding vertical spill- outs is a(n) responsibility.

joint aircrew and ABM/WD / aircrew

17
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During air-to-air training missions, the ABM/WD will advise aircrew what?

bearing, range, heading and altitude (if available) of previously unreported aircraft within 10 nautical miles (nm) that are a potential hazard and when they approach airspace boundaries (3nm for fighters and 5nm for non- fighters) or as directed by the ATC agency

18
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Which of the following requirements apply to authorized carriage of live Air-to- Air missiles for other than WSEP firings?

Aircrew will make a “WEAPONS SAFE” call upon initial check-in, and before each setup following a KIO or terminate, Do not use the terms “HOSTILE” or “KILL” at any time unless acknowledging a kill call and Maximum maneuvering category is LIMITED

19
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During Air-to-Air training the engagement begins when opposing aircraft initiate visual maneuvers against each other. The participating aircraft determines the maneuvering category.

altitude of the lowest

20
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What enables the maximum use of aircrew and ABM/WD radar, communication, and Situational Awareness to accomplish the mission?

Tactical Control

21
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Broadcast control is a means for ABM/WDs to support air operations in a covert or saturated environment. ABM/WDs provide communications primarily to pass target information to multiple missions by referencing a designated location.

informative

22
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The Continuum of Control is grouped into five levels, they are:

Close, Tactical, Broadcast, Advisory, Autonomous

23
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Low altitude (LOWAT) applies to maneuvering how?

below 5,000 ft AGL (fixed wing)

24
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Aircraft may not transit or enter the altitude or altitude block of any adversary unless at least one of the following conditions apply:

All adversaries are beyond 10 nm, Tally is established on all aircraft in the group of interest and no conflict with other groups within 10 nm exists, or not Tally with all adversaries within 10 nm but not a conflict (i.e., no collision potential) based on SA and Verbally confirm adversary's hard altitude and maintain required vertical separation

25
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If a previously undetected or unreported group appears inside the targeting range and outside the THREAT range, it is named what?

Pop-up Group

26
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What is defined as '[A/A] Any number of air CONTACTs within 3 nm in azimuth and range of each other' or '[AIR/MAR] Any number of surface CONTACTs within 1 nm of each other'?

GROUP

27
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What is a briefed maneuver to minimize closure on the threat or geographical boundary with the intent to reengage?

PUMP

28
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When a pilot calls what, he/she is reporting leaving a specific engagement and may or may not reenter.

SEPARATE

29
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NAILS (direction) is a brevity term meaning what?

[A/A] radar warning receiver indication of AI radar in search and [A/S] 2.75-inch flechette rockets

30
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What code word is used when an aircraft is in a defensive position and is maneuvering with reference to a threat?

NOTCH

31
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What is a brevity term meaning 'no radar warning receiver indications?'

NAKED

32
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HIGH is a brevity term meaning CONTACT is greater than what?

40,000 ft MSL

33
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What is an informative call that voice deception is being employed?

SPOOFING

34
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PAINT is a brevity term meaning what?

an interrogated GROUP/radar contact that is responding with any of the specified identification, friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature modes and correct codes established for the ID criteria.

35
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SLOW is a target with a ground speed of what - what knots?

100 / 250

36
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A what call indicates an interrogated GROUP/radar contact that lacks all of the ATO (or equivalent) identification, friend or foe/selective identification feature modes and codes required for the ID criteria?

SPADES

37
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What is a request for the tactical ground picture in an area of interest. TAC C2 should correlate all factor ground systems using the BULLSEYE format?

LOWDOWN

38
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What is an informative or directive call to execute launch-and-decide tactics with the intent to maneuver into the visual arena?

BANZAI

39
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When a pilot uses the term what, it is a request for information on indicated or closest GROUP in BRAA format (with appropriate fill-ins)?

BOGEY DOPE

40
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What is a code word meaning an aircraft will establish visual contact with the cockpit of a track of interest (TOI), attempt communications, and report all observations of activity?

INSPECT

41
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When passing a CAS 9-line briefing, which items are mandatory read back?

Line 4 (Elevation), Line 6 (Target Location) and Restrictions

42
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What is an inner GROUP formation with the trailer displaced approximately 45 degrees behind the leader?

SWEPT (with sub-cardinal direction)

43
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What is an informative call that contacts cannot be targeted due to EA or radar indications of jamming of A/A beyond visual range (BVR) employment?

METALLICA

44
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What is a brevity term meaning RWR indication of surface threat in search mode?

DIRT

45
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For air to surface missions, what is a directive term to verify specified element(s) of ROE, PID, CDE, and/or coordination of forces on the referenced target/track?

INVESTIGATE

46
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For air to surface missions, what is a brevity term meaning ROE, PID, coordination of forces, and commander’s guidance requirements on the referenced target/track have been satisfied. Target or track correlation, CDE, and clear field of fire must be accomplished prior to employing ordnance/fires?

TARGET

47
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When controlling F-16s, at “REDEC” range (45 nm or as briefed), the first to recognize the separation of 45 nm from the closest committed F-16 to the closest adversary group will do what?

Call “45 MILES”, REDEC each group within targeting depth and REDEC early enough to end transmission at 45 nm

48
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TRUE or FALSE: If the controller cannot correlate a GROUP along the aircraft’s spiked bearing or cardinal direction, the controller will respond with CLEAN and the bearing of the SPIKE.

TRUE

49
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What is a near real time, text based, multi-participant means of communicating and allows for predominantly jam-free communications, like radio voice communications, over military networks?

Tactical Chat

50
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ABM/WDs will do what?

Advise aircrew of bearing, range, heading, and altitude of previously unreported aircraft within 10 nautical miles, Advise aircrew when the controlling agency cannot support a minimum of broadcast control and Provide other pertinent information (e.g., airspace changes, weather in area, system degradation)

51
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What criteria must be met for an aircraft to enable the HFF mutation for High Fast Flyer?

≥600kts and ≥40,000ft

52
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Prior to establishing radio/radar/data link/visual contact (with RPA), manned aircraft will maintain a minimum of what feet vertical or what nm lateral separation from RPA’s expected altitude block or orbit point?

1,000 / 5

53
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During what, no later than 10 nm the GCI/AWACS or Range Training Officer tracking all players, will make a “Check Blocks” call?

IMC intercepts

54
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On a Personnel Recovery (PR) 15-Line Execution Brief, which line # is the condition of the survivor?

Line 4

55
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In a CAS 9-Line, Line 8 is location of friendlies. Which format should friendly locations be passed in?

From target, cardinal direction, and distance in meters

56
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Which is a fire control order used to direct or authorize units or weapons systems to fire on a designated target?

ENGAGE

57
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To obtain higher fidelity data on picture dimensions, number of contacts and stacks, what picture building mechanic should WD/ABMs utilize?

Spotlight Zoom

58
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What kind of airspace is used to separate non-hazardous military activities from IFR traffic outside of Class A airspace?

Military Operations Area (MOA)

59
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Which of the following is an airspace in which a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity is conducted?

Alert Area

60
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Which of the following is the purpose of an Altitude Reservation (ALTRV)?

To facilitate the mass movement of aircraft or other special user requirements

61
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What is a J12.6 message?

Target/Sorting

62
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Crew rest is free time and includes time for meals, transportation, and rest. This time must include an opportunity for at least how many hours of uninterrupted sleep?

8 hours

63
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Which form is used at the battalion level and above to submit air support requests when automated request systems are not available?

DD Form 1972, Joint Tactical Air Strike Request (JTAR)

64
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What document outlines specific Air Force guidance to compliment ALSA MTTPs on Tactical Chat?

SPINS

65
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How many ARC-210 radios are installed on the MQ-9 UAS?

1

66
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What is the idle time of a MQ-9 Reaper at altitude with minimal winds?

14-17 hours

67
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During tasking communication standards to avoid duplication, you should send J28.2 messages to whom?

Flight/element lead

68
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Squadrons should provide initial effects callouts so that the ___ can compile and track results.

WOC

69
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Due to different limitations per MDS, is the preferred format for J28.2 to minimize errors across the various MDS displays.

Continuous line format

70
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Which of the following is typically driven to require to pull gas to the left?

Tanker’s inability to off-load fuel, Unexpected tanker fallout and delays and Weather impacts

71
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The AN/TPS-75 Radar Set has a maximum range of nautical miles and a maximum altitude of feet.

240 / 95,500

72
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Updated WORDS should be followed by a :

ROLLCALL

73
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True or False. The MQ9 is Link 16 capable?

True

74
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An activity that neutralizes, destroys, or temporarily degrades surface-based enemy air defenses by destructive and/or disruptive means describes which mission?

Suppression of Enemy Air Defense (SEAD)

75
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Which scope scan pattern process includes the leading edge of friendlies plus the leading edge of adversaries plus histories plus 15 to 20 NM?

Frame The Fight

76
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All missions involving the control of live aircraft will be recorded to the maximum extent possible. True or False?

True

77
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Track symbology will be maintained within NM of present radar data, with the vector stick indicating the appropriate aircraft heading.

2

78
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The Sensor Operations Team (SOT) is comprised of the following:

AST, EPTs and ICTs

79
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TRUE or FALSE: MC/SL certified ABMs may control one side of a mission (4v4 or less) and still perform MC/SL duties.

TRUE

80
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BRAA display can be modified under the menu.

Preferences--->Pointers

81
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The AN/TPS-75 Radar Set includes which communication links?

A telephone line, UHF radio and A six-channel troposcatter radio

82
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Which order is a command given to units to stop firing, do not open fire. Missiles in flight will continue to intercept; continue to track?

CEASE FIRE

83
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Which order is an emergency fire control order to stop firing on a designated target, to include destruction of missiles in flight?

HOLD FIRE

84
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If the minutes of the actual transmission time is an odd number, what value should be used to find the code on the transmission authentication table?

The actual transmission time minus one number

85
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Which order dictates that unit’s fire only at targets positively identified as HOSTILE IAW current ROE?

WPNS TIGHT