CMS II Final: Geriatrics

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219 Terms

1
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What are the 5 M's of in the framework of friendly care?

Mobility

Medication

Matters

Mentation

Multi-complexity

<p>Mobility</p><p>Medication</p><p>Matters</p><p>Mentation</p><p>Multi-complexity</p>
2
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which lobes of the brain have the most prominent loss in aging?

frontal and temporal

3
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which sections of the brain have the greatest neuronal loss due to aging?

cerebellum and cerebral cortex

4
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how much does the blood flow to the brain decrease due to aging?

5-20%

5
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which cognitive and behavioral changes are the most affected by aging?

- episodic and working memory

- executive function

6
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which 2 primary CV disease increase with age?

HTN and CAD

7
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what are the cardiovascular structural changes assoc. with aging?

- RA, LA volume increase

- LVH

- decreased SVC/IVC flow, myocytes

- aortic valve and mitral annulus thicken and calcify

- loss of stretch d/t hypertrophy

8
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how is CO affected by aging?

does NOT change at rest

max CO and aerobic capacity are reduced

9
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which heart sound is a normal finding for age >75 if in NSR?

S4 atrial gallop → secondary to rigid ventricle

10
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how does HR change with aging?

resting HR unchanged

max HR decreased (220-age)

11
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what causes increased CCB sensitivies in the elderly?

SA node function declines and leads to arrhythmias and increased CCB sensitivities

12
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chest wall compliance, resp muscle strength and FEV all _____________ due to aging

decrease

13
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how is cough power altered due to aging?

diminished d/t decreased muscle strength and increased closing capacity

14
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how is mucociliary clearance changed due to aging?

slow and less efficient; delayed recovery after infection →increased tendency for infection

15
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how is air/gas exchange changed due to aging?

lung tissue loses elasticity bc muscles aren't as strong/coordinated

16
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how is the chest wall affected by aging?

- increased stiffness

- compliance decreases by 1/3 from age 30-75

- abd muscles play greater role than intercostals in chest expansion→ less effective supine and sitting, full expansion when standing

17
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how is the diaphragm affected by aging?

- flattens and less efficient

- contributes to increased work of breathing during exercise

- increased breathing effort → difficulty weaning from ventilator

18
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why is the elderly population at increased risk for aspiration?

- oropharynx thins → dec salivary production

- impaired strength/tongue coordination

- dec. mastication/gag reflex

- impaired food tolerance

19
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why can reflux esophagitis become so severe in the elderly?

decreased sensation →severe reflux esophagitis despite minimal sx

(kinda like peripheral neuropathy in diabetics preventing sensation of ulcers)

20
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what are the esophageal changes seen in the elderly?

- skeletal muscle of upper third hypertrophies

- muscle lose compliance and increases resistance to food passage

- decreased LES tone and strength of contractions →inc gastric acid exposure

- decreased sensation

21
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what are the changes seen in the large intestine d/t aging?

- mucosal atrophy

- cellular and structural mucosal gland abnormalities

- colonic motility reduced

22
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what conditions are increased in the elderly due to changes seen in the large intestine?

- chronic constipation

- risk of colon CA

- diverticula

- predisposition to fecal incontinence d/t dec in anal sphincter tone and thinning of the external sphincter

23
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What happens to the renal mass, functional glomeruli, renal plasma blood flow and creatinine clearance in the aging population?

- renal mass dec by 30%

- glomeruli dec by 50%

- renal BF dec by 40%

- crcl decreases

24
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what changes are seen in the bladder d/t aging?

- Dec. detrusor muscle contractility

- Dec. maximum bladder capacity

- Dec. maximum flow rate

- Dec. ability to withhold voiding

- Inc. in postvoid residual (retaining)

25
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how does urinary incontinence affect the aging population?

11-34% of men

17-55% of women

26
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what is sarcopenia?

loss of muscle mass, strength and performance

27
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what is the normal rate of decline of mass of aging bones?

0.5% per year starting at 40

28
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what is the normal change of aging bones?

trabecular # decreases, distance between trabeculae increases, osteoblasts DECREASE in # and activity progressively decreases.

osteoclasts are unchanged

29
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what factors contribute to osteoporosis?

menopause

Vit D def

weight bearing activity reduced

30
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what causes increased skin fragility seen in the elderly?

epidermis thins and dermoepidermal junction flattens → plays a role in wounds from shear stress and bleeding between dermis/epidermis occurs more often

31
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what leads to delayed wound healing in the elderly?

thinning dermis and decreased vascularity →delayed wound healing

32
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what are the ocular changes seen in the elderly?

- periorbital tissue atrophies, eyelids relax → ectropion/entropion

- conjunctiva atrophies and yellows

- cornea sensitivity declines by 50%

- arcus senilis from cholesterol/fat

- rigid iris →slow pupillary response

- presbyopia

- slower adaptation to low light, more sensitive to glare

33
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what is the primary cause of conductive hearing loss? how do you eval?

cerumen impaction → whisper test evaluation

34
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what instrument can be used to asses for hearing loss in the office?

audioscope →most accurate

35
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what are the 5 MC chronic conditions in ppl >75?

hearing loss

cataracts

arthritis

HTN

Heart dz

36
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what are the 10 topics used on the Barthel self-care index to assess functional independence?***

feeding

moving

personal toilet use

transfers (on/off toilet)

bathing self

walking

mobility ease

stairs

dressing

continence

37
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what screening tools are used to assess delirium?

confusion assessment method (CAM) and 4 AT rapid clinical test

38
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what screening tool is used for attention?

digital span memory test → quick assessment for attention

39
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what is delirium defined as?

acute disturbance in attention, awareness, and baseline cognition that is not better explained by an underlying neurocog disorder

40
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what are the 4 features assoc. with the CAM?

1. acute onset and fluctuating course

2. inattention

3. disorganized thinking

4. altered LOC

41
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what are the hyperactive sx of delirium?

- restless

- agitated

- refusing care

- emotional lability

- can be mistaken for psychosis or mania

42
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what are the mixed sx of delirium?

can be normal or fluctuating activity

43
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what are the hypoactive sx of delirium?

- sluggish, lethargic

- can be mistaken for depression

MC and poor prognosis!

44
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what is the strongest RF for development of delirium?

dementia

45
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what is the primary neurotransmitter of the RAS system? how is this affected in the elderly?

Ach = responsible for regulating alertness and attention→ elderly pts are hypocholinergic → disruption of RAS leads to deficiencies in all domains of cognition

46
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what are the predisposing factors of delirium?

- cognitive impairment/dementia

- prior episode

- medical comorbidities

- functionally dependent

- sensory impairment

- malnutrition/dehydration

- advanced age

- male sex

47
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what are the precipitating factors of delirium?

- acute cardiac or pulm events

- bed rest

- drug withdrawal

- fecal impaction

- fluid/electrolyte disturbances

- infections

- meds

- restrains

- severe anemia

- uncontrolled pain

- urinary retention

48
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what meds are precipitating factors for delirium?

sedatives

opiates

H2 blockers

anticholinergics

polypharmacy

49
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what is the MCC of REVERSIBLE delirium?

drugs → benzos, opioids

50
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what are the causes of reversible delirium?

D- Drugs

E - Electrolytes

L - Lack of drugs/water/food

I - Infection

R - Reduced sensory input

I - Intracranial causes

U - Urinary infection/fecal impaction

M - myocardial →MI, CHF, arrhythmia

51
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what is the peak post op timeframe an individual can develops delirium?

2-7 days post up

peak inflam mediators on day 2

52
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how do you manage a pt with delirium?

- management →tx underlying cause, give antipsychotics

- environment →lighting, orientation, sensory deprivation

- address behavioral issues

- anticipate and prevent complications

- restore function

53
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what are the high risk drug categories assoc with delirium?

Benzodiazepines

Opioid analgesics

Nonbenzodiazepine sedative hypnotics

Antihistamines (esp first gen)

Alcohol

Anticholinergics

Anticonvulsants

TCAs

H2 blockers

Antiparkinsonian agents

Antipsychotics

Barbiturates

54
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which 2 antipsychotics are appropriate and commonly used to tx delirium?

haldol and seroquel → avoid in old pts w/ parkinsonism (+ alcohol use for seroquel)

55
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how is dementia defined?

decline in intellectual functioning significant enough to affect daily life and independence

56
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what are the 6 cognitive domains of dementia?

1. learning and memory

2. language

3. executive function

4. complex attention/concentration

5. perceptual motor/visuospatial

6. social cognition/emotion

57
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what is the MC form of dementia?

alzheimer's

58
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what is the DSM-5 criteria for major neurocognitive disorders?

- evidence of significant cognitive decline from a previous level of performance in 1+ category

- cognitive defects interfere with independence in everyday activities

- cognitive deficits do not occur exclusively in the context of a delirium

- cognitive deficits are not better explained by another mental disorder

59
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what is vascular dementia?

dementia caused by CV dz or impaired cerebral blood flow; progression is typically sudden or stepwise

60
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what is the DSM-5 criteria for vacular dementia?

- criteria met for major/mild neurocog disorders

- clinical features consistent with vascular etio →onset related to CV event, evidence for decline in complex attention

- evidence of CV disease

- sx not explained by another dz

61
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what is mixed dementia?

dementia that is secondary to coexistence of more than 1 dementia- producing condition → alzheimer's, vasc. dementia, alcohol-related dementia, normal pressure hydrocephalus, chronic subdural hematoma, HIV

62
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what is cognitive impairment without an overall decline in function?

mild cognitive impairment (MCI) → precursor to dementia or secondary to reversible condition

63
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what is dementia that onsets alongside or within 12 months of motor sx?

dementia w lewy bodies

64
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what is dementia that is onset >12 months AFTER appearance of motor sx?

parkinson's disease dementia →motor sx first!!

65
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who does Pick's disease (frontotemporal dementia) typically present in?

<60

gradual but faster onset than alzheimers

66
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what are the s/sx of Pick's disease?

cognitive = executive → disinhibition, apathy, behavior changes

motor = none

67
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which dx shows atrophy in frontal and temporal lobes on imaging?

pick's disease

68
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what is the triad of sx seen in normal pressure hydrocephalus?

progressive dementia

urinary incontinence

gait instability

69
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which genetic disorder has a strong correlation with an early onset of Alzheimer's?

down syndrome, trisomy 21

70
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what dx should be on your differential assoc with dementia?

- normal cognition

- mild cognitive impairment

- major depressive disorder

- delirium

- specific learning disability

- normal pressure hydrocephalus

- b12 deficiency

- hypothyroidism

- parkinson's

71
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what MMSE score warrants further testing?

<24

<p>&lt;24</p>
72
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which drugs are acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and have been shown to provide some benefit for mild/moderate dementia?

donepezil

rivastigmine

galantamine

73
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what are the MC side effects of anticholinesterase inhibitors?

GI

74
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which drug is an NMDA inhibitor approved for moderate/severe dementia?

Memantine (Namenda) → indicated for more advanced dz

reduces glutamate-mediated excitotoxicity

75
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what are the common side effects of Namenda?

constipation

dizziness

HA

76
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what are the 4 types of incontinence?

1. urge → leak when you gotta go

2. stress →laughing/coughing/sneezing

3. overflow →continuous leakage bc not emptying bladder

4. mixed →stress and urge

77
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what are the 4 main drug classes assoc. with elderly hospitalization d/t adverse effects?

warfarin

insulin

oral antiplatelet (ASA)

hypoglycemic drugs

78
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what are the RF of osteoporosis?

- asian/caucasian

- increasing age

- small body size

- family hx

- post menopause/hypogonadism

- smoking

- excess alcohol consumption

- low physical activity

- glucocorticoid use >3 months

79
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what may you see on PE in a pt with osteoporosis?

- low body weight; BMI <19

- loss of height

- localized vertebral pain

- kyphosis

80
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what is the recommended dose of calcium and vitamin D for osteoporosis?

1000-1500 calcium daily

400-800 IU Vit D daily

81
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what is the first line tx for osteoporosis?

Bisphosphonates

82
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what is the MCC of elder abuse?

self neglect

83
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what are teh 3 MC osteoporotic fracture sites?

wrist

hip

vertebrae

84
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what is failure to thrive? what are the MC indicators?

FTT = weight loss >5%, decreased appetite, poor nutrition, inactivity, dwindling physical function, malnutrition, cognitive impairment

1. depression

2. cognitive impairment

3. malnutrition

4. functional impairment

85
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what exams can check cognition?

mini-cog

clock drawing

MMSE

86
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what exams can check affect?

depression screening

>5 = sus depression

> 10 = def depression

87
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what exams can check mobility?

timed up and go (TUG) test→stand, walk, turn, sit

>12-14 = inc. risk of falling

>20 = warrants comprehensive eval

88
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what are the 7 domains involved in a geriatric rapid assessment?

1. functional status

2. mobility

3. nutrition

4. vision

5. hearing

6. cognitive function

7. depression

89
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how do you screen for functional status, mobility, and nutrition?

functional status = ansewr yes to needing help w ADLs

mobility = TUG test >12

nutrition = answers yes to "have you lost more than 10 lbs in 6 months without trying" or BMI <20

90
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how do you screen for vision?

vision = unable to read newspaper headline and sentence w corrective lenses, use Snellen chart. unable to read greater than 20/40

91
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how do you screen for hearing, cognitive function, and depression?

hearing = unable to hear 40 dB at 1000 or 2000 Hz in one or both ears

cognitive function = 3 item recall

depression = answers yes to " do you often feel depressed"

92
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which gait: pain-induced limp with shortened phase of gait on painful side?

antalgic

93
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which gait: outward swing of leg in semicircle from hip?

circumduction

94
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which gait: excessive plantar flexion and inversion of ankle?

equinovarus

<p>equinovarus</p>
95
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which gait: acceleration of gait?

festination

96
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which gait: loss of ankle dorsiflexion secondary to weakness of ankle dorsiflexors?

foot drop

<p>foot drop</p>
97
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which gait: early, frequent audible foot-floor contact with steppage gait compensation?

foot slap

<p>foot slap</p>
98
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which gait: hyperextension of knee?

genu recurvatum

<p>genu recurvatum</p>
99
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what is the tendency to fall foward?

propulsion

<p>propulsion</p>
100
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what is the tendency to fall backward?

retropulsion

<p>retropulsion</p>