Rational Antimicrobial Therapy: Host factors

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A comprehensive set of Q&A flashcards covering host factors, prophylaxis, prudent use, ELDU, tissue residues, withdrawal times, and regulatory aspects from the lecture notes.

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24 Terms

1
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What host factors are overviewed in Rational Antimicrobial Therapy-4?

Age factors, disease factors, target site factors (penetration to infection site), hostile infection site effects on drug efficacy, renal disease, cardiovascular disease, and hepatic disease.

2
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Do age and disease mainly affect PK or PD?

They produce changes to pharmacokinetics (PK) rather than pharmacodynamics (PD).

3
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What pharmacokinetic changes are associated with geriatric animals?

Changes in bioavailability, volume of distribution, and slower elimination; often more disease and need for multiple drugs.

4
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What does the immature nature of neonatal body systems imply for PK/PD?

Primarily affects PK due to immature organ systems.

5
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Which organs are listed under disease factors in Host Factors?

Kidney disease, hepatic disease, and heart disease/failure.

6
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Name the target-site factors that reduce drug efficacy at the infection site.

Purulent debris, inoculum size, low oxygen tension, reduced pH, and other hostile site conditions that hinder drug penetration.

7
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What should be assessed when monitoring therapy and within what time frame should improvement be seen?

Response should be observed within 24–48 hours; continue assessment during treatment; use nonspecific and specific methods; consider drug level measurements if available to optimize therapy and minimize toxicity and resistance.

8
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What is the recommended approach to prophylaxis relative to surgical technique?

Prophylaxis is not a substitute for good technique; decisions are guided by wound classification (clean, clean-contaminated, contaminated) with corresponding prophylaxis.

9
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List the typical antimicrobial choices for prophylaxis in dogs/cats, horses, and ruminants.

Dogs/Cats: cefazolin

Equine: cefazolin ± gentamicin

Ruminants: ceftiofur or penicillin

10
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When should prophylactic antimicrobials be given relative to incision?

At least 30 minutes before incision and within 24 hours after surgery.

11
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What is metaphylaxis and when is it used?

Administration of antimicrobials to at-risk herds during transport or high-risk conditions to prevent disease outbreaks; goal is to prevent outbreaks, not treat infection.

12
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What are the goals of prudent antimicrobial use?

Optimal drug, dose, and duration; reduce excessive/inappropriate use to slow resistance; maximize efficacy and ensure infection likelihood before use.

13
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How should dosing regimens be chosen to maximize efficacy and minimize resistance?

Use regimens that achieve concentrations at the infection site above the MIC; avoid concentrations below MIC; avoid too short a treatment duration.

14
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How should a clinician approach using antibacterials in uncertain cases?

Establish a strong likelihood of bacterial infection before using antibacterials; avoid using antibacterials just in case or to cover for uncertainty.

15
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What are the 1st-line antimicrobials listed?

Penicillin, amoxicillin, most cephalosporins, tetracyclines, and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMS) → initial treatment

16
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What drugs are categorized as 2nd-line and 3rd-line antimicrobials?

2nd-line: fluoroquinolones (FQ), 3rd-generation cephalosporins, ticarcillin, piperacillin, aminoglycosides → with C/S testing

3rd-line: carbapenems (imipenem-cilastatin), vancomycin, linezolid → serious life-threatening infection

17
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Which drugs are banned from extra-label use (ELDU) in Canada?

Chloramphenicol, clenbuterol, diethylstilbestrol (DES), nitroimidazoles (e.g., metronidazole), nitrofurazone (5-nitrofurans), estrogens or estrogenic drugs in poultry.

18
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What is tissue residue withdrawal and why is it important?

Withdrawal times are the interval between last treatment and marketing to prevent violative residues in edible products; failure to observe WDT can adulterate the food supply.

19
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What are violative residues and common culprits?

Residues in edible products above the maximum residue limit (MRL); common culprits include sulfonamides (e.g., sulfamethazine), penicillin, and oxytetracyclines, especially in long-acting formulations.

20
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What is the primary parameter used to prevent violative tissue residues?

Withdrawal time.

21
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Where can practitioners obtain extended withdrawal time guidance for ELDU in Canada?

Canadian Global Food Animal Residue Avoidance Databank (CgFARAD); Ron Johnson and Trisha Dowling; national non-profit service.

22
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What regulatory bodies govern veterinary drug use and residue monitoring in Canada?

Health Canada (Veterinary Drugs Directorate) and the Canadian Food Inspection Agency (CFIA).

23
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What is ELDU in veterinary medicine?

Extra-label drug use: any use of a drug not specifically listed on the label.

24
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What is a violative tissue residue consequence?

Market rejection or condemnation of edible animal products due to drug residues above MRL; potential health risks.