AUBF Quiz 2

An imperfect ultrafiltrate of plasma, with 70% produced from plasma ultrafiltration and 30% contributed by choroid plexus cells.

Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF)

A procedure where CSF is collected when the patient is in a lateral decubitus position, typically inserting a needle between L3 and L4 or L4 and L5.

Lumbar/Spinal Tap

A term describing the yellowish appearance of CSF due to the degradation of red blood cells, indicating a past hemorrhage.

Xanthochromic

What is the volume collected in a lumbar puncture? How many Tubes used?

20 mL, 3-4 tubes

In spinal tap, what tube is used for Chemistry and Immunology/serology test?

Clue: Stored FROZEN

Tube 1

In spinal tap, what tube is used for Microbiology?

Clue: Stored @ RT.

Tube 2

In spinal tap, what tube is used for Hematology like cell counts and differentials?

Clue: Stored at Ref. temp

Tube 3

CSF appearance that is clear and colorless, with evenly distributed blood, indicating a procedure-induced hemorrhage.

Traumatic Tap

All CSF specimens must be analyzed within?

One hour of collection

What Conditions is/are indicated when an CSF specimen is Viscous?

Cryptococcal meningitis and mucin producing adenocarcinoma.

An imperfect ultrafiltrate of plasma, significant in joint lubrication, contributed by synoviocytes, containing hyaluronic acid.

Synovial Fluid

A procedure to collect synovial fluid, typically yielding around 25 mL from a joint like the knee.

Arthrocentesis

What is the clinical findings when a green synovial fluid is observed?

Septic Arthritis

What does Calcium phosphate is called because it doesn’t show birefringence?

Apatite

What is the procedure of collecting pleural fluid?

Thoracentesis

What is the procedure of collecting pericardial fluid?

Pericardiocentesis

What is the procedure of collecting peritoneal or ascitic fluid?

Paracentesis

Fluid indicative of a non-inflammatory condition.

Transudate

Fluid indicative of inflammatory conditions, marked by higher levels of proteins and specific gravity.

Exudate

These are structures with concentric striations of collagen material seen in benign tumors and in ovarian and thyroid malignancies?

Psamomma bodies

Provides alkaline fluid and nutrients (like Fructose and Flavins) for sperm

Contributes to 60-70% of seminal fluid.

Seminal vesicle

It secretes enzymes for coagulation and liquefaction?

Contributes to 20-30% of the semen volume

Prostate gland

It Neutralize prostatic fluid and vaginal acidity that adds 5% in the seminal fluid

Bulbourethral Gland

what is the main support medium in sperm?

Fructose

When this is accumulated in semen, it will cause the semen to show yellow color.

Flavin

A Semen specimen collection method where it is used for testing the ability of sperm to penetrate the cervical mucus

Vaginal Aspiration

It is not recommended for routine semen collection as it is prone to incomplete collection.

Coitus Interruptus

In patient preparation of semen collection, How long should a patient have sexual abstinence?

2-7 days

Speed and direction of sperm motility is evaluated in approx. HPFs?

20

Grading of Sperm motility

Rapid, straight-line motility

4

Grading of Sperm motility

Slower speed, some lateral movement

3

Grading of Sperm motility

Slow progression, noticeable lateral movement

2

Grading of Sperm motility

No forward progression

1

Grading of Sperm motility

No movement

0

What parameter is considered normal motility?

> 50% motile with quality >2 within 1 hour

What stain/s used in assessing sperm morphology?

Wright’s, Geimsa or Papanicolaou

in sperm morphology how many are considered normal forms in Routine criteria?

>30%

in sperm morphology how many are considered normal forms in Strict criteria?

>14%

In eosin-nigrosin stain, what is the color of a viable & living sperm?

Bluish white

In eosin-nigrosin stain, what is the color of a dead sperm?

Red

Amniocentesis can be performed transabdominal or transvaginal.

At what time should perform this?

Typically after the 14th week of gestation.

How much volume of amniotic fluid is collected?

30 mL

Assessments like the L/S ratio that evaluate the maturity of fetal lungs, pivotal in anticipating respiratory distress syndrome.

Fetal Lung Maturity Tests

High speed centrifugation is not recommended in handling amniotic fluid because?

it might cause loss of phospholipid contents

What causes a Bulky or frothy stool?

Presence of Steatorrhea due to high fat content in stool.

What causes Secretory Diarrhea?

There is increased secretion of water and electrolytes due to bacterial, viral or protozoan infections.

What causes Osmotic Diarrhea?

There is water and electrolyte retention in the large intestine due to maldigestion or malabsorption.

What is the Gold standard for fecal fat extraction and titration of fatty acids?

Van de Kramer test

A differentiation test between fetal and maternal blood

Apt Test

What causes Rust-colored sputum?

Decomposed hemoglobin

What causes Black colored sputum?

Pneumoconiosis or inhalation of carbon or other dust particles, heavy smoking, anthracosis

A histamine isomer w/ preferential effect on gastrin secretion.

Histalog / Betazole

It is the stimulant of choice resembling gastrin

It has more rapid response than Histalog.

Pentagastrin

How Many nephrons are in a single kidney?

1- 1.5M

This is where immediate reabsorption of essential substances occurs?

PCT

It is responsible for major exchanges in water and salts

Loop of henle

This is where the final adjustment of sodium concentration occurs with the influence of RAAS

DCT

Final concentration of the filtrate is adjusted here.

CD

This artery carries blood from the renal artery to the glomerulus

Afferent arteriole

This artery carries blood from the glomerulus to the renal tubular area.

Efferent arteriole

What are the substances that are reabsorbed at the PCT?

Substances like glucose, amino acids, water, and sodium ions.

What is the only substance reabsorbed in the descending loop of henle?

Water

What is the only substance reabsorbed in the ascending loop of henle?

Solutes

what is the normal Renal Blood flow (RBF) rate?

1,200 mL/min

approx. How many % are filtered in the kidneys?

10%

What is the correct Path of Blood flow in the kidneys?

Renal artery — Afferent arteriole — Glomerular capillaries — Peritubular capillaries — Efferent arteriole — Vasa recta — Branch of renal vein

What is the normal GFR?

120 mL/min

What is the Characteristics of the Glomerular filtrate?

A. Isosmotic with plasma

B. SG of 1.010

C. Lack cells & HMW CHON

D. Presence of albumin

A, B, and C

It is responsible in repulsion of most plasma proteins and substances with negative charge.

The Shield of Negativity

The Glomerular Filtration barrier does not allow substances that has a MW of ____?

70,000 Da or greater

a small protein that is not filtered by the GFB but is repelled by the shield of negativity.

Albumin

Where is Chloride reabsorbed?

it is reabsorbed at the thick ascending loop of henle (ALH)

It is the point in plasma at which reabsorption of a specific substance stops and is then secreted in the urine.

Renal threshold

What is the renal threshold of Glucose?

160-180 mg/dL

What is the renal threshold of Sodium?

110-130 mg/dL

It is the reference method or Gold standard for measuring GFR because it is neither reabsorbed nor secreted by the tubules.

Inulin

It is used in visualizing filtration in one or both kidneys, and determining the viability of a transplanted kidney.

Disadvantage : materials used are radioactive w/ a risk of exposure in ionizing radiation.

Radioisotope or Radionuclide clearance

it is small enough to be freely filtered by the kidneys but not reliable in Px with immune disorders or malignancy.

β2 microglobulin.

It is recommended method for pediatrics, diabetic, elderly, and critically ill px because it has a shorter turnaround time than creatinine.

Cystatin C

It is a traditional tubular reabsorption test and not routinely performed because Px is deprived of fluids for 24 hrs prior to measuring the SG.

Fishberg test

The most commonly used tubular reabsorption test where both serum and urine can be used.

Osmolality

if a Px has neurogenic DI what is its U/S Osm?

3:1

if a Px has nephrogenic DI what is its U/S Osm?

1:1

Tests used to assess glomerular filtration rate (GFR), often utilizing substances like inulin which are neither secreted nor reabsorbed by the kidneys.

Clearance Tests

A renal disorder characterized by damage to renal tubular epithelial cells, often resulting from toxins or ischemia.

Acute Tubular Necrosis

A condition characterized by massive proteinuria, lipiduria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema, often due to damage to the glomerular barrier.

Nephrotic Syndrome

• A disorder where there is an immune complex deposition that can progress to renal failure.

• Characterized by increased plasma BUN or CREA.

• GFR is inversely proportional to Plasma concentration.

Rapidly progressive Glomerulonephritis

A disorder where there is demonstration of degenerative forms of wax like granular and waxy casts.

Chronic Glomerulonephritis

A disorder where there is disruption of the podocytes ff allergic reaction & immunization.

Minimal change disease

it is a disorder where PCT is failing to reabsorb.

Fanconi’s Syndrome

It consists of 75% of the incidence of Renal Lithiasis

Calcium oxalate and Calcium phosphate

It hase staghorn pattern in x-ray film also known as triple phosphate

struvite

the most common type of bladder stone

Uric acid

Disorder of Homogentisic acid oxidase deficiency

Alkaptonuria

Disorder of Deficiency in decarboxylases

Maple syrup urine disease

Disorder of Inborn error of metabolism (Hurler’s, Hunter’s, Sanfilippo’s syndrome)

Mucopolysaccharidoses

Disorder of Hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (HGPT) deficiency

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

Causes Upper UTI due to reflux of urine or untreated cystitis

Acute Pyelonephritis

Causes Blue diaper syndrome due to renal defect

Hartnup syndrome

Causes Lower UTI due to ascending bacterial infection of the bladder.

Cystitis