ATC Class Modules 1-7

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137 Terms

1
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The Air Traffic Organization (ATO) is managed by a(n)

Chief Operating Officer.

2
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According to their location, ATO air traffic control facilities are assigned to one of three

service areas.

3
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The air traffic facility that has no direct authority over Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) or Visual Flight Rules (VFR) traffic, and is not responsible for the separation of aircraft, is the

Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS).

4
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The primary Navigational Aids (NAVAIDs) for the nation’s airways in the National Airspace System (NAS) are:

VORs/VORTACs.

5
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The primary mission of the Traffic Management System (TMS) is to

balance air traffic demand with system capacity.

6
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The operation of the TMS is the responsibility of the

Air Traffic Control System Command Center (ATCSCC).

7
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The primary function of the Traffic Management Unit (TMU) is to

monitor and balance traffic flows within their area of responsibility in accordance with traffic management directives.

8
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The primary purpose of the Air Traffic Control System is to

prevent a collision involving aircraft operating in the system.

9
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Which statement is not correct concerning the provision of additional services?

Providing additional services is optional on the part of the controller.

10
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When considering the duty priority of an air traffic controller, first priority is given to

separating aircraft and issuing safety alerts.

11
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This is the most restrictive and overrides all other traffic management programs and are typically implemented with little to no warning.

Ground Stop Program

12
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Non-radar separation is used in preference to radar separation when

an operational advantage will be gained.

13
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The facility primarily responsible for conducting pilot briefings is the

AFSS.

14
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The Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS) position which issues airport advisories, relays ATC clearances, advisories, or requests to pilots, monitors & restores NAVAIDs, activates & closes flight plans, and assists pilots of lost aircraft is the

Inflight position.

15
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Which of the following duties is not a function of the Clearance Delivery position in the ATCT?

Compiling statistical data.

16
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Of the following, which position in the tower ensures runway separation?

Local Control

17
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The ATC facility that provides air traffic control services to aircraft on IFR flight plans during the en route phase of flight is the

ARTCC.

18
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The only en route sector team member whose duties do not include accepting handoffs is the

Radar Flight Data position.

19
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In a Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON) facility, who has the responsibility for the safe and efficient operation of a sector?

The Radar Team

20
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Minimum VFR weather requirements are a

1,000 foot AGL ceiling and 3 SM visibility.

21
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When used in FAA Orders JO 7110.10, JO 7110.65, and JO 7210.3, the ___ means that the procedure is mandatory.

words shall or must

22
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Which document prescribes procedures and phraseology used by the terminal and en route air traffic controllers actively engaged in the separation of aircraft?

FAA Order JO 7110.65

23
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FAA Order JO 7210.3 provides

direction and guidance for the day-to-day operation of Air Traffic facilities.

24
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The purpose of an LOA is to supplement established operational procedures for

interfacility use, i.e. between two separate facilities or entities.

25
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___ contains items concerning pilot’s health and medical facts, factors affecting flight safety, and NTSB accident reporting.

The Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

26
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The contraction RENOT is used to identify

Regional Notices

27
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___ are issued by organizations other than the originator to provide additional internal guidance or instructions or to meet localized needs.

Supplements

28
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FAA Order JO 7110.10 prescribes

procedures and phraseology used by Flight Service Station specialists.

29
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FAA Order JO 7340.2 contains

approved words and phrase contractions.

30
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FAA Order JO 7350.9 contains

current airport identifiers.

31
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The Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) provides the aviation community with

basic flight information and ATC procedures.

32
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Many FAA orders are divided into chapters, sections, and

paragraphs.

33
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The addition, deletion, or modification of information or instructions within an order are made through

a change.

34
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When used in FAA Orders JO 7110.10, JO 7110.65, and JO 7210.3, the word should means

the procedure is recommended.

35
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When used in FAA Orders JO 7110.10, JO 7110.65, and JO 7210.3, the word will means

futurity, not a requirement for application of a procedure.

36
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This document defines coordination procedures between two air traffic control towers within the same approach control airspace.

LOA

37
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This document defines coordination procedures between internal sectors of a TRACON.

SOP

38
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This document delegates the responsibility for ATC services to the tower, approach control, and the ARTCC.

LOA

39
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This document defines responsibilities between an air traffic control facility and the Airport Manager.

LOA

40
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This document describes each Area and Sector within an ARTCC.

SOP

41
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What is the phraseology used to pronounce the altitude for 10,000 feet?

One Zero Thousand

42
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What is the phraseology used to pronounce the altitude of 17,900 feet?

One Seven Thousand Niner Hundred

43
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What is the phraseology used to pronounce the altitude of 13,500 feet?

One Three Thousand Five Hundred

44
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What is the phraseology used to pronounce Flight Level 190 (FL190)?

Flight Level One Niner Zero

45
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What is the phraseology used to pronounce Flight Level 230 (FL230)?

Flight Level Two Three Zero

46
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What is the phraseology used to pronounce Flight Level 275 (FL275)?

Flight Level Two Seven Five

47
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What is the phraseology for a magnetic heading of 5 degrees?

Heading Zero Zero Five

48
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What is the phraseology for a magnetic heading of 60 degrees?

Heading Zero Six Zero

49
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What is the phraseology for a magnetic heading of 350 degrees?

Heading Three Five Zero

50
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What is the phraseology for a transponder code of 0316?

Squawk Zero Three One Six

51
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What is the phraseology for a transponder code of 2772?

Squawk Two Seven Seven Two

52
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What is the phraseology for a transponder code of 4000?

Squawk Four Zero Zero Zero

53
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What is the phraseology for a speed assignment of 230 knots?

Two Three Zero Knots

54
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What is the phraseology for a speed assignment of 170 knots?

One Seven Zero Knots

55
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What is the phraseology for a speed assignment of 90 knots?

Nine Zero Knots

56
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What is the phraseology for a frequency of 123.7 Megahertz (MHz)?

One Two Three Point Seven

57
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What is the phraseology for a frequency of 275.85 Megahertz (MHz)?

Two Seven Five Point Eight Five

58
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What is the phraseology for a frequency of 121.175 Megahertz (MHz)?

One Two One Point One Seven

59
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What is the phraseology for pronouncing a runway with a magnetic alignment of 080 degrees?

Runway Eight

60
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What is the phraseology for pronouncing a center runway with a magnetic alignment of 270 degrees?

Runway Two Seven Center

61
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A runway with a magnetic heading of 003 degrees would be designated as Runway

36

62
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Markings which consist of pairs of three, then two, and then one rectangular bar on each side of the runway centerline, 500 feet apart, identify the

runway touchdown zone

63
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___ consists of white arrows which point in the direction of landing, replacing the runway centerline, and begin at the non-landing portion of the threshold bar.

A displaced threshold

64
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___ by large/big chevrons points in the direction of the threshold.

A blast pad or underrun is identified

65
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___ is identified by a single continuous yellow line.

A taxiway centerline

66
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What color are taxiway edge lights?

Blue

67
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___ flash at regular intervals utilizing a different color combination help pilots identify the type of airport where it is located.

Rotating airport beacons

68
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Touchdown Zone Lighting (TDZL) and Runway Centerline Lights System (RCLS) are two types of

in-runway lights

69
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___ consist of a pair of synchronized white flashing strobe lights located laterally on each side of the runway.

Runway End Identifier Lights (REILs)

70
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All of the following represent uses of a non-movement area except:

Takeoffs and landings

71
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The lowest limit of Class B airspace is

the surface.

72
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Generally, the vertical limit of Class D airspace is

2,500 feet above the airport elevation.

73
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The upper limit of Class A airspace is

up to and including FL600.

74
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A Prohibited Area is identified by the letter ___, a dash, and a number.

P

75
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A Warning Area is established beyond ___ NM from the coast of the United States.

3

76
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A Military Operations Area (MOA) consists of airspace of defined dimensions established for the purpose of

separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic.

77
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What airspace contains low-altitude federal (Victor and RNAV “Tango”) airways?

Class E

78
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What airspace is generally established from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation and has an operational control tower?

Class C

79
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Airspace of defined dimensions, confined military activities, and limitations imposed on non-users is identified as

Special Use Airspace

80
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This airspace generally extends upward to 10,000 to 12,000 feet MSL and surrounds the nation’s busiest airports.

Class B airspace

81
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VFR aircraft need to receive a specific clearance from ATC to enter or operate in this airspace.

Class B airspace

82
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Operations in this airspace require all aircraft to be on an IFR flight plan.

Class A airspace

83
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A transponder is not required to operate in this airspace located around an airport with an operating air traffic control tower.

Class D airspace

84
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This airspace is generally from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation (charted in MSL) surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower, service provided by a Radar Approach Control, and a certain number of IFR operations.

Class C airspace

85
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Two-way radio communications with ATC are not required for VFR aircraft to operate in this controlled airspace.

Class E airspace

86
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This type of Special Use Airspace is not found on aeronautical charts.

Controlled Firing Area (CFA)

87
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This Special Use Airspace begins at the surface of the earth and extends upward to a defined altitude and is established for security or other reasons associated with the national welfare (e.g., the White House, or The U.S. Capitol Complex), where flight of aircraft is not permitted unless permission is granted by the using agency.

Prohibited Area

88
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This Special Use Airspace is established exclusively beyond 3 NM from the coast of the United States, and may be designated over domestic or international waters or both.

Warning Area

89
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This is charted airspace above U.S. land areas or territorial waters, within which flight of aircraft is not totally prohibited, but is subjected to restrictions due to the existence of hazards, such as air-to-air or air-to-ground gunnery, guided missiles, and bomb releases.

Restricted Area

90
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These are activated when aerial demonstration teams such as the U.S. Navy Blue Angels or the U.S. Air Force Thunderbirds are performing at an air show, are located over major sporting events, and are activated to protect the President and Vice President. They can "pop-up" with little to no notice and are not found on aeronautical charts.

Temporary Flight Restriction (TFR)

91
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What needs to be added to the letter “S” when hand-printed on a flight progress strip?

A horizontal line below the letter

92
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The letters “OTP” on a flight progress strip stand for:

VFR conditions-on-top (VFR-on-Top).

93
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What symbol on a flight progress strip indicates that an aircraft’s clearance is void if not airborne by a specific time?

V<

94
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On a flight progress strip, the abbreviation “CAF” signifies:

Cleared as Filed

95
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On all enroute strips, Block 4 is used for what purpose?

Aircraft Type

96
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For en route strips, altitude information is found in which block?

20

97
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On an en route strip, in which block is the aircraft identification located?

3

98
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On all terminal strips, Block 5 is used for what purpose?

Beacon Code (Squawk)

99
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For terminal arrival strips, altitude information is found in which block?

9

100
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On a terminal departure strip, in which block is the aircraft identification located?

1