Server 1 Exam 2

Malia configures a primary zone on a DNS server to accept dynamic updates. Whenever a computer is added to the network, resource records for the computer are automatically created. For a computer, NX2001EY, Malia configures resource records manually. On the Zone Aging/Scavenging Properties window, she selects Scavenge stale resource records, sets the No-refresh interval to 14 days, and sets the Refresh interval to 14 days. She also enables automatic scavenging in the DNS server’s properties.

 

If Malia removes NX2001EY from the network, what is the most likely outcome in this scenario?

 

 

• A. All the resource records for N2001EY will be made available for scavenging after 28 days.

• B. Some of the resource records for N2001EY will be made available for scavenging after 28 days.

• C. Malia will need to manually remove all the resource records for N20001EY.

• D. The resource records for N2001EY will be deleted within 14 days.

B.

The dynamically updated records for N2001EY will be made available for scavenging after 28 days. The manually created records will not be scavenged.

Danielle creates a new scope, Sales LAN, for a DHCP server in her organization. She wants to assign an IP address to a printer in the sales department.

 

Which of the following folders should Danielle use to configure this option?

 

 

• A. Reservations

• B. Address Leases

• C. Policies 

• D. Address Pool

A.

Reservations allow you to provide the same IP address each time a DHCPDISCOVER is received from a DHCP client that has a certain MAC address. Reservations are often created for network-attached printers, servers, and network devices that must receive an IP address from a DHCP server that does not change over time.

Felicia is drafting an email to her colleague Rhonda. After Felicia types out the email, she enters the email address [e-mail] and clicks Send. Felicia’s email server uses the email address typed to locate the recipient email server.

 

Which DNS resource record for zoneA.com allows Felicia’s email server to locate the recipient email server?

 

 

• A. The CNAME record

• B. The A record

• C. The AAAA record

• D. The MX record

D.

When Felicia sends the email, her email server locates the target email server by resolving the MX record for zoneA.com.

You are investigating strange traffic on your network and wish to resolve an IP address to a DNS name.

 

What resource record should you use to perform a reverse lookup?

 

 

• A. An A record

• B. A PTR record

• C. An AAAA record

• D. A CNAME record

B.

A PTR record resolves an IP address to an FQDN. This is the record that you need to use to perform a reverse lookup.

Raymond and Lin are facing network issues on their computers. Rayna, the administrator, is troubleshooting the issue. She notices that Raymond and Lin’s computers are using the same IP address, 192.167.1.85.

 

If the organization’s network uses a DHCP server, which of the following most likely caused this issue?

 

 

• A. The IP addresses were configured by the DHCP server. 

• B. The IP addresses on both computers have expired.

• C. The IP addresses were configured automatically.

• D. The IP addresses were configured manually.

D.

This is the most likely cause of failure. Rayna or another system administrator may have accidentally configured both computers with the same IP address.

Which of the following is true of WINS?

​

 

• A. If NetBIOS is enabled, a WINS server does not need to be installed on the network.

• B. It can only resolve NetBIOS names to IPv4 addresses.

• C. If a computer is configured to use WINS, it resolves NetBIOS names using broadcasts.

• D. It is enabled by default on all Windows Server systems.

B.

WINS can only be used to resolve NetBIOS names to IPv4 addresses.

What resource record type defines an IPv6 host address in DNS?

 

 

• A. CNAME record

• B. PTR

• C. A record

• D. AAAA record

D.

An AAAA record resolves an FQDN to an IPv6 address.

Carlos is configuring a DHCP server in his organization. Some of the computers in his organization contain manually configured IP addresses. Currently, he is setting up the new server to configure IP addresses for users who operate their mobile devices on the organization’s network.

 

Which of the following decisions should Carlos reevaluate?

 

 

• A. Carlos sets the lease duration to 7 days.

• B. Carlos provides a subnet delay of 100 milliseconds.

• C. Carlos sets the subnet mask as 255.255.255.0.

• D. Carlos excludes certain IP addresses.

A.

Carlos should reevaluate his decision to set the lease duration to 7 days. A lease time of 7 days is appropriate for most networks that contain desktop PCs, but he should lower the lease time on networks that provide IP address configuration for mobile devices.

Identify a vital service provided by secondary DNS servers.

 

 

• A. Secondary DNS servers contain read-write copies of a primary DNS server's data.

• B. Secondary DNS servers respond to DNS lookup requests using read-only zone files.

• C. Secondary DNS servers divert all traffic to primary DNS servers to reduce load.

• D. Secondary DNS servers improve security by preventing access to primary DNS servers.

B.

Secondary DNS servers contain a read-only copy of the zone file from the primary DNS server that they can use to respond to DNS lookup requests.

Reno is facing some DNS server issues that he is unable to resolve using nslookup, DNS manager, and other general methods. He decides to use information from the DNS Server log to identify the issue. However, the information that was logged is insufficient to resolve the issue. Reno is able to identify the issue after enabling debug logging.

 

What should Reno do next?

 

 

• A. Reno should turn off debug logging.

• B. Reno should delete all the log files.

• C. Reno should flush the DNS server cache.

• D. Reno should permanently enable debug logging.

A.

Once the issue is resolved, Reno should turn off debug logging because debug logging records a large amount of information in the log file.

Leisl configures multiple WINS servers on her organization’s network. She wants the WINS servers to be able to share the NetBIOS records with each other.

 

Which of the following features should Leisl use?

 

 

• A. A replication partner

• B. Nslookup

• C. Debug logging

• D. A stub zone

A.

Leisl needs to use the replication partner feature. If multiple WINS servers are deployed on the network, you can configure them to share their NetBIOS name records. In this case, each WINS server is called a replication partner and can resolve all of the NetBIOS names in the organization.

The subnet mask cannot be modified once a scope is created. 

True

False

True

What is the first step in troubleshooting an issue where a single computer is unable to lease an address?

 

 

• A. Ensuring that the DHCP service is running

• B. Verifying that the DHCP server is authorized

• C. Checking if the computer was manually configured with an IP address

• D. Confirming that the computer has a physical connection to the network

D.

When a single computer is unable to lease an address, the first troubleshooting step is to confirm that the computer has a physical connection to the network.

If there are multiple DHCP servers on a network, DHCP clients will accept the first offer that they receive. 

True

False

False

If there are multiple DHCP servers on your network, DHCP clients will accept the first offer that they receive and decline all other offers by sending a DHCPDECLINE packet to the other DHCP servers.

Kaya is an administrator at Kelvin Computing. Benjamin, a user, wants to access a shared folder on SERVERA, so he uses the UNC \\servera\share to access the folder. His computer then sends out a broadcast to the network to resolve the name SERVERA. Because of the broadcast, all computers on the LAN interpret it and causes additional processing that interferes with other operations.

 

What can Kaya do to avoid this additional overhead?

 

 

• A. Configure a default forwarder

• B. Install a WINS server

• C. Configure a conditional forwarder

• D. Restart the DNS Server

B.

Kaya should install Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) servers to provide centralized NetBIOS name resolution that does not use broadcasts.

You are troubleshooting a DHCP server and discover that it is not dynamically updating DNS records for DHCP clients.

 

What is the most likely cause for this issue?

 

 

• A. The network contains computers with manually configured IP addresses.

• B. The DNS server is an authoritative, primary DNS server.

• C. The DNS server and DHCP server are in different domains.

• D. The DNS server and DHCP server are running on different operating systems.

C.

The most likely cause for this issue is that that DNS server and DHCP server are in different domains.

Tuyet types the following statement into File Explorer: \\serverA\Share1. The NetBIOS name is resolved by a WINS server, and Tuyet is able to access the shared folder. After this interaction with the WINS server, Tuyet does not perform any other operations that requires her computer to interact with the WINS server for over a week.

 

Which of the following is true of this scenario?

 

 

• A. Tuyet is using a Windows XP computer or another legacy operating system.

• B. The WINS server will automatically shut down because of inactivity. 

• C. Tuyet’s computer’s name record will be deleted from the WINS server.

• D. The NetBIOS name is first broadcast over the LAN to all the computers.

C.

If your computer does not contact a WINS server within 6 days, your NetBIOS name record is automatically removed from the WINS server.

Aspen sets up the round robin feature in DNS for an FQDN server, server.domainA.com. She creates two identical Web servers with IP addresses 192.168.1.75 and 172.6.0.15 and associates two A records on the FQDN server with these IP addresses. The first A record is associated with the Web server having the IP address 192.168.1.75, and the second A record is associated with the Web server having the IP address 172.6.0.15. Aspen uses a client with the IP address 172.6.0.95 to perform a forward lookup of server.domainA.com.

 

Which of the following is true of this scenario?

 

 

• A. The client will contact the Web server with the address 172.6.0.15.

• B. The FQDN server will return one of the IP addresses because of the round robin feature setup.

• C. The client will contact the Web server with the address 192.168.1.75.

• D. The FQDN server will return both IP addresses, 192.168.1.75 followed by 172.6.0.15.

A.

The FQDN server will return both IP addresses in the order 172.6.0.15 followed by 192.168.1.75, so the client will contact 172.6.0.15. This is because netmask ordering ensures that the IP address that most closely resembles the client’s IP address is returned first.

You are the administrator for an Active Directory domain and have been tasked with improving the response time for resolving DNS queries for resources in a second company-owned domain that does not use Active Directory.

 

What type of zone can be used to accomplish this task with minimal overhead?

 

 

• A. A forward zone

• B. A reverse zone

• C. A stub zone 

• D. A glue zone

C.

Stub zones contain NS and host records that allow a DNS server to access an authoritative zone on another DNS server. Creating a stub zone involves the least overhead.

Christopher sets up multiple WINS servers in his organization and configures users’ computers to use the WINS server. During testing, he attempts to access a folder called Share on the computer SERVERA. He enters the following statement into File Explorer: \\serverA\share. However, Christopher is unable to access the shared folder.

 

What is the most likely reason for this issue?

 

 

• A. Christopher has not set up replication.

• B. The UNC syntax entered is incorrect and is missing arguments. 

• C. SERVERA does not have a NetBIOS name record on any WINS server.

• D. The user computer is connect to the LAN but not to the Internet.

C.

Although Christopher has set up other users’ computers to use the WINS servers, it is likely that SERVERA does not have a NetBIOS name record on the WINS servers.

Michelle is configuring a DHCP server in her organization. When creating a new scope, she is prompted to enter the subnet delay. She chooses to enter a few milliseconds of delay.

 

If true, which of the following would justify this choice?

 

 

• A. The organization contains computers with manually configured IP addresses.

• B. The network contains DHCP servers configured in a DHCP failover configuration.

• C. The network contains other DHCP servers that lease IP addresses.

• D. The organization contains DHCP relay agents in different locations.

D.

In this scenario, the presence of DHCP relay agents in different locations is likely to influence Michelle’s choice. By default, DHCPOFFER packets are provided immediately by a DHCP server following the receipt of a DHCPDISCOVER packet, but you can provide a short delay should this cause problems with the DHCP relay agents in your organization.

Which of the following is the most likely cause for missing resource records in a secondary zone?

 

 

• A. Manual DNS cache flushing 

• B. Zones that allow dynamic updates

• C. An invalid entry in the DNS cache

• D. Zone transfer issues

D.

Missing resource records in a secondary zone are often caused by zone transfer issues. Zone transfers may not occur successfully if the network bandwidth is saturated at the time the zone transfer was initiated.

Lashonda sets up a DNS server, SERVER1, with a forward lookup zone called domainA.com. It hosts the resource records for the domainX.com Active Directory domain. It contains host (A) records for two network interfaces on SERVER1 (172.16.0.10 and 192.168.1.50). The host records are associated with the FQDNs server1.domainA.com and domainA.com. There is also an SOA record and an NS record for the zone.

 

Which of the following records identifies SERVER1 as an authoritative DNS server?

 

 

• A. The A record for 192.168.1.50

• B. The A record for 172.16.0.10

• C. The NS record 

• D. The SOA record

C.

An NS record is used to identify a DNS server that is authoritative for a zone. In this scenario, the NS record identifies SERVER1 as an authoritative DNS server.

For zones that allow dynamic updates, you do not need to create CNAME and MX records or host records that provide for round robin or netmask ordering. 

True

False

False

After creating a forward or reverse lookup zone, you can manually create resource records in a zone. For zones that allow dynamic updates, you still need to manually create CNAME and MX records as well as host records that provide for round robin or netmask ordering.

Which of the following organizations does not need to install a WINS server?

 

 

• A. An organization that has DNS servers installed

• B. An organization that uses modern operating systems such as Windows 10

• C. An organization that uses shared folders on computers with NetBIOS names

• D. An organization that has disabled NetBIOS on its computers 

D.

While NetBIOS is enabled by default on all Windows systems, some organizations choose to disable it on each computer. These organizations rely entirely on DNS name resolution and do not require a WINS server as a result.

Radha is using nslookup to troubleshoot DNS-related issues on SERVER1. She uses the command prompt and types in the statement nslookup servery.zone1.com. SERVER1 returns an incorrect result.

 

If SERVER1 is non-authoritative for this lookup, what should Radha do to resolve this issue?

 

 

• A. Ensure that the configuration of any stub zones is correct

• B. Clear the DNS Server cache, and clear the DNS cache on the resolver

• C. Configure the IP address of the correct DNS server in network interface properties on the resolver

• D. Modify the associated records in the zone on SERVER1 to include the correct information

B.

Radha can resolve this issue by clearing the DNS Server cache and clearing the DNS cache on the resolver.

Madison is using the Backup Schedule Wizard from the Actions pane of the Windows Server Backup tool. He selects the backup configuration as Custom and specifies the items to be backed up. While adding the items to be backed up, he happens to select the System state option. What does this option create a backup of?

 

 

• A. The entire system

• B. Virtual hard disk files

• C. Boot and recovery volumes

• D. Operating system settings

D.

This creates a backup of all operating system settings, including the Windows Registry, Active Directory database (for domain controllers), and boot loader files.

You are asked to create seven partitions in a storage device that uses an MBR. The device already has two partitions. However, you are also told that you cannot create more than a certain number of partitions on the storage device using an MBR.

 

What would your next step be?

 

 

• A. Use a storage device that is more than 7 TB in size and uses an MBR

• B. Use the drive letters A and B to label the partitions

• C. Create the partitions and label one of the partitions as extended

• D. Convert the device to GPT

C.

To overcome the limitation of partitions created on the MBR storage device, one of the partitions is labeled "extended," which can then contain an unlimited number of smaller partitions called logical drives.

While copying files between folders, it is possible to retrace and complete the transfer in case of a power failure if an NTFS-based filesystem is being used. The same cannot be said for a FAT32 filesystem.

 

What do you think could be the reason for this difference?

 

 

• A. FAT32 is only used as a removable device, while NTFS is not.

• B. NTFS is a filesystem, while FAT32 is not.

• C. FAT32 keeps track of information being written, while NTFS does not.

• D. NTFS is a journaling filesystem, while FAT32 is not.

D.

NTFS is a journaling filesystem, while FAT32 is not. A journaling filesystem writes each step required to copy a file to a new location in a journal, which allows the file to complete the file copy after power is restored

Imran is associating a drive letter to a filesystem so that the drive letter can be accessed by the operating system. What is the term given to the process that Imran is carrying out?

 

 

• A. Mounting

• B. Spanning

• C. Journaling

• D. Formatting

A.

The term "mounting" refers to the process of associating a drive letter or folder to a filesystem so that the drive letter or folder can be accessed by the operating system.

Rishab is looking for ways to manage duplicate file content on his organization's shared drive. He enables data deduplication for this purpose. To save computing resources, he wants to change the settings such that data deduplication occurs in the evening.

 

What must Rishab do to make this change?

 

 

• A. Select the Apply button under Deduplication Settings

• B. Enter the file extensions to be excluded

• C. Click the Add button under Deduplication Setting 

• D. Click Set Deduplication Schedule

D.

The Set Deduplication Schedule button will allow Rishab to modify the performance options for the Data Deduplication Service.

Gabriela attempts to create a virtual disk on a storage pool using Server Manager. However, she is unable to select the Create storage tiers on this virtual disk option.

 

Why do you think she is not able to use the option?

 

 

• A. The storage spool does not have sufficient space.

• B. She is not using the New Virtual Disk Wizard.

• C. The system uses an SSD and not an HDD.

• D. She enters the wrong virtual disk name.

C.

The Create storage tiers on this virtual disk option is only selectable if the storage pool contains a combination of hard disk and SSD storage devices.

Sonia is configuring a RAID level 5 array with five disks. Each disk has the capacity to store 3 TB of data. What is the total storage size that Sonia can use to store data?

 

 

• A. 8 TB

• B. 12 TB

• C. 3 TB

• D. 15 TB

B.

In RAID level 5, one fifth of the toral storage size is reserved for parity information. The total storage is 5*3 = 15 TB; the storage reserved for parity information is 15 * (1/5) = 3 TB; and the combined storage capacity that Sonia can use is 15 - 3 = 12 TB.

One of the disks on your computer is running low on storage space. You notice that there is unallocated space in the spanned volume.

 

How will you use the unallocated space to increase storage space?

 

 

• A. Right-click the volume on that disk and click Extend Volume to increase the size of the volume using the unallocated space

• B. Right-click the volume, click Reactivate Volume once the storage device is available, and use the unallocated space

• C. Right-click a RAID level 1 volume and click Remove Mirror to remove the volume while retaining the data from one disk you specify

• D. Right-click the system or boot partition in the Disk Management tool, click Add Mirror, and select the second storage device

A.

If there is unallocated space on one of the disks that contain a spanned volume, you can right-click the volume on that disk and click Extend Volume to increase the size of the volume using the unallocated space.

Trimming erases sections of the volatile memory chips on an SSD that no longer contain data, consolidating the existing data into fewer memory locations.

True

False

False

SSDs use non-volatile memory chips for storage.

Which of the following is a term given to the software component in the operating system that connects to the SAN device via iSCSI?

 

 

• A. HBA

• B. MPIO

• C. iSCSI initiator

• D. iSCSI target

C.

The software component in the operating system that connects to the SAN device via iSCSI is referred to as an iSCSI initiator.

How much storage space is reserved on a storage device to convert a storage disk to a dynamic disk using a Windows tool?

 

 

• A. 10 KB

• B. 1 MB

• C. 1 KB

• D. 10 MB

B.

The last 1 MB of storage on the device is automatically reserved to ensure that it can be converted to a dynamic disk, if necessary.

Identify the option that can be used to create storage pools that include storage devices from different servers on a network.

 

 

• A. A combination of hard disks and SDDs

• B. The primordial storage pool

• C. A thin-provisioning virtual disk

• D. Storage Spaces Direct

D.

Using Storage Spaces Direct, you can configure Storage Spaces to create storage pools that include storage devices from up to 16 servers on the network.

Rebecca is configuring a RAID with three storage devices. If she saves a file, the file will be divided into three sections, with each section written to separate storage devices concurrently, in a third of the amount of time it would take to save the entire file on one storage device.

 

Which of the following RAID levels is Rebecca configuring?

 

 

• A. RAID level 5

• B. RAID level 2

• C. RAID level 0

• D. RAID level 1

C.

In RAID level 0, an individual file is divided into sections and saved concurrently on two or more storage devices, one section per storage device.

Zuber is configuring Windows Server 2019 as an iSCSI SAN device. He has successfully created an iSCSI virtual disk and a new iSCSI target. He is trying to connect his system to the new iSCSI target but he is facing a connection issue.

 

What must be the cause for the connection issue?

 

 

• A. CHAP authentication is not enabled.

• B. IQN is not present in the access server list.

• C. DSM is not be added to the system.

• D. JBOD is not enabled in the system.

B.

The iSCSI target identifies iSCSI initiators using IQN. If the IQN is not present in the access server lists, the connection issue will arise because the ISCSI target cannot identify the iSCSI initiator of the system.

Parker runs the net start svsvc command at a Command Prompt to scan volume errors. He finds a corrupted spot on a volume. How can Parker directly go to the corrupted spot identified by the Spot Verifier service? 

 

 

• A. By using the /spotfix option with the chkdsk command

• B. By using the /x option with the chkdsk command

• C. By using the /c option with the chkdsk command

• D. By using the /r option with the chkdsk command 

A.

He can use the /spotfix option with the chkdsk command to only fix errors that were previously identified by the Spot Verifier service.

Which of the following statements is true of SAN devices?

 

 

• A. SAN devices use SAN protocols to manage and format filesystems.

• B. SAN devices use hardware RAID externally to provide fault tolerance for the storage device that they contain.

• C. SAN devices are functionally like an external USB drive.

• D. SAN devices are the same as network-attached storage.

C.

SAN devices only provide storage to other systems using a SAN protocol and do not format

A server rack containing data files, databases, web content, etc. is stored on an external SAN, which is connected to the Windows Server 2019 operating system via iSCSI.

 

Which of the following is not likely to be achieved with this configuration?

 

 

• A. Accessing multiple SAN devices

• B. Using hardware RAID externally to provide fault tolerance

• C. Providing storage to other servers

• D. Connection to Fibre Channel SAN devices

B.

SAN devices use hardware RAID internally to provide fault tolerance for the storage devices

Using a disk management tool, you can create a GPT on a disk that has an MBR when no partitions exist on a disk.

True

False

True

Which of the following RAID level configurations is not supported by Windows Server 2019?

 

 

• A. RAID level 0

• B. RAID level 2

• C. RAID level 1

• D. RAID level 5

B.

RAID level 2 is no longer used and was a variant of RAID 0 that allowed for error and integrity checking on storage devices.

Merjem, a PhD student, is writing her thesis. She takes regular backup of her files and data. When taking backup, she chooses the Faster backup performance option in the Optimize Backup Performance window.

Which of the following is true of the backup process in the given scenario?

 

 

• A. The backup process will provide the fastest option at the time of restoring data.

• B. Every backup only backs up data that has been modified since the previous backup.

• C. The backup process backs up the all the specified data every time.

• D. Every backup overwrites the previous backup.

B.

Selecting Faster backup performance option performs incremental backups. This option performs a full backup the first time the backup is taken. However, subsequent backups only back up data that has been modified since the previous backup.

Nadia uses the Disk Management tool to create a simple volume in one of the disks. She specifies the simple volume size and chooses a drive letter. While selecting the formatting options, she modifies the default allocation unit size. What will happen if the allocation unit size is large?

​

 

• A. The performance of database applications will increase.

• B. The performance of database applications will decrease.

• C. The performance of file sharing applications will increase.

• D. The performance of file sharing applications will decrease.

C.

A large allocation unit size will increase the performance of file sharing applications, whereas a small allocation unit size will increase the performance of database applications.

Pablo is a system administrator in training. He is trying to manually defragment the F: volume in Becky's system.

 

Help Pablo identify the correct method to perform manual defragmentation.

​

 

• A. Write the "Repair-Volume-DriveLetter F -Scan" command in Windows PowerShell.

• B. Write the "Optimize-Volume -DriveLetter" command in Windows PowerShell.

• C. Right-click the volume, click Properties, highlight the Tools tab, and click the Check button.

• D. Right-click the volume, click Properties, highlight the Tools tab, and click the Optimize button.

D.

This sequence will optimize the volume and help it run more efficiently.

Which of the following is a requirement for using Storage Spaces Direct?

 

 

• A. More than 20 servers must be available.

• B. A 10 GB Ethernet network interface with remote-direct memory access (RDMA) support is a must.

• C. The servers should be from different Active Directory domains.

• D. The number of SSDs used should not be more than one.

B.

Microsoft only supports Storage Spaces Direct on systems that have a 10 GB or greater Ethernet network interface that supports remote-direct memory access (RDMA).

Sam, an administrator, sends out an HR policy file to Vicky, Mohammad, Charle, and Reena. They save the HR policy file on their home directories under a shared folder of Windows Server 2019 with different file names. As a result, the same copies of the file are present multiple times with different names. Reena opens and saves the file after making minor changes.

 

What will happen to the files when Sam enables the Data Deduplication Service on Windows Server 2019?

 

 

• A. All the files get deleted when the Data Deduplication Service is enabled.

• B. None of the files are deleted as they have different file names. 

• C. A new copy of Reena's file is created and associated with the same file name.

• D. A copy of Reena's file is created with a new file name.

C.

After Reena modifies the file, a new copy of the file is created and associated with the same file name.

How do you create a RAID level 1 volume with two disks in the Disk Management tool?

 

 

• A. Right-click on the disk that you want to configure as a RAID volume and then click New Mirrored Volume to create a RAID level 1 volume with two disks

• B. Right-click on the disk that you want to configure as a RAID volume and then click New Striped Volume to create a RAID level 1 volume with two disks

• C. Right-click on the disk that you want to configure as a RAID volume and then click Shrink Volume to create a RAID level 1 volume with two disks

• D. Right-click on the disk that you want to configure as a RAID volume and then click New Spanned Volume to create a RAID level 1 volume with two disks

A.

The New Mirrored Volume option is used to create a RAID level 1 volume with 2 disks as three-way mirroring is not possible in the Disk Management tool.

Tara, an administrator, has added storage devices to the storage pool and selected the RAID level for the virtual disk using Server Manager. She wishes to allocate more space than is required for the current amount of data such that the system only uses the actual space it needs, enabling the actual size to grow with data.

 

What would you do to achieve Tara's wish?

​

 

• A. Create several fixed-provisioned virtual disks of combined capacity smaller than the storage pool

• B. Create several virtual disks of combined capacity smaller than the storage pool 

• C. Create several thin-provisioned virtual disks 

• D. Create several thick-provisioned virtual disks

C.

You can allocate more space than is required for the current amount of data, but the system only uses the actual space it needs, enabling the actual size to grow with the data.

The modern partition table is called the Master Boot Record (MBR) and uses storage devices that are larger than 2 TB.

True

False

False

The traditional partition table is called the Master Boot Record (MBR), and is limited to storage devices that are equal to or less than 2 TB in size. The modern partition table is called a GUID Partition Table (GPT), which uses storage devices larger than 2 TB.

Shaw, a server administrator, uses an iSCSI SAN protocol to transfer data to and from SAN devices at a speed of up to 40 Gb/s. He configures one of the SAN devices to provide storage to Jasper's Windows Server 2019 system.

 

What should Jasper configure in his system to be able to connect to the storage?

​

 

• A. HBA

• B. The iSCSI initiator

• C. MPIO

• D. The iSCSI target

D.

To connect a Windows Server 2019 system to an iSCSI SAN, he must first ensure that the appropriate iSCSI target has been configured on the iSCSI SAN device and that his server can connect to it. These tasks must be performed using the configuration tools provided by the iSCSI SAN device manufacturer.

Malaika purchased a print device that can be automatically configured by the system. The print device is PnP-capable, and it does not have a network interface. Which of these should Malaika use to connect the print device to the system?

 

 

• A. USB

• B. Ethernet

• C. Bluetooth

• D. Wi-Fi

A.

A PnP-capable physical printer connects to the system via physical ports, such as USB, parallel, or serial, and it is configured by the system automatically.

As a system administrator, you are tasked with identifying the reason for print jobs not getting completed. You notice that the queue status against one of the printers is “paused.” This does not provide a specific reason. To ease the process of troubleshooting in the future, you want the queue status to show specific notifications from the printer.

 

Which of the following options would you enable for this purpose?

 

 

• A. Bidirectional printing

• B. Branch office direct printing

• C. List in the directory

• D. Printer pooling

A.

Printers must have bidirectional printing enabled to display notifications from the print device within the Queue Status column.

Which of the following options is provided by the Print Management tool to quickly check the status of printers to identify any problems?

 

 

• A. Properties

• B. View Server

• C. Custom filters

• D. The Advanced tab 

C.

The Print Management tool provides custom filters that you can use to quickly check

Which of the following commands can be used within Windows PowerShell to view and manage print jobs within the print queue for a printer?

 

 

• A. Restart-Service spooler-force

• B. Set-Printer printername-restart

• C. http://serverx/printers

• D. Suspend-PrinJob

D.

Suspend-PrinJob is used to suspend the print jobs.

Pausing all documents within a print queue is often performed after performing routine maintenance on a print device, such as changing toner or refilling paper trays.

True

False

False

A printer can be configured to resume printing the documents within the print queue after the maintenance has been completed instead of pausing all documents within the print queue that is often performed after performing routine maintenance.

What happens when a print job exceeds the print device storage capacity?

 

 

• A. The print jobs are divided into smaller parts and sent to the print device sequentially.

• B. The Print Spooler service increases the print device storage capacity.

• C. The rendering process slows down, which results in a decrease in the print job.

• D. The print jobs are sent to the Server Message Block (SMB)

A.

Print devices have a limited amount of storage to store print jobs. When print jobs exceed print device storage, it is divided into smaller parts and sent to a print device sequentially.

Which of the following print server permissions allows users to configure print server settings within the Print Management tool?

 

 

• A. Manage Printers 

• B. View Server

• C. Manage Server

• D. Manage Documents

C.

Manage Server allows users to configure print server settings within the Print Management tool.

Which of the following actions cannot be performed by a user with Print permission?

 

 

• A. Cancel all print jobs

• B. Send print jobs to the printer

• C. Pause, resume, and restart print jobs

• D. Cancel the print jobs they have ownership of

A.

To perform this action, a user needs Manage Documents permission.

Identify the correct process that automatically adds SMB shared printers to computers that join a domain.

 

 

• A. Access the Sharing tab of the printer and select the List in the directory option

• B. Access the Advanced tab of the printer and select Auto deploy printer to client computers

• C. Select the printer within the Print Management tool and click Enable Branch Office Direct Printing

• D. Select the printer within the Print Management tool, select More Actions, and choose Deploy with Group Policy from the Actions menu

D.

You can use Group Policy to automatically add SMB shared printers to computers that are joined to the domain, provided that the appropriate printer drivers for the computers are installed on the print server. To do this, right-click a printer within the Print Management console and select Deploy with Group Policy.

The Device and Printers utility contains print server configuration options that are not available within the Print Management tool.

True

False

False

While you can also use the Devices and Printers utility on Windows Server 2019 to add and share locally attached or network-attached printers, you should instead use the Print Management tool that is part of the Print and Document Services server role, and it contains print server configuration options that are not available within the Device and Printers utility.

Which of the following is the default format used to store documents received by the GDI API for modern print devices?

 

 

• A. GDI2XPS

• B. RAW (FF appended)

• C. NT EMF 

• D. RAW (FF auto)

C.

NT EMF is the default format used to store documents received by the GDI API for modern print devices.

Which of the following options will allow a shared printer to be automatically published, allowing domain users to search for the Print window?

 

 

• A. List in the directory

• B. Enable printer pooling 

• C. Branch Office Direct Printing

• D. Enable advanced printing

A.

This will allow domain users to search Active Directory for the shared printer within the Print window of a software application, as well as ensure that it appears in the list of available printers at the beginning of the Add Printer wizard.

Which of the following tabs help configure the times that a printer is available to users, the printer priority, the printer driver, and spooling options?

 

 

• A. The Sharing tab 

• B. The Ports tab

• C. The Advanced tab

• D. The Security tab

C.

The Advanced tab helps configure the times that a printer is available to users, the printer priority, the printer driver, and spooling options.

Which of the following options on a print queue webpage refreshes the list of print jobs within the print queue when selected?

 

 

• A. All Printers

• B. Cancel All Documents

• C. Properties

• D. Document List 

D.

Document List is selected to refresh the list of print jobs within the print queue.

The print server does not spool the print job when branch office users connect to a shared printer across the Internet that has BODP enabled.

True

False

True

What separator page file is used with PostScript-only printers and prints a separator page at the beginning of each document?

 

 

• A. Sysprint.sep

• B. Pscript.sep

• C. Pcl.sep

• D. Sysprtj.sep

A.

This is used to print a PostScript separator page on a printer that supports PostScript only.

Selecting a shared printer within the Print Management console and clicking on More Actions, Properties from the Actions menu, you will be able to change the printer name, location, and comment.

True

False

True

The XPS API stores documents within a spool folder using Enhanced Metafile (EMF) format.

True

False

False

The XPS API stores documents within a spool folder using XPS format, whereas the GDI stores documents using the EMF format.

Identify the process that coverts the documents within the spool folder to a format understandable by the print device.

 

 

• A. Print queue

• B. Print job

• C. Spooling

• D. Rendering

D.

The rendering process converts the documents within the spool folder to a format understandable by the print device.

Several users access the same shared printer in Lia’s organization. A colleague tells her that the paper tray needs to be refilled. She uses the Printer menu to manage the print jobs and refill the paper tray.

 

Which option do you think she would have chosen in the Printer menu if the documents within the print queue resumed printing after the refilling of the paper tray?

 

 

• A. Restart

• B. Cancel All Documents

• C. Pause Printing 

• D. Pause

C.

This option holds all the documents within the printer queue. This option is often used before performing a maintenance task, such as refilling paper trays.

While installing Print and Document Services, Laurel selects an option available under “Role Services.” After the printer is configured, her colleagues can access the shared printer using a UNC.

 

Which option do you think Laurel selected?

 

 

• A. LPD Service

• B. Shared Printer

• C. Print Server

• D. Internet Printing

C.

If the Print Sever option is selected, the printer will be configured as an SMB shared printer. A UNC can be used to connect to an SMB shared printer using server name or IP address.

Nodin, a trainee system administrator, is configuring a shared print device, PrinterA, on a colleague’s computer. PrinterA is shared through ServerV. He uses the format below to successfully configure the print device.

 

\\ServerV\PrinterA

 

Identify the protocol that he most likely used.

 

 

• A. LDP

• B. SMB

• C. SMS

• D. IPP

B.

SMB protocol uses the format mentioned to print documents to shared printers. The default format is \\severname\sharedprintername.

Martha, a support technician, is troubleshooting a problem with a shared printer. All her colleagues, including Flavio, had complained that the printer control codes appear on printouts. She identifies corrupt print drivers as the cause of the problem. She reinstalls the print driver on Flavio’s computer, and he does not face this problem again. However, other people in her company still face the issue.

 

What should Martha have done to mitigate this issue for everyone?

 

 

• A. Updated or reinstalled the printer driver on the print server

• B. Updated or reinstalled the printer driver on all the print clients individually

• C. Turned the printer off and turned it on again

• D. Changed the location of the spool folder

A.

If all print clients (i.e., the computers using the shared printer) are experiencing this problem, the driver must be updated or installed on the print server and not on the clients.

A system administrator wants to give NTFS folder permission to a project manager so that the manager can add or remove the read-only, hidden, archive, index, compress, and encrypt attributes.

 

Which of the following permissions should the administrator give to the project manager?

 

 

• A. Read attributes

• B. Read extended attributes

• C. Write extended attributes

• D. Write attributes

C.

The administrator should give Write extended attributes permission to the project manager. Write extended attributes permission allows the user to add or remove the archive, index, compress, and encrypt attributes.

What happens when a folder with NTFS permissions is copied to a shared folder on a FAT volume?

 

 

• A. The folder inherits the share permissions but loses the NTFS permissions.

• B. The folder loses all NTFS and share permissions associated with it.

• C. The folder is set to read-only until the user performing the move changes the attribute.

• D. The folder is copied along with all NTFS and share permissions.

A.

FAT filesystems do not support NTFS permissions. However, the folder retains the share permissions.

Alaska, a system administrator, copies important and sensitive encrypted files from an NTFS filesystem to various locations on the network. As the files are encrypted, she is not worried about anyone accessing the files. However, the file copy in one of the locations is no longer secure as it has been decrypted and can be read by anyone who has access to the folder. 

 

Which of the locations is most vulnerable to theft among the locations where the files have been copied?

 

 

• A. FAT32 on a Windows 7 system

• B. Windows Server 2016

• C. FAT32 on a Windows 10 system 

• D. Windows Server 2019

A.

The copy of the file on FAT32 on the Windows 7 system is most vulnerable to theft. When an encrypted file is copied or moved from an NTFS filesystem to a filesystem that does not support Encrypting File System (EFS), such as ReFS or FAT32 on a Windows 7 system, the file is automatically decrypted.

Hasad is the system administrator for a marketing company. The company stores sensitive data in a folder named Assets on the company's network drive. Hasad is asked to identify the users who access the files within the folder or make changes to them.

 

Which of the following steps should Hasad take to track all the activity within the folder Assets?

 

 

• A. Edit the Default Domain Policy object to enable auditing functionality

•  B. Assign the hidden attribute to the folder

•  C. Modify the folder permissions for each user through Advanced Security Settings

•  D. Use a pair of public and private keys that are uniquely generated for a system

A,

Hasad should enable auditing functionality on every computer within the domain by editing the settings of the Default Domain Policy object. Folder and file auditing allows one to track activities, such as a read or write activity, on a folder or file. Some organizations configure auditing to see which users access or modify information.

Barry, a system administrator, finds that a shared drive on his organization's network is slow because of the huge amount of data stored in it. He realizes that most employees of the company back up all their data on this drive. He wants to restrict the amount of data that each employee stores on the drive.

 

Which of the following steps will help Barry limit employees' space usage?

 

 

• A. Configuring user quota

• B. Configuring passive screening

• C. Configuring folder quota

• D. Configuring active screening

A.

Configuring user quota will help Barry limit employees' space usage. User quotas can be configured to limit the space that users can consume on the drive.

Laurel creates a shared folder on a ReFS filesystem using NFS. She grants Read-Only permission to MSmark. When her colleague Mark tries to access the folder from his computer, he cannot access it.

 

Which of the following is the most likely reason that Mark cannot access the folder?

 

 

• A. The default permission is Read-Only, but Mark needs the Read-Write permission.

• B. Laurel forgot to click the Allow root access option for Mark.

• C. MSmark is a computer name and not Mark's user account name.

• D. The ReFS permission is Read/Write, whereas the NFS permission is Read.

C.

In NFS, shared folder permissions are granted to computers and not to users. If it is true that MSmark is a computer name, then Laurel has shared the folder with this computer. Laurel should find out the name of Mark's computer and share it with that computer.

Nodin is a system administrator in training. He is trying to grant the user, Becky Winters, shared folder permissions using Server Message Block.

 

Help Nodin identify the correct sequence to grant Becky Winters Full control shared folder permissions.

 

 

• A. Click File and Storage Services, select SMB Share – Quick, select Type a custom path, and specify the path to an existing shared folder that must be shared.

• B. Right-click the folder, click Properties, highlight the Sharing tab, and click the Share button.

• C. Click File and Storage Services, highlight Shares, select the Tasks drop-down box, and click New Share.

• D. Right-click the folder, click Properties, highlight the Sharing tab, and click the Advanced Sharing button.

D.

Full control is an advanced shared folder permission that is only available under the Advanced Sharing option in folder properties window. There are three advanced shared folder permissions—Read, Change, and Full control.

What happens if an encrypted file in an NTFS partition on a Windows 10 system is moved to a FAT32 partition on a Windows 7 system?

 

 

• A. The file transfer does not occur because FAT32 cannot store encrypted files.

• B. The file is moved but is only visible to Windows systems that can see EFS files.

• C. The file is decrypted and placed onto the FAT32 volume.

• D. The file encryption is maintained on the new location.

C.

When an encrypted file is moved to a FAT32 partition on a Windows 7 system, Encrypting File System (EFS) decrypts the file and stores an unencrypted version on the FAT32 partition.

Nora is a data scientist and works with programs that routinely acquire a lot of data. After data analysis, she stores the raw data for future use. However, she does not want the Windows Search Service to include the data files every time she performs a search function. 

​

Which of the following attributes should Nora deactivate to exclude the data files from searches?

​

 

• A. The archive attribute 

• B. The index attribute 

• C. The compress attribute

• D. The hidden attribute

B.

Nora should deactivate the index attribute for the data files to exclude them from searches.

Fayola realizes that many of her colleagues use folders on the network drive to store videos, and this consumes a lot of space on the drive. She asks the employees to delete their videos from the network drive.

 

Which of the following steps can Fayola take to maintain a log whenever a video file is saved on the drive in the future?

 

• A. Enable the archive attribute

• B. Configure active screening

• C. Configure passive screening

• D. Enable the encrypt attribute

C.

Fayola can configure passive screening to maintain a log whenever a video file is saved on the drive. Configuring passive screening will log an event every time a video file is saved on the drive.

Which service is a faster replacement for the Windows Indexing Service that is available on Windows Server 2019?

 

 

• A. The Windows Search Service 

• B. A discretionary access control list

• C. Windows Run

• D. Common Internet File System

A.

The Windows Search Service is a faster replacement for the Windows Indexing Service that is available on Windows Server 2019.

Imala, a research scientist, wants to encrypt a document that contains her research data as she does not want the content to be made public before it is published. She is using the Command Prompt window to configure the encrypt attribute.

 

Which of the following commands should Imala use to configure the encrypt attribute?

 

 

• A. dfsutil.exe

• B. compact.exe

• C. cipher.exe

• D. fsutil.exe

C.

Imala can use the command "cipher.exe." This command is used in a Command Prompt window to configure the encrypt attribute.

Which of the following is a component that enables users to search and locate a shared folder in the Active Directory?

 

 

• A. NFS 

• B. RAP

• C. SMB

• D. LDAP 

D.

LDAP is a component of the Active Directory that enables users to search and locate folders.

Which of the following statements is true of the ownership of a file or folder?

 

 

• A. An administrator can take ownership of a file or folder without being granted the permission to do so.

• B. The owner of a file or folder cannot modify all the permissions for that file or folder.

• C. Ownership of individual files and folders cannot be transferred by anyone with the Take ownership permission.

• D. The account that creates a file or a folder gets its ownership only when the administrator grants ownership to that account.

A.

An administrator can take ownership of a file or folder without being granted the permission to do so. By default, the owner of a resource, the local Administrator user account (within a workgroup) and members of the Domain Admins group (within a domain) can change folder and file ownership.

A user is attempting to access a shared file. The file has Full control NTFS permissions and Read permissions at the share level. What is the effective permission for the user on the file?

 

 

• A. Read

• B. Full control

• C.Modify

• D. Read/Write

A.

The user will only be able to read the file because the Read permission at the share level overrides the Full control permission at the NTFS level.

What are users who only have the List folder contents permission allowed to do? 

 

• A. They can list files in the folder or switch to a subfolder, view folder attributes and permissions, and execute files, but cannot view file contents.

• B. They can read, add, delete, execute, and modify files, but cannot delete subfolders and their file contents, change permissions, or take ownership.

• C. They can view file contents, view folder attributes and permissions, traverse folders, but cannot execute files.

• D. They can traverse folders, view file contents, view attributes and permissions, and execute files.

A.

Users with the List folder contents permission can list (traverse) files in the folder or switch to a subfolder, view folder attributes and permissions, and execute files. However, they cannot view file contents.

Within a workgroup environment, if EFS keys are not backed up, you can still access EFS files when they are restored after a recovery, provided you are a member of the Administrators group.

True

False

False

Within a workgroup environment, if EFS keys are not backed up, you cannot recover the files because there is no recovery agent.

Pavel is an IT project lead at Krystal Engineering. Because of his role, he is part of multiple groups, including the Developer group as well as the Project Manager group. One of the files that he is trying to access, PLStatus.xls, is not opening. Upon investigation, you find that Pavel's user account has Full control permission over the file. The Project Manager group has Modify access but not Full control. The Developer group has Write access but no Read access.

 

What is the most likely reason that Pavel is not able to open the file?

 

 

• A. The group permissions override permissions granted to Pavel's user account.

• B. The Developer group restricts Pavel's ability to view the file.

• C. Another group has the Deny box checked for Read access.

• D. The Project Manager group restricts Pavel's ability to view the file.

C.

From the given information, it is highly likely that the restriction placed on Pavel's ability to open the file comes from the permission settings of another group. One of the other groups that he belongs to might have the Deny box checked for the Read access.

Iqbal publishes a shared folder named KettleProgram to Active Directory. He wants other users to be able find the folder using the search feature on File Explorer. However, in addition to finding the folder when searching for KettleProgram, he also wants the folder to show up when users search for "KettleApp."

 

What is the most efficient method that Iqbal can use to enable this?

 

 

• A. Transfer ownership of the folder to a user called KettleApp.

• B. Add KettleApp as a keyword in the folder's properties.

• C. Rename the shared folder to KettleProgram/KettleApp. 

• D. Create an empty file called KettleApp within the folder.

B.

This is the most efficient method. Windows Server allows associating keywords with shared folder objects. To ensure that the KettleProgram folder shows up when users search for KettleApp, Iqbal can supply KettleApp as a keyword in the folder's properties.

Denji has access to a shared folder on his company's network drive. He updates the data in some files and replaces one of the existing files on the shared folder with a new version. He wants to share the updated files with a colleague who must verify the updated data and make changes if necessary. However, the colleague can only view the file contents, and Denji does not have the rights to grant the required permission.

 

Which of the following NTFS/ReFS folder and file permissions does Denji most likely have that allows him to make the changes mentioned in the scenario but does not allow him to grant the required permissions?

 

 

• A. Write

• B. Read and execute

• C. Modify

• D. Full control

C.

Denji most likely has the permission to modify the folder. Modify grants permission to read, add, delete, execute, and modify files. However, it does not allow the user to change permissions or take ownership. In order to change the folder permission for his colleague, Denji must have ownership of the folder.

Access-based enumeration limits the shares a user can see to only the shares for which the user has at least Read permission.

True

False

True

Devika copies a file, TFPresentation, from a folder titled "Mach-2" to a folder titled "Mach-3" on the same NTFS disk volume. The Mach-2 folder allows Read access to the Editor group, while explicitly denying Write permission to the same group. The Mach-3 folder allows Full control to the Editor group. TFPresentation, the original file, has Modify permissions for the Editor group.

 

What is the effective access of the Editor group on the copied file?

 

 

• A. Read

• B. No access

• C. Modify

• D. Full control

D.

Since Mach-3 assigns Full control permissions to the Editor group, the copied file will inherit these permissions.

Access to a shared folder on the network will use the most restrictive permissions, regardless of whether they are NTFS or share permissions.

True

False

True

You must be granted both shared folder permissions and NTFS/ReFS permissions to access files within a shared folder on an NTFS or ReFS filesystem. For example, if you have a Read/Write share access to a shared folder and a Read NTFS/ReFS permission to a file within the shared folder, you will only be able to read the contents of the file even though you have a Write access to the folder.