CCNA (200-301) – Comprehensive Review Flashcards

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Question-and-Answer style flashcards summarizing key CCNA (200-301) concepts from Modules 1–9, covering networking fundamentals, switching, routing, wireless, security, QoS, SDN, and automation.

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141 Terms

1
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What address field does a router examine to choose the correct egress interface for a packet?

The destination IP address.

2
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Why will a switch flood a frame out all ports except the one it came in on?

Because the destination MAC address has not yet been learned.

3
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What is the primary function of an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) sensor?

To analyze network traffic and block potential threats.

4
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What characterizes an ad-hoc wireless LAN?

Direct communication occurs between wireless clients without an access point.

5
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What is the key distinction between client-server and peer-to-peer architectures?

Client-server uses a centralized server for resources; peer-to-peer clients share resources among themselves.

6
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What design tasks can you perform with Cisco Catalyst Center?

Create a topology, allocate IP addresses, and place devices on a floor plan.

7
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Which hypervisor runs directly on the server hardware with no host OS?

Type 1 (native or bare-metal) hypervisor.

8
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What is the purpose of TCP’s three-way handshake?

To establish a reliable connection between two devices.

9
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Why is a three-tier campus architecture scalable?

New buildings can be added simply by connecting their distribution layer to the core layer.

10
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In a spine-leaf data-center, what role do Top-of-Rack (ToR) switches play?

They are leaf switches connecting servers to the spines.

11
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Which WAN option offers dedicated bandwidth and predictable latency with low bandwidth needs?

A point-to-point PPP connection.

12
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What single device best suits a SOHO with both wired and wireless clients?

A wireless router with built-in Ethernet ports connected to a cable/DSL modem.

13
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Which cloud deployment blends public-cloud flexibility with on-premises security?

Hybrid cloud.

14
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Which coax type is preferred for TVs and cable modems?

RG-6 coaxial cable.

15
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Which twisted-pair cable is best against high EMI?

Shielded Twisted Pair (STP).

16
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Cheapest twisted-pair category fully supporting 1 Gbps to 100 m?

Category 5e.

17
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Which cable connects two PCs directly?

An Ethernet crossover cable.

18
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Which fiber type minimizes modal dispersion over long distances?

Single-mode fiber (SMF).

19
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Which fiber connector maximizes port density on a panel?

MTRJ connector.

20
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Which fiber standard supports 1 Gbps up to ~200 m on MMF and is low-cost?

1000BASE-SX.

21
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What technology powers APs or IP cameras through the Ethernet cable?

Power over Ethernet (PoE).

22
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A rising I/O error counter often indicates what physical-layer mismatch?

Duplex mismatch.

23
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How many bits are in an IPv4 address and how are they shown?

32 bits displayed in dotted-decimal notation.

24
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Which IPv4 range is private: 192.0.2.0/24, 172.16.0.0/12, 203.0.113.0/24, or 8.8.8.0/24?

172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255.

25
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Which NAT variant lets many inside hosts share one public IP via ports?

PAT (Port Address Translation).

26
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Which IP flow type is ideal for a CEO video stream to many interested PCs?

Multicast.

27
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Which IPv4 parameter is NOT manually configured (IP, mask, gateway, MAC)?

MAC address – it’s burned into the NIC.

28
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Correct DHCP message sequence acronym?

DORA – Discover → Offer → Request → Acknowledgement.

29
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Which DNS record creates an alias to another FQDN?

CNAME record.

30
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Smallest /30 subnet mask usable between two routers?

255.255.255.252 (/30).

31
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How many host bits must you borrow to create at least five subnets?

Borrow 3 bits (2³ = 8 subnets).

32
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Usable hosts per /27 subnet?

30 usable addresses.

33
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First usable IP in the second /29 of 192.168.10.0/24?

192.168.10.9.

34
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192.168.1.130 /26 belongs to which subnet?

192.168.1.128/26.

35
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Decimal 157 equals what hex value?

0x9D.

36
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How many hexadecimal digits represent an IPv6 address?

32 hex digits (128 bits).

37
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How do you compress consecutive all-zero quartets in IPv6?

Replace the run with a double colon (::).

38
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IPv6 traffic type ‘Anycast’ is best described as?

One-to-nearest (one sender, delivered to the closest of many receivers).

39
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Which IPv6 address is global unicast? FE80::1, FF02::1, 2001:DB8::1, ::1

2001:DB8::1.

40
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What address reaches all IPv6 nodes on the link?

FF02::1.

41
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IPv6 link-local addresses begin with which prefix?

FE80::/10.

42
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Unique-local IPv6 addresses start with what bits?

FC00::/7 (commonly FDxx::/8).

43
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IPv6 loopback address?

::1/128.

44
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IPv6 unspecified address?

::/128 (all zeros).

45
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Which IPv6 mechanism replaces ARP?

The solicited-node multicast with Neighbor Discovery (ND).

46
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First step in EUI-64 interface-ID creation?

Split the MAC and insert FFFE in the middle.

47
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What does SLAAC do?

Allows a host to self-generate an IPv6 address using router advertisements plus EUI-64.

48
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Which switch type can forward at both Layer 2 and Layer 3?

A multilayer switch.

49
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Identical first 6 hex digits in MAC addresses indicate what?

Same manufacturer OUI.

50
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CLI command to disable CDP on a single interface?

no cdp enable (under interface config).

51
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Vendor-neutral LLDP disables outbound advertisements with what command?

no lldp transmit (under interface).

52
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Why create separate VLANs per department?

To place each on its own broadcast domain for security and performance.

53
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Fast way to put Gi0/1-2 into VLAN 10?

interface range gi0/1-2; switchport access vlan 10.

54
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Router-on-a-stick requires what on the router interface?

Subinterfaces, each tagged for a VLAN.

55
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Layer-3 switch inter-VLAN routing uses what?

Switch Virtual Interfaces (SVIs).

56
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Command that converts a switchport into a Layer-3 routed port?

no switchport.

57
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Which frames on an 802.1Q trunk are untagged?

Frames belonging to the native VLAN.

58
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To form a trunk with a remote port in dynamic auto, set local mode to?

dynamic desirable.

59
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Restrict trunk to VLANs 10,20,30 CLI?

switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,20,30.

60
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Command to specify voice VLAN 400 on an access port?

switchport voice vlan 400.

61
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Which STP field is NOT part of the bridge ID?

Port priority.

62
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Default STP reconvergence time after link failure?

50 seconds (20 + 15 + 15).

63
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PVST+ allows per-VLAN root bridges by doing what?

Assigning different bridge priorities per VLAN.

64
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PortFast purpose?

Send an access-port directly to Forwarding to minimize host delay.

65
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STP enhancement preventing a superior BPDU from another switch?

Root Guard.

66
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Which feature moves a port to loop-inconsistent if BPDUs stop arriving?

Loop Guard.

67
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Which enhancement blocks BPDU exchange on an AS boundary?

BPDU Filter.

68
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Enable auto-shutdown of PortFast ports receiving BPDUs?

BPDU Guard.

69
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STP variant minimizing instances yet optimizing VLAN paths?

MSTP (Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol).

70
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Typical RSTP convergence time window?

A few milliseconds up to ~6 seconds.

71
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Command to verify Rapid-PVST mode?

show spanning-tree summary.

72
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Critical EtherChannel requirement for all member ports?

Identical speed and duplex settings.

73
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PAgP mode combination that forms a channel: auto vs desirable?

Auto on one side, desirable on the other.

74
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EtherChannel load-balance on src-dst MAC fits what traffic pattern?

Varied unicast flows with many source/destination pairs.

75
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Command to actively create PAgP EtherChannel 1?

channel-group 1 mode desirable.

76
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Layer-3 EtherChannel key step?

Assign an IP address to the port-channel interface.

77
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Which address does a host ARP for when sending off-subnet traffic?

The MAC address of its default gateway.

78
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Which route wins among many to same network?

The one with the lowest administrative distance.

79
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EIGRP is classified as what kind of routing protocol?

Advanced distance-vector.

80
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When would OSPF outrank EIGRP?

If EIGRP’s administrative distance is manually increased above 110.

81
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Best method to give a remote router Internet via HQ?

Configure a static default route pointing to HQ.

82
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Proper static route syntax to reach 192.168.50.0/24 via 192.168.10.254?

ip route 192.168.50.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.10.254.

83
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Static host route for 10.10.10.10 via 10.10.10.2?

ip route 10.10.10.10 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.2.

84
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Floating static route above OSPF’s AD110 should use what AD?

A value higher than 110, e.g., 120.

85
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OSPF Hello multicast IPv4 address?

224.0.0.5.

86
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Why elect a DR/BDR on multi-access networks?

To reduce the number of adjacencies.

87
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Interface priority 0 effect in OSPF?

Prevents that interface from becoming DR/BDR.

88
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How to shrink an oversized LSDB?

Divide the network into multiple OSPF areas.

89
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Type 1 LSA advertises what?

All directly connected networks of a router within an area.

90
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Command to stop OSPF Hellos on Gi0/1 only?

router ospf X; passive-interface gig0/1.

91
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Routing table code ‘IA’ means what in OSPF?

Inter-Area route learned from another area.

92
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Default HSRP hold time before standby becomes active?

10 seconds.

93
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Which FHRP lets a physical interface share the virtual IP?

VRRP.

94
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GLBP load-balancing methods include?

Round-robin, weighted, and host-dependent (all of the above).

95
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Independent APs risk what drawback?

Higher chance of configuration errors and poor scalability.

96
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Which AP mode performs only background monitoring?

Monitor mode.

97
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Unique MAC that identifies a specific AP radio?

BSSID.

98
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Which band is NOT used by WLANs: 2.4 GHz, 5 GHz, 6 GHz, 7 GHz?

7 GHz.

99
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Common interference source in 2.4 GHz?

Bluetooth devices.

100
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Which 802.11 standard first used 5 GHz 54 Mbps?

802.11a.