CC2 LEC (P): ALP and ACP

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Last updated 11:00 AM on 8/25/26
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100 Terms

1
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A

What specific chemical reaction is catalyzed by Alkaline Phosphatase at an alkaline pH?

a. Hydrolysis of phosphomonoesters into alcohol and phosphate

b. Oxidation of glucose into pyruvic acid and ATP

c. Reduction of nitrates into nitrites and ammonia

d. Transfer of amino groups from proteins to carbohydrates

2
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A

What is the optimal pH range for Alkaline Phosphatase activity?

a. 9.0-10.0 (pH 10.5)

b. 5.0-6.0 (pH 5.5)

c. 7.0-7.5 (pH 7.3)

d. 2.0-3.0 (pH 2.5)

3
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A

In healthy sera, Alkaline Phosphatase (ALP) levels are primarily derived from which tissues?

a. Liver and bone (osteoblasts)

b. Heart and skeletal muscle

c. Kidneys and lungs

d. Brain and spinal cord

4
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A

Which cation acts as an enzyme activator for Alkaline Phosphatase?

a. Magnesium

b. Calcium

c. Iron

d. Copper

5
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A

The presence of intestinal ALP isoenzymes in serum depends on the secretor gene, H substance, and which specific blood groups?

a. B or O blood group

b. A or AB blood group

c. Rh negative blood types

d. Lewis positive blood types

6
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A

Which specific cells in the bone represent the primary tissue source of Alkaline Phosphatase?

a. Osteoblasts

b. Osteoclasts

c. Osteocytes

d. Chondrocytes

7
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A

What type of ALP liver band is specifically increased in patients with obstructive liver disease?

a. Fast (alpha) liver band

b. Slow (beta) liver band

c. Gamma liver band

d. Delta liver band

8
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A

Which essential trace element is a structural component of Alkaline Phosphatase?

a. Zinc

b. Manganese

c. Cobalt

d. Iodine

9
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A

The Regan ALP isoenzyme is associated with which types of neoplasms?

a. Lung, Breast, Ovarian, Gynecological

b. Colon, Gastric, Esophageal, Hepatic

c. Leukemia, Lymphoma, Myeloma

d. Prostate, Testicular, Bladder

10
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A

Which chemical inhibitor completely inhibits the Regan ALP isoenzyme?

a. Phenylalanine

b. 3M Urea

c. Levamisole

d. L-tartrate

11
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A

Nagao ALP isoenzyme is primarily associated with which of the following cancers?

a. Adenocarcinoma of Pancreas and Bile Duct, Pleural Cancer

b. Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin

c. Basal cell carcinoma

d. Glioblastoma multiforme

12
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A

Which combination of chemicals specifically inhibits the Nagao ALP isoenzyme?

a. Phenylalanine and L-leucine

b. Levamisole and 3M Urea

c. Formaldehyde and cupric sulfate

d. EDTA and Citrate

13
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A

What is the defining heat stability characteristic of the Regan ALP isoenzyme?

a. Resistant/Stable at 65 degrees Celsius for 30 mins

b. Labile at 37 degrees Celsius for 10 mins

c. Denatured at 56 degrees Celsius for 15 mins

d. Destroyed at 4 degrees Celsius

14
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A

Which specific liver membranes contain high concentrations of Alkaline Phosphatase?

a. Sinusoidal and Bile Canalicular membranes

b. Nuclear and mitochondrial membranes

c. Rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum

d. Golgi apparatus and lysosomal membranes

15
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A

What are the four normal isoenzymes of Alkaline Phosphatase detected in the laboratory?

a. Intestinal, placental, bone, and liver

b. Prostatic, erythrocytic, platelet, and splenic

c. Regan, Nagao, PA, and Kasahara

d. Myocardial, skeletal, pulmonary, and renal

16
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A

During a normal pregnancy, when can increased ALP activity typically be detected?

a. Between 16-20 weeks of pregnancy

b. During the first 4 weeks of pregnancy

c. Only in the final 2 weeks of pregnancy

d. Immediately upon conception

17
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A

Following delivery, how quickly does increased ALP activity from pregnancy go back to normal?

a. 3 days after delivery

b. 2 weeks after delivery

c. 1 month after delivery

d. 6 months after delivery

18
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A

Placental alkaline phosphatase (PLAP) serves as a useful tumor marker in serum and CSF for which condition?

a. Most germ cell tumors

b. Benign prostatic hyperplasia

c. Acute myeloid leukemia

d. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

19
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A

Which condition is associated with a pronounced ALP elevation of up to 5 times the normal limit?

a. Osteitis deformans (Paget's disease)

b. Healing fractures

c. Normal growth patterns in children

d. Viral hepatitis

20
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A

Which liver condition causes a moderate ALP elevation of 3-5 times the normal limit?

a. Granulomatous or infiltrative diseases of liver

b. Extrahepatic bile duct obstruction

c. Intrahepatic bile duct obstruction

d. Uncomplicated cirrhosis

21
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A

Which physiological state accounts for a slight ALP elevation of up to 3 times the normal limit?

a. Normal growth patterns in children

b. Osteogenic sarcoma

c. Biliary cirrhosis

d. Hyperparathyroidism

22
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A

Why must hemolysis be avoided when collecting a serum sample for Alkaline Phosphatase testing?

a. ALP is 6 times more concentrated in RBCs than serum

b. Hemoglobin reacts with the PNPP substrate to turn it red

c. RBCs contain specific inhibitors that destroy liver ALP

d. Hemolysis drops the pH of the serum below 5.0

23
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A

How does storing a specimen at low temperature (4 degrees Celsius) affect ALP activity?

a. It is sensitive and leads to increased serum levels

b. It completely denatures the bone isoenzyme

c. It causes the zinc component to precipitate

d. It inactivates the magnesium activator

24
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A

How much can ALP values increase following the ingestion of a high-fat meal in individuals with blood group B or O?

a. Values may be 25% higher

b. Values may double (100% higher)

c. Values may be 5% higher

d. Values may decrease by 25%

25
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A

Smoking can cause what specific change in total Alkaline Phosphatase levels?

a. An average 10% increase

b. An average 50% decrease

c. Complete inhibition of the intestinal fraction

d. A 25% reduction in placental ALP

26
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B

Which of the following anticoagulants is noted to cause a decrease in Alkaline Phosphatase levels rather than strictly inhibiting it?

a. Oxalate

b. Fluoride

c. Citrate

d. EDTA

27
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B

Which of the following anticoagulants is listed as an inhibitor of Alkaline Phosphatase?

a. Heparin

b. EDTA

c. Sodium Polyanethol Sulfonate (SPS)

d. Acid Citrate Dextrose (ACD) without citrate

28
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B

During electrophoretic separation of ALP, which isoenzymes migrate as the most anodal?

a. Intestinal and Placental ALPs

b. Liver and bone ALPs

c. Regan and Nagao ALPs

d. Erythrocytic and Platelet ALPs

29
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B

Which ALP isoenzyme demonstrates the least anodal migration during electrophoresis?

a. Bone ALP

b. Intestinal ALP

c. Liver ALP

d. Placental ALP

30
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B

Which substance is used to improve the electrophoretic separation of bone and liver ALP forms by removing sialic acid?

a. L-tartrate

b. Neuraminidase

c. L-leucine

d. 2% formaldehyde

31
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B

Which agent is used to bind other isoenzymes to improve the separation of bone and liver ALP forms?

a. Cupric sulfate

b. Wheat germ lectin

c. 3M Urea

d. Phenylalanine

32
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B

What is the standard temperature and duration used for the Heat Fractionation / Stability Test of ALP?

a. 65 degrees Celsius for 30 minutes

b. 56 degrees Celsius for 10-15 minutes

c. 37 degrees Celsius for 60 minutes

d. 100 degrees Celsius for 5 minutes

33
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B

Among the four normal ALP isoforms, which one is considered the most heat stable?

a. Bone ALP

b. Placental ALP

c. Liver ALP

d. Intestinal ALP

34
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B

Among the normal ALP isoforms, which one is characterized as the most heat labile?

a. Intestinal ALP

b. Bone ALP

c. Placental ALP

d. Liver ALP

35
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B

In the chemical inhibition test for ALP, which substance specifically inhibits both liver and bone isoenzymes?

a. L-phenylalanine

b. Levamisole

c. 3M Urea

d. L-leucine

36
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B

Which chemical inhibitor specifically targets and inhibits the bone ALP isoenzyme?

a. Phenylalanine

b. 3M Urea

c. L-tartrate

d. Cupric sulfate

37
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B

Which chemical is used to inhibit placental, intestinal, Regan, and Nagao ALP isoenzymes?

a. Levamisole

b. L-phenylalanine

c. 3M Urea

d. 2% formaldehyde

38
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B

Which ALP methodology is considered the most specific method and is recommended by the IFCC?

a. King and Armstrong

b. Bowers and Mc Comb (Szasz Modification)

c. Bessy, Lowry, and Bronk

d. Bodansky, Shinowara, Jones, Reinhart

39
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B

What specific substrate is utilized in the Bowers and Mc Comb method for ALP determination?

a. Beta-glycerophosphate (BGP)

b. p-Nitrophenylphosphate (PNPP)

c. Phenylphosphate (PP)

d. Alpha naphthol phosphate (ANP)

40
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B

What is the required pH environment for the continuous monitoring technique in the Bowers and Mc Comb method?

a. 5.0

b. 10.15

c. 7.4

d. 9.0

41
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B

At what wavelength is the increase in absorbance read in the Bowers and Mc Comb method?

a. 340 nm

b. 405 nm

c. 505 nm

d. 620 nm

42
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B

What is the yellow product measured in the Bowers and Mc Comb reaction?

a. Phenol

b. p-nitrophenol or yellow nitrophenoxide ion

c. Phenolphthalein red

d. Alpha-napthol

43
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B

Which substrate is used in the Bodansky, Shinowara, Jones, and Reinhart method for measuring ALP?

a. Phenylphosphate (PP)

b. Beta-glycerophosphate (BGP)

c. Phenolphthalein diphosphate (PPDP)

d. Buffered phenolphthalein phosphate (PPP)

44
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B

What are the specific end products formed in the Bodansky, Shinowara, Jones, and Reinhart method?

a. Free phenolphthalein and water

b. Inorganic phosphate and glycerol

c. Phenol and carbon dioxide

d. Alpha-naphthol and yellow nitrophenoxide ion

45
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B

The King and Armstrong (Gutman and Gutman) method utilizes which substrate for ALP determination?

a. p-Nitrophenylphosphate

b. Phenylphosphate (PP)

c. Thymolphthalein monophosphate

d. Alpha naphthol phosphate

46
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B

What product is generated from the hydrolysis of phenylphosphate in the King and Armstrong method?

a. Glycerol

b. Phenol

c. p-nitrophenol

d. Free thymolphthalein

47
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B

Which ALP laboratory method uses Phenolphthalein diphosphate (PPDP) as its substrate?

a. Moss method

b. Huggins and Talalay method

c. Klein, Babson, and Read method

d. Bessy, Lowry, and Bronk method

48
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B

What is the measured product of the Huggins and Talalay method?

a. Phenol

b. Phenolphthalein red

c. Alpha-napthol

d. Inorganic phosphate

49
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B

Which specific substrate is employed in the Moss method for detecting ALP activity?

a. Buffered phenolphthalein phosphate (PPP)

b. Alpha naphthol phosphate (ANP)

c. p-Nitrophenylphosphate (PNPP)

d. Beta-glycerophosphate (BGP)

50
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B

The Klein, Babson, and Read method measures the formation of which product?

a. Yellow nitrophenoxide ion

b. Free phenolphthalein

c. Glycerol

d. Phenolphthalein red

51
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C

Acid Phosphatase (ACP) catalyzes the hydrolysis of phosphomonoesters optimally at what pH?

a. pH 10.5

b. pH 7.4

c. pH 5.0

d. pH 2.0

52
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C

Where do the highest concentrations of Acid Phosphatase occur in the human body?

a. Liver and spleen

b. Bone and platelets

c. Prostate gland secretions and erythrocytes

d. Intestines and placenta

53
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C

What is a primary clinical significance of measuring Acid Phosphatase levels?

a. Detection of acute viral hepatitis

b. Diagnosis of Paget's disease

c. Detection of prostatic adenocarcinoma

d. Monitoring of healing bone fractures

54
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C

Following the surgical removal of a prostate tumor, how do ACP levels behave in comparison to PSA levels?

a. ACP levels rise while PSA levels fall

b. ACP levels remain static while PSA levels become undetectable

c. ACP levels fall faster than PSA, and plasma levels are expected to be undetectable

d. ACP levels fall slower than PSA levels

55
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C

In forensic clinical chemistry, ACP activity from seminal fluid in vaginal washings can persist for up to how many days?

a. 1 day

b. 2 days

c. 4 days

d. 7 days

56
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C

Bone diseases can cause an elevation in ACP levels due to the activity of which cells?

a. Osteoblasts

b. Chondrocytes

c. Osteoclastic activity

d. Erythrocytes

57
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C

Which lipid storage disease is specifically noted to cause elevated levels of Acid Phosphatase?

a. Tay-Sachs disease

b. Niemann-Pick disease

c. Gaucher's disease

d. Fabry disease

58
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C

In the differential diagnosis of Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL), which finding relates to Acid Phosphatase?

a. ALL of B-cell origin is ACP positive

b. Both T-cell and B-cell ALL are ACP positive

c. ALL of T-cell origin is ACP positive while B-cell origin is ACP negative

d. Both T-cell and B-cell ALL are ACP negative

59
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C

Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP) is most notably present in which specific malignancy?

a. Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)

b. Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)

c. Hairy cell leukemia

d. Multiple Myeloma

60
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C

Why is plasma the preferred sample choice over serum when testing for Acid Phosphatase?

a. Plasma preserves the erythrocytic ACP fraction better

b. Plasma prevents the inhibition caused by naturally occurring levamisole

c. To minimize platelet contamination, as platelet damage increases ACP activity

d. Plasma prevents the irreversible binding of zinc

61
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C

What happens to serum ACP activity if left at room temperature for 1 to 2 hours without a preservative?

a. Activity increases due to the activation of osteoclasts

b. Activity remains stable for up to 24 hours

c. Activity decreases due to loss of CO2, which results in an increase in pH

d. Activity decreases because ACP is rapidly oxidized by ambient oxygen

62
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C

How should a specimen be handled to prevent the loss of ACP activity?

a. It must be frozen immediately at -80 degrees Celsius

b. It must be alkalized to a pH of 9.0 using sodium hydroxide

c. It must be acidified using citrate, buffered to a pH of 6.2-6.6

d. It must be treated with 3M Urea and heated to 56 degrees Celsius

63
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C

Which anticoagulants cause a false decrease in Acid Phosphatase activity?

a. Citrate and EDTA

b. Fluoride and Phenylalanine

c. Oxalate and heparin

d. SPS and ACD

64
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C

During electrophoretic separation of ACP, what is the behavior of the erythrocytic ACP isoenzyme?

a. It migrates with great mobility to the anode

b. It migrates rapidly to the cathode

c. It remains in origin

d. It binds to the alpha-2 globulin band

65
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C

Which ACP isoenzyme migrates with the greatest mobility and is considered the most anodal?

a. Platelet ACP

b. Bone ACP

c. Prostatic ACP

d. Erythrocytic ACP

66
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C

Prostatic Acid Phosphatase is specifically inhibited by which chemical substance?

a. 2% formaldehyde solution

b. 1mM cupric sulfate solution

c. L-tartrate solution

d. Levamisole

67
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C

Which of the following solutions are used to inhibit Erythrocytic Acid Phosphatase?

a. L-tartrate and L-leucine

b. Phenylalanine and 3M Urea

c. 2% formaldehyde solution and 1mM cupric sulfate solution

d. EDTA and sodium fluoride

68
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C

Because it is inhibited by L-tartrate, Prostatic ACP is classified as what type of acid phosphatase?

a. Non-specific acid phosphatase

b. Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase

c. Specific acid phosphatase

d. Atypical acid phosphatase

69
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C

The Gutman and Gutman method for ACP determination utilizes which substrate?

a. a-naphthyl phosphate

b. Thymolphthalein monophosphate

c. Phenyl phosphate

d. p-Nitrophenylphosphate

70
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C

What is the measured end product of the Gutman and Gutman method for ACP?

a. Free thymolphthalein

b. p-nitrophenol

c. Inorganic phosphate

d. Alpha-naphthol

71
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C

Which substrate is used in the Shinowara method for measuring Acid Phosphatase?

a. Phenyl phosphate

b. Alpha-naphthyl phosphate

c. p-Nitrophenylphosphate

d. Thymolphthalein monophosphate

72
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C

What is the product formed in the Shinowara method for ACP?

a. Free thymolphthalein

b. Inorganic phosphate

c. p-nitrophenol

d. Phenol

73
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C

The Babson, Read and Phillips method for ACP measurement employs which substrate?

a. p-Nitrophenylphosphate

b. Phenyl phosphate

c. Alpha-napthyl phosphate

d. Beta-glycerophosphate

74
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C

What is the resulting product of the Babson, Read and Phillips method?

a. p-nitrophenol

b. Inorganic phosphate

c. Alpha-naphthol

d. Free thymolphthalein

75
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C

Which specific substrate is used in the Roy and Hillman method for ACP determination?

a. Alpha-napthyl phosphate

b. Phenyl phosphate

c. Thymolphthalein monophosphate

d. p-Nitrophenylphosphate

76
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D

What is the measured end product of the Roy and Hillman method?

a. Phenol

b. Inorganic phosphate

c. Alpha-naphthol

d. Free thymolphthalein

77
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D

Which substrate is considered the substrate of choice for the quantitative endpoint reaction of ACP?

a. p-Nitrophenylphosphate

b. Phenyl phosphate

c. Alpha-napthyl phosphate

d. Thymolphthalein monophosphate

78
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D

Which substrate is preferred for the continuous monitoring methods of Acid Phosphatase, such as the Babson, Read and Phillips method?

a. Thymolphthalein monophosphate

b. p-Nitrophenylphosphate

c. Phenyl phosphate

d. a-naphthyl phosphate

79
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D

Alongside liver ALP, which isoenzyme is considered one of the most predominant fractions in health sera?

a. Intestinal ALP

b. Regan ALP

c. Placental ALP

d. Bone ALP

80
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D

Which of the following conditions causes a pronounced elevation (5 times the normal limit) of Alkaline Phosphatase?

a. Viral Hepatitis

b. Pregnancy

c. Metastatic tumors in bone

d. Bile duct obstruction (intrahepatic or extrahepatic)

81
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D

Patients with healing fractures typically exhibit what degree of ALP elevation?

a. Pronounced elevation (5 times the normal)

b. Moderate elevation (3-5 times the normal)

c. No elevation

d. Slight elevation (Up to 3 times the normal)

82
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D

Metabolic bone diseases such as rickets and osteomalacia are associated with what level of ALP elevation?

a. Pronounced elevation (5 times the normal)

b. Slight elevation (Up to 3 times the normal)

c. Decreased ALP levels below normal

d. Moderate elevation (3-5 times the normal)

83
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D

Because it catalyzes the hydrolysis of phosphomonoesters and acts on many different substrates, ALP is described as what kind of enzyme?

a. A highly specific proteolytic enzyme

b. A specific oxidoreductase

c. A transferase with singular substrate affinity

d. A nonspecific enzyme

84
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D

Why must serum be separated from RBCs ASAP after centrifugation when testing for ACP?

a. RBCs rapidly absorb the citrate buffer

b. RBCs consume the alpha-napthyl substrate

c. Hemolysis converts prostatic ACP to erythrocytic ACP

d. RBCs possess an Erythrocytic ACP isoenzyme that can cause elevation

85
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D

Which viral infection is noted for causing a moderate elevation (3-5 times normal) in Alkaline Phosphatase?

a. Viral Hepatitis

b. HIV

c. Influenza

d. Infectious mononucleosis

86
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D

The ingestion of a high-fat meal can increase intestinal ALP by 25% in individuals with which specific trait?

a. A or AB blood group non-secretors

b. Rh-negative individuals

c. Those lacking the H substance

d. Blood group B and O individuals who are secretors

87
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D

What laboratory technique utilizes heating a serum sample at 56 degrees Celsius for 10-15 minutes?

a. Electrophoretic Separation

b. Chemical Inhibition Test

c. Continuous Monitoring Technique

d. Heat Fractionation / Stability Test

88
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D

Osteitis deformans, a condition causing pronounced elevation of ALP, is also known by what name?

a. Gaucher's disease

b. Rickets

c. Osteomalacia

d. Paget's disease

89
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D

Which substance is used to improve electrophoretic separation by removing sialic acid and causing ALP to migrate at a slower rate?

a. Wheat germ lectin

b. 3M Urea

c. L-phenylalanine

d. Neuraminidase

90
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D

Which combination of traits accurately describes the Regan ALP isoenzyme?

a. Associated with pancreatic cancer and inhibited by L-leucine

b. Most heat labile and inhibited by levamisole

c. Elevated in bone disorders and inhibited by 3M Urea

d. Inhibited by phenylalanine and resistant/stable at 65 degrees Celsius for 30 mins

91
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D

The presence of intestinal ALP isoenzymes in healthy serum is dependent on which of the following?

a. The presence of zinc and magnesium activators

b. The time of the most recent skeletal fracture

c. The functional status of the bile canalicular membrane

d. The secretor gene and H substance of the individual

92
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D

Which cell type is the specific tissue source for the ALP isoenzyme that serves as a marker for bone calcification?

a. Osteoclasts

b. Chondrocytes

c. Erythrocytes

d. Osteoblasts

93
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D

Which of the following correctly describes the IFCC recommended Bowers and Mc Comb method for ALP?

a. Endpoint reaction measuring free thymolphthalein

b. Hydrolysis of phenylphosphate to phenol at pH 5.0

c. Separation of isoenzymes using 3M Urea

d. Continuous monitoring technique reading p-nitrophenol at 405nm in a pH 10.15 environment

94
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D

How do ALP and ACP relate to bone cell activity?

a. Both ALP and ACP strictly indicate osteoclast activity

b. Both ALP and ACP strictly indicate osteoblast activity

c. ACP indicates osteoblast activity while ALP indicates osteoclast activity

d. ALP indicates osteoblast activity while ACP indicates osteoclast activity

95
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D

In the differential diagnosis of Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL), which profile is ACP negative?

a. ALL of T-cell origin

b. Hairy cell leukemia

c. Chronic myeloid leukemia

d. ALL of B-cell origin

96
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D

Which laboratory method for ALP relies on measuring the product Phenolphthalein red?

a. Moss method

b. Klein, Babson, and Read method

c. Bodansky method

d. Huggins and Talalay method

97
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D

If an unpreserved ACP sample loses carbon dioxide, what happens to the sample's pH?

a. The pH rapidly decreases below 5.0

b. The pH remains perfectly stable

c. The pH fluctuates unpredictably

d. It results in an increase in pH

98
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D

Which of the following specifically inhibits Acid Phosphatase activity?

a. Sodium citrate

b. Zinc

c. Magnesium

d. Fluoride

99
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D

Why is ACP analysis of vaginal washings useful in forensic clinical chemistry for investigating rape cases?

a. Vaginal washings completely inhibit erythrocytic ACP

b. The presence of ACP indicates the absence of prostatic adenocarcinoma

c. Seminal fluid ACP crystallizes upon contact with air

d. Seminal fluid ACP activity can persist up to 4 days

100
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D

Based on electrophoretic mobility, what is the migration order of normal ALP isoenzymes from least anodal to most anodal?

a. Liver, Bone, Placental, Intestinal

b. Bone, Liver, Intestinal, Placental

c. Placental, Intestinal, Liver, Bone

d. Intestinal, Placental, Bone, Liver