Unit 2 Week 2

Surgical instruments generally are classified according to use. Which is not a classification for instruments ?

a. Cutting

b. Grasping

c. Restabalizing

d. Probing and dilating

c. Restabalizing

How should instruments be handled after the surgery is complete ?

a. Place heavier instruments at the bottom of a collective basin

b. Keep all instruments locked to prevent accidental injury

c. Wait until any blood on the instrument has dried before cleaning

d. Use a detergent with a neutral pH that creates a high level of suds

e. Place heavier instruments at the bottom of a collection basic and use detergent with a neutral pH that creates a high level of suds

a. Place heavier instruments at the bottom of a collective basin

The recommended method for cleaning sharp instruments is to:

a. use an ultrasonic cleaner

b. wear appropriate PPE

c. use the proper concentration of disinfect

d. rinse instruments with sterile water before sterilizing

a. use an ultrasonic cleaner

These instruments have very sharp hooks

a. tissue forceps

b. needle holders

c. splinter forceps

d. towel forceps (towel clamps)

d. towel forceps (towel clamps)

Which are the largest hemostat forceps ?

a. mosquito forceps

b. curved forceps

c. kelly forceps

d. straight forceps

c. kelly forceps

Venipunctures or injections must be preformed using which of the following protocols ?

a. asepsis

b. medical asepsis

c. surgical asepsis

d. sterile technique

c. surgical asepsis

Local anesthesia last as long as 5 hours

a. true

b. false

b. false

One method of controlling epistasis is to apply silver nitrate sticks to the bleeder site

a. true

b. false

a. true

Bandage scissors have a pointy, sharp probe tip that is inserted under the bandage to aid removal

a. true

b. false

b. false

No harm is fone if a sterile field gets wet

a. true

b. false

b. false

Which statement is not true about informed consent for surgery ?

a. The medical assistant is responsible for obtaining the patients consent to treatment

b. The patient must understand the potential risks and benefits of the surgery

c. The patient must understand the possible risks pf any alternative treatment

d. The patient cannot give consent if he or she has recieved preoperative medication

a. The medical assistant is responsible for obtaining the patients consent to treatment

The LEEP excisional procedure is considered which of the following ?

a. Electrosurgery

b. Laser surgery

c. Microsurgery

d. Endoscopy

e. Cryosurgery

a. Electrosurgery

Which of the following endoscope is rigid ?

a. Laparoscope

b. Colonoscope

c. Bronchoscope

d. Gasteroscope

a. Laparoscope

Under which of the following post-operative conditions should a patient call the office immediately ?

a, redness around the operative site

b. bleeding from the wound

c. fever or swelling

d. increasing or severe pain

e. all are correct

e. all are correct

Which of the following passes through to a body organ or cavity ?

a. increased wound

b. Lacerated wound

c. Perforated wound

d. Penetrating wound

e. Perforated wound and penetrating wound

e. Perforated wound and penetrating wound

What type of wound has jagged irregular edges ?

a. avulsion

b. puncture

c. laceration

d. abrasion

c. laceration

Which phase of wound healing is referred to as proliferation ?

a. first phase

b. second phase

c. third phase

d. final phase

c. third phase

Which of the following bandage materials is superior for covering round narrow surfaces such as fingers or toes ?

a. plain roller gauze

b. wrinkled crepe-type roller bandage

c. elastic bandage

d. seamless tubular gauze bandage

e. all are correct

d. seamless tubular gauze bandage

When using which bandage do you need to keep consistent spacing and tension to ensure even pressure ?

a. plain roller gauze

b. wrinkled crepe-type roller bandage

c. elastic bandage

d. seamless tubular gauze bandage

c. elastic bandage

What are chemical messengers secreted by cells of the immune system that direct immune cellular interactions ?

a. antigens

b. antibodies

c. macrophages

d. cytokines

d. cytokines

An example of a second line nonspecific defense is

a. sneezing

b. perspiration

c. the sin

d. fever

d. fever

Monocytes change into __ when they leave the bloodstream and enter tissues

a. NK cells

b. T cells

c. B cells

d. macrophages

d. macrophages

Passage of antibodies through the placenta or breast milk is which type of immunity ?

a. natural active-acquired immunity

b. artificial active-acquired immunity

c. natural passive-acquire immunity

d. artifical passive-acquire immunity

c. natural passive-acquire immunity

Myasthenia gravis, psoriasis, and rheumatoid arthritis are examples of

a. autoimmune disease

b. AIDS

c. anaphylaxis

d. allergy

a. autoimmune disease

Hypersensitivity that appears 24-48 hours after exposure to an antigen is called:

a. hypersplenism

b. immediate hypersensitivity

c. delayed hypersensitivity

d. lymphedema

c. delayed hypersensitivity

Hypersensitivity such as food allergies and bee sting allergies are called

a. hypersplenism

b. immediate hypersensitivity

c. delayed hypersensitivity

d. lymphedema

b. immediate hypersensitivity

Cander identified by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells is called

a. malignant thymoma

b. Hodgkin’s lymphoma

c. non-Hidkin’s lynphoma

d. multiple mystoma

b. Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A cancer of plasma cells is called:

a. malignant thymoma

b. AML

c. multiple myeloma

d. CML

c. multiple myeloma

Afferent nerves are also called

a. motor nerves

b. peripheral nerves

c. interneurons

d. sensory nerves

d. sensory nerves

The basic unit of the nervous sytem is the nerve cell or

a, neuroglia

b. neuron

c. Schwann cell

d. nuerotransmitter

What structure that slows the passage or prevents some drugs and disease-causing organisms from entering the brain tissue ?

a. Nerve root

b. Canuda equina

c, Meninges

d. Blood-brain barrier

d. Blood-brain barrier

What is the sudden increase of electrical activity in one or more parts of the brain, also called convulsions ?

a. Seizures

b. Syncope

c. Spasms

d. Tremors

A synonym for ALS is:

a. Alzheimer’s disease

b. Lou Gehrig disease

c. Bell’s palsy

d. MS

A nuerological disorder that causes tics is:

a. epilepsy

b. narcolepsy

c. Bell’s palsy

d. Tourette syndrome

d. Tourette syndrome

Paralyssi of the same or all of the trunk, legs, and pelvic organs is

a. hemiplegia

b. hemiparesis

c. diplegia

d. paraplegia

d. paraplegia

What is a disorder in which the individual is unable to do normal activities of living (e.g. eating, dressing, grooming) solve problems, and control emotions ?

a. Delirium

b. Dementia

c. Defense mechanism

d. Autism

b. Dementia

What is important to tell the patient when providing coaching on EEG preparation ?

a. Wash hair the evening or morning before the procedure and do not use any hair cars products

b. Avoid consuming caffeine for 2 days priot to the procedure

c. The technician will apply 10-12 electrodes to the scalp

d. The test will take 15-30 minutes

a. Wash hair the evening or morning before the procedure and do not use any hair cars products

The amygada is found in each ____ lobe and is involved with the limbic system

a. frontal

b. temporal

c. occipital

d. parietal

b. temporal

Aort/o

aorta

Arteriolol/o

arteriole

Angi/o

vessel

Cadi/o

heart

Coron/o

heart

An/o

anus

Cholesyst/o

gallbladder

esophag/o

esophagus

pancreat/o

pancreas

stomat/o

mouth

adren/o

adrenal gland

hypophys/o

pitulitary gland

pancreat/o

pancrease

colp/o

vagina

metri/o

uterus

o/o

egg

oophor/o

ovary

salping/o

fallopian tube

lymph/o

lymph fluid

lymphangia/o

lymph vessel

balan/o

penis

orch/o

testis

prostat/o

prostrate gland

arth/o

joint

chondr/o

cartilage

crani/o

skull

ligament/o

ligament

my/o

muscle

oste/o

bone