West Coast EMT Block 2 Exam

A 30-year-old male was rescued after being lost in the woods for approximately 18 hours. The outside temperature is 30°F (-1°C). He is immediately placed in the warmed ambulance, where you perform a primary assessment. He is unresponsive, pale, and apneic. You should:

Select one:

A. assess for a carotid pulse for up to 60 seconds.

B. apply chemical heat packs to his groin and axillae.

C. apply an AED and assess his cardiac rhythm.

D. open his airway and give two rescue breaths.

A. assess for a carotid pulse for up to 60 seconds.

Drowning is MOST accurately defined as:

Select one:

A. water in the lungs following submersion in water.

B. death beyond 24 hours after submersion in water.

C. temporary survival after submersion in water.

D. death from suffocation after submersion in water.

D. death from suffocation after submersion in water.

Hypothermia occurs when the core body temperature falls below:

Select one:

A. 88°F (31°C).

B. 98°F (37°C).

C. 95°F (35°C).

D. 90°F (32°C).

C. 95°F (35°C).

The EMT must assume that any unwitnessed water-related incident is accompanied by:

Select one:

A. cold-water immersion.

B. an air embolism.

C. alcohol intoxication.

D. possible spinal injury.

D. possible spinal injury.

The MOST prominent symptom of decompression sickness is:

Select one:

A. abdominal or joint pain.

B. difficulty with vision.

C. tightness in the chest.

D. dizziness and nausea.

A. abdominal or joint pain.

The venom of a black widow spider is toxic to the:

Select one:

A. cardiovascular system.

B. renal system.

C. respiratory system.

D. nervous system.

D. nervous system.

Which of the following MOST accurately describes hyperthermia?

Select one:

A. Heat evaporates a significant amount of body water.

B. The body eliminates more heat than it can generate.

C. The core body temperature exceeds 99.5°F (37°C).

D. The body is exposed to more heat than it can lose.

D. The body is exposed to more heat than it can lose.

You and your partner respond to a park where several people were reportedly struck by lightning. When you arrive, you find three patients. The first patient is lying supine on the ground; he is unresponsive and does not appear to be breathing. The second patient is ambulatory, appears confused, and is holding his arm against his chest. The third patient is sitting on the ground holding the sides of his head. After calling for backup, you should:

Select one:

A. assess the unresponsive patient's pulse, begin CPR starting with chest compressions if he is pulseless, and attach the AED as soon as possible.

B. immediately begin CPR on the unresponsive patient, but cease resuscitation efforts if there is no response after 5 minutes of treatment.

C. focus your initial treatment efforts on the patients who are conscious because the unresponsive patient is likely in irreversible cardiac arrest.

D. recognize that the patients who are conscious are at high risk for developing cardiac arrest and quickly assess them for potentially life-threatening injuries.

A. assess the unresponsive patient's pulse, begin CPR starting with chest compressions if he is pulseless, and attach the AED as soon as possible.

You receive a call to a residence for a sick patient. Upon your arrival, you find the patient, a 53-year-old diabetic male, lying down on his front porch. His wife tells you that he had been mowing the lawn in the heat for the past 3 hours. The patient is confused and has hot, moist skin. His pulse is weak and thready, and his blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg. You should:

Select one:

A. administer one tube of oral glucose and reassess his mental status.

B. perform a head-to-toe assessment and look for signs of trauma.

C. place him in a sitting position and have him drink 1 L of water.

D. load him into the ambulance and begin rapid cooling interventions.

D. load him into the ambulance and begin rapid cooling interventions.

You respond to a local lake where a diver complains of difficulty breathing that occurred immediately after rapidly ascending from a depth of approximately 30 feet. On assessment, you note that he has cyanosis around his lips and has pink froth coming from his nose and mouth. You should:

Select one:

A. suction his mouth and nose, keep him supine and elevate his legs to prevent air bubbles from entering his brain, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport to a hyperbaric chamber.

B. place him in a semi-sitting position, suction his mouth and nose, apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device, and transport to the closest emergency department.

C. suction his mouth and nose, apply high-flow oxygen, monitor the patient's breath sounds for a pneumothorax, and contact medical control regarding transport to a recompression facility.

D. position him supine with his head elevated 30°, suction his mouth and nose, hyperventilate him with a bag-valve mask, and contact medical control for further guidance.

C. suction his mouth and nose, apply high-flow oxygen, monitor the patient's breath sounds for a pneumothorax, and contact medical control regarding transport to a recompression facility.

Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test, which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that:

Select one:

A. the disease is dormant in your body, but will probably never cause symptoms.

B. you are actively infected with tuberculosis and should be treated immediately.

C. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient.

D. you contracted the disease by casual contact instead of exposure to secretions.

C. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient.

After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to:

Select one:

A. contact medical control.

B. notify law enforcement.

C. quickly access the patient.

D. take standard precautions.

D. take standard precautions.

An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as:

Select one:

A. any disease that enters the body via the bloodstream and renders the immune system nonfunctional.

B. the invasion of the human body by a bacterium that cannot be destroyed by antibiotics or other drugs.

C. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body.

D. a disease that can be spread from one person or species to another through a number of mechanisms.

C. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body.

Assessment of the medical patient is usually focused on the _________.

Select one:

A. nature of illness

B. field diagnosis

C. associated symptoms

D. medical history

A. nature of illness

Hepatitis B is more virulent than hepatitis C, which means that it:

Select one:

A. is a more contagious type of disease.

B. has a greater ability to produce disease.

C. leads to chronic infection after exposure.

D. is less resistant to treatment.

B. has a greater ability to produce disease.

In 2009, the H1N1 virus accounted for over 200,000 deaths worldwide in the form of the swine flu. In 1919, a similar outbreak of the H1N1 occurred in the form of the Spanish flu. Starting in Kansas City, the virus spread rapidly worldwide, claiming up to 50 million lives. These are both examples of:

Select one:

A. epidemics.

B. parasitic infection.

C. uncontrolled outbreaks.

D. pandemics.

D. pandemics.

In which of the following situations would it be MOST appropriate to utilize an air medical transportation service?

Select one:

A. 29-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant, has light vaginal bleeding, and stable vital signs

B. 50-year-old conscious woman with severe nausea and vomiting, fever, and chills of 3 days' duration

C. 43-year-old man experiencing a heart attack, and the closest appropriate hospital is 15 minutes away

D. 61-year-old man with signs and symptoms of a stroke and a ground transport time of 50 minutes

D. 61-year-old man with signs and symptoms of a stroke and a ground transport time of 50 minutes

It is especially important to assess pulse, sensation, and movement in all extremities as well as pupillary reactions in patients with a suspected ___________ problem.

Select one:

A. endocrine

B. respiratory

C. cardiac

D. neurologic

D. neurologic

Most patients with an infectious disease will have _________.

Select one:

A. a low blood glucose level

B. abdominal pain

C. seizures

D. a fever

D. a fever

Most treatments provided in the prehospital setting are intended to _________.

Select one:

A. reduce the need for transport to the hospital

B. confirm the patient's diagnosis

C. address the patient's symptoms

D. correct the patient's underlying problem

C. address the patient's symptoms

The BEST way to prevent infection from whooping cough is to:

Select one:

A. routinely place a surgical mask on all respiratory patients.

B. ask all patients if they have recently traveled abroad.

C. get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis.

D. wear a HEPA mask when treating any respiratory patient.

C. get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis.

The determination of whether a medical patient is a high-priority or low-priority transport is typically made:

Select one:

A. as soon as the patient voices his or her chief complaint.

B. after the primary assessment has been completed.

C. upon completion of a detailed secondary assessment.

D. once the patient's baseline vital signs are known.

B. after the primary assessment has been completed.

When assessing a patient with a medical complaint, which of the following would MOST likely reveal the cause of the problem?

Select one:

A. Baseline vital signs

B. Index of suspicion

C. Medical history

D. Primary assessment

C. Medical history

When caring for a patient with an altered mental status and signs of circulatory compromise, you should:

Select one:

A. perform a detailed secondary assessment prior to transporting the patient.

B. have a paramedic unit respond to the scene if it is less than 15 minutes away.

C. limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible.

D. transport immediately and begin all emergency treatment en route to the hospital.

C. limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible.

When forming your general impression of a patient with a medical complaint, it is important to remember that:

Select one:

A. most serious medical conditions do not present with obvious symptoms.

B. it is during the general impression that assessment of the ABCs occurs.

C. the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first.

D. the majority of medical patients you encounter are also injured.

C. the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first.

Which of the following conditions is NOT categorized as a psychiatric condition?

Select one:

A. Alzheimer disease

B. Depression

C. Schizophrenia

D. Substance abuse

D. Substance abuse

Which of the following is bacterium resistant to most antibiotics and causes skin abscesses?

Select one:

A. Whooping cough

B. MRSA

C. H1N1

D. Avian flu

B. MRSA

Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for complications caused by the influenza virus?

Select one:

A. 50-year-old woman moderate obesity

B. 68-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes

C. 12-year-old child with a fractured arm

D. 39-year-old man with mild hypertension

B. 68-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes

You and your EMT partner arrive at the residence of a 50-year-old man who complains of weakness. Your primary assessment reveals that he is critically ill and will require aggressive treatment. The closest hospital is 25 miles away. You should:

Select one:

A. administer oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and obtain as much of his medical history as possible.

B. manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider requesting an ALS unit.

C. load him into the ambulance, begin transport, and perform all treatment en route to the hospital.

D. perform a detailed secondary assessment, assess his vital signs, and then transport rapidly.

B. manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider requesting an ALS unit.

You are attending to a 27-year-old male driver of a car. According to his passenger, the patient had been acting strangely while driving, then slumped forward against the steering wheel, apparently unconscious. The car drove off the road and struck a telephone pole. The patient remains unconscious, and physical assessment reveals only a large hematoma on his right forehead with no other physical signs. Your patient is a diabetic who had been under a lot of stress lately and may have missed meals. This is an example of a:

Select one:

A. combination of a psychiatric and trauma emergency.

B. medical emergency.

C. trauma emergency.

D. combination of a medical and trauma emergency.

D. combination of a medical and trauma emergency.

"PASTE" is an alternate assessment tool for ___________.

Select one:

A. respiratory patients

B. seizure patients

C. stroke patients

D. cardiac patients

A. respiratory patients

A 30-year-old male presents with acute shortness of breath, widespread hives, and facial swelling. He denies any past medical history and takes no medications. During your assessment, you hear wheezing over all the lung fields. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to giving him high-flow oxygen, the MOST important treatment for this patient is:

Select one:

A. epinephrine.

B. a beta-antagonist.

C. albuterol.

D. an antihistamine.

A. epinephrine.

A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's condition?

Select one:

A. Spontaneous pneumothorax

B. Exacerbation of his COPD

C. Acute pulmonary embolism

D. Rupture of the diaphragm

A. Spontaneous pneumothorax

A pleural effusion is MOST accurately defined as:

Select one:

A. fluid accumulation outside the lung.

B. diffuse collapsing of the alveoli.

C. a unilaterally collapsed lung.

D. a bacterial infection of the lung tissue.

A. fluid accumulation outside the lung.

Asthma is caused by a response of the:

Select one:

A. immune system.

B. cardiovascular system.

C. endocrine system.

D. respiratory system.

A. immune system.

Crackles (rales) are caused by _________.

Select one:

A. severe bronchoconstriction

B. mucus in the larger airways

C. narrowing of the upper airways

D. air passing through fluid

D. air passing through fluid

His parents tell you that their son has had a chest infection for the past two days and when they took him to their family doctor, they were told it was likely due to the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). They have kept him well hydrated, but the infection seems to have gotten worse. On auscultation, you hear decreased air entry bilaterally with fine expiratory wheezes and the occasional coarse wet crackle. Based on this information, your patient is most likely suffering from:

Select one:

A. pertussis.

B. epiglottitis.

C. croup.

D. bronchiolitis.

D. bronchiolitis.

In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur:

Select one:

A. the percentage of inhaled carbon dioxide must exceed the percentage of inhaled oxygen.

B. there must be low quantities of pulmonary surfactant to allow for full alveolar expansion.

C. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.

D. the pulmonary capillaries must be completely constricted and the alveoli must be collapsed.

C. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.

In what area of the lungs does respiration occur?

Select one:

A. Alveoli

B. Bronchi

C. Trachea

D. Capillaries

A. Alveoli

Treatment with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) would MOST likely be contraindicated in which of the following situations?

Select one:

A. Pulmonary edema, history of hypertension, and anxiety

B. Difficulty breathing, two-word dyspnea, and tachycardia

C. Conscious and alert patient with an oxygen saturation of 85%

D. Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg

D. Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg

When auscultating the lungs of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear adventitious sounds. This means that the patient has:

Select one:

A. abnormal breath sounds.

B. diminished breath sounds.

C. normal breath sounds.

D. an absence of breath sounds.

A. abnormal breath sounds.

Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to result in hypoxia?

Select one:

A. Pleural effusion

B. Severe anxiety

C. Pulmonary edema

D. Narcotic overdose

B. Severe anxiety

Which of the following is a genetic disorder that predisposes the patient to repeated lung infections?

Select one:

A. Multiple sclerosis

B. Severe acute respiratory syndrome

C. Cystic fibrosis

D. Celiac sprue

C. Cystic fibrosis

Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing?

Select one:

A. 22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis

B. 20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor

C. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin

D. 30 breaths/min with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin

C. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin

Which of the following must be assessed in every respiratory patient?

Select one:

A. Orthostatic vital signs

B. Lung sounds

C. Blood glucose levels

D. Distal pulse, motor, sensation

B. Lung sounds

While auscultating an elderly woman's breath sounds, you hear low-pitched "rattling" sounds at the bases of both of her lungs. This finding is MOST consistent with which of the following conditions?

Select one:

A. Aspiration pneumonia

B. Widespread atelectasis

C. Early pulmonary edema

D. Acute asthma attack

A. Aspiration pneumonia

You are assisting an asthma patient with his prescribed metered-dose inhaler. After the patient takes a deep breath and depresses the inhaler, you should:

Select one:

A. advise him to exhale forcefully to ensure medication absorption.

B. allow him to breathe room air and assess his oxygen saturation.

C. instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can.

D. immediately reapply the oxygen mask and reassess his condition.

C. instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can.

You are attending to a 3-year-old male patient who is presenting with severe shortness of breath. His parents report that he has had a cough and cold with a low grade fever for the past two days. They became worried today, as his level of distress has increased dramatically. On assessment, the patient is sitting upright and making high-pitched noises with each breath. Based on this information, the patient is most likely suffering from:

Select one:

A. bacterial infection of the epiglottis.

B. viral infection of the upper respiratory tract.

C. inflammation of the bronchioles.

D. inflammation of the lower respiratory tract and bronchospasm.

B. viral infection of the upper respiratory tract.

You are attending to a 54-year-old female patient in a homeless shelter. The patient tells you that she had the flu a couple of weeks ago, and she has not gotten over it. She has been tired and keeps waking up at night, sweating. She has been coughing up green sputum occasionally and has been experiencing episodes of chest pain that get worse when she breathes. Based on this information, your patient is most likely suffering from:

Select one:

A. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

B. tuberculosis.

C. pneumonia.

D. influenza Type A.

B. tuberculosis.

Your patient has a chronic respiratory condition. His stimulus to breathe is triggered by low oxygen levels in the blood. This is known as the ___________.

Select one:

A. alternate drive

B. CO2 drive

C. hypoxic drive

D. COPD drive

C. hypoxic drive

A 49-year-old male presents with an acute onset of crushing chest pain and diaphoresis. You should:

Select one:

A. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin.

B. administer up to 324 mg of baby aspirin.

C. obtain vital signs and a SAMPLE history.

D. assess the adequacy of his respirations.

D. assess the adequacy of his respirations.

A 66-year-old female with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with substernal chest pressure of 2 hours' duration. Her blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and irregular, her respirations are 22 breaths/min, and her oxygen saturation is 92%. The patient does not have prescribed nitroglycerin, but her husband does. You should:

Select one:

A. give her one nitroglycerin and reassess her systolic blood pressure.

B. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further.

C. obtain a SAMPLE history and contact medical control for advice.

D. give her high-flow oxygen, attach the AED, and transport at once.

B. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further.

A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when:

Select one:

A. a weakened area develops in the aortic wall.

B. the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding.

C. the inner layers of the aorta become separated.

D. all layers of the aorta suddenly contract.

C. the inner layers of the aorta become separated.

A patient in cardiac arrest is wearing an external defibrillator vest, which is interfering with effective chest compressions. The EMT should:

Select one:

A. perform ventilations only and allow the vest device to defibrillate.

B. remove the battery from the monitor and then remove the vest.

C. leave the battery attached to the monitor and remove the vest.

D. remove the battery from the monitor and leave the vest in place.

B. remove the battery from the monitor and then remove the vest.

A patient tells you that he has a left ventricular assist device (LVAD). Which of the following conditions should you suspect that he has experienced?

Select one:

A. Thoracic aortic aneurysm

B. Acute myocardial infarction

C. Uncontrolled hypertension

D. Obstructive lung disease

B. Acute myocardial infarction

A patient with atherosclerotic heart disease experiences chest pain during exertion because:

Select one:

A. the ragged edge of a tear in the coronary artery lumen causes local blood clotting and arterial narrowing.

B. tissues of the myocardium undergo necrosis secondary to a prolonged absence of oxygen.

C. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow.

D. the coronary arteries suddenly spasm and cause a marked reduction in myocardial blood flow.

C. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow.

After the AED has delivered a shock, the EMT should:

Select one:

A. transport the patient at once.

B. assess for a carotid pulse.

C. immediately resume CPR.

D. re-analyze the cardiac rhythm.

C. immediately resume CPR.

Angina pectoris occurs when:

Select one:

A. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply.

B. a coronary artery is totally occluded by plaque.

C. myocardial oxygen supply exceeds the demand.

D. one or more coronary arteries suddenly spasm.

A. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply.

Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the:

Select one:

A. left ventricle.

B. right atrium.

C. right ventricle.

D. left atrium.

B. right atrium.

Most AEDs are set up to adjust the voltage based on the impedance, which is the:

Select one:

A. distance between the two AED pads on the chest.

B. direction that the electrical flow takes in the body.

C. actual amount of energy that the AED will deliver.

D. resistance of the body to the flow of electricity.

D. resistance of the body to the flow of electricity.

Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients:

Select one:

A. who have taken up to two doses.

B. who have experienced a head injury.

C. with a systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg.

D. with a history of an ischemic stroke.

B. who have experienced a head injury.

Prior to attaching the AED to a cardiac arrest patient, the EMT should:

Select one:

A. assess for a pulse for 20 seconds.

B. contact medical control.

C. dry the chest if it is wet.

D. perform CPR for 30 seconds.

C. dry the chest if it is wet.

Risk factors for AMI that cannot be controlled include:

Select one:

A. family history.

B. lack of exercise.

C. hyperglycemia.

D. excess stress.

A. family history.

Signs and symptoms of a hypertensive emergency would MOST likely be delayed in patients who:

Select one:

A. are older than 40 years of age.

B. regularly take illegal drugs.

C. have chronic hypertension.

D. have had a stroke in the past.

C. have chronic hypertension.

The electrical impulse generated by the heart originates in the:

Select one:

A. atrioventricular node.

B. bundle of His.

C. sinoatrial node.

D. coronary sinus.

C. sinoatrial node.

The EMT should use an AED on a child between 1 month and 8 years of age if:

Select one:

A. special pads are used and the child has profound tachycardia.

B. his or her condition is rapidly progressing to cardiac arrest.

C. pediatric pads and an energy-reducing device are available.

D. he or she is not breathing and has a weakly palpable pulse.

C. pediatric pads and an energy-reducing device are available.

When preparing to obtain a 12-lead ECG, the "LL" and "RL" electrodes should be placed:

Select one:

A. anywhere on the arms.

B. on either side of the chest.

C. on the thighs or ankles.

D. on the lower abdomen.

C. on the thighs or ankles.

Which of the following is NOT a common sign or symptom associated with malfunction of an implanted cardiac pacemaker?

Select one:

A. Generalized weakness

B. A rapid heart rate

C. Syncope or dizziness

D. Heart rate less than 60 beats/min

B. A rapid heart rate

Which of the following signs is commonly observed in patients with right-sided heart failure?

Select one:

A. Labored breathing

B. Dependent edema

C. Pulmonary edema

D. Flat jugular veins

B. Dependent edema

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a middle-aged man who collapsed about 5 minutes ago. He is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. Bystanders are present, but have not provided any care. You should:

Select one:

A. perform two-rescuer CPR for 5 minutes and request ALS backup.

B. have your partner perform CPR while you question the bystanders.

C. immediately apply the AED pads and analyze his cardiac rhythm.

D. begin high-quality CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible.

D. begin high-quality CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible.

A 20-year-old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a blood-soaked towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly. You should:

Select one:

A. administer high-flow supplemental oxygen.

B. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist.

C. apply pressure to the brachial artery.

D. wrap the towel with pressure bandages.

B. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist.

A 25-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her chest when her car hit a tree while traveling at a high rate of speed. She has signs and symptoms of shock, which you suspect are the result of intrathoracic bleeding. Which of the following interventions will provide this patient with the greatest chance for survival?

Select one:

A. High-flow oxygen administration

B. Rapid transport to a trauma center

C. Full immobilization of her spine

D. Intravenous fluid administration

B. Rapid transport to a trauma center

As you approach a patient lying at the side of the roadway, you observe severe bleeding from the leg. What should your first action be?

Select one:

A. Check for a pulse.

B. Control the bleeding.

C. Administer oxygen.

D. Open the airway.

B. Control the bleeding.

Distributive shock occurs when:

Select one:

A. severe bleeding causes tachycardia in order to distribute blood to the organs faster.

B. an injury causes restriction of the heart muscle and impairs its pumping function.

C. temporary but severe vasodilation causes a decrease in blood supply to the brain.

D. widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds.

D. widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds.

Foods, medications, and insects are common causes of ________.

Select one:

A. anaphylactic shock

B. septic shock

C. neurogenic shock

D. psychogenic shock

A. anaphylactic shock

Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of:

Select one:

A. plasma.

B. platelets.

C. whole blood.

D. red blood cells.

A. plasma.

In an acute injury setting, neurogenic shock is commonly accompanied by:

Select one:

A. tachycardia.

B. hypovolemia.

C. diaphoresis.

D. hypothermia.

D. hypothermia.

Inadequate circulation of blood throughout the body is called ________.

Select one:

A. perfusion

B. hypoxia

C. hypotension

D. shock

D. shock

Pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during:

Select one:

A. septic shock.

B. neurogenic shock.

C. cardiogenic shock.

D. anaphylactic shock.

C. cardiogenic shock.

Shock due to severe infection is called ________.

Select one:

A. anaphylactic shock

B. septic shock

C. hypovolemic shock

D. neurogenic shock

B. septic shock

To protect vital organs, the body compensates by directing blood flow away from organs that are more tolerant of low flow, such as:

Select one:

A. the lungs.

B. the brain.

C. the skin.

D. the heart.

C. the skin.

What are the three components of the "perfusion triangle"?

Select one:

A. Heart, blood vessels, blood

B. Plasma, red blood cells, platelets

C. Heart, brain, lungs

D. Arteries, veins, capillaries

A. Heart, blood vessels, blood

When assessing a patient with signs and symptoms of shock, it is important to remember that:

Select one:

A. irreversible shock often responds well to a prompt blood transfusion.

B. multiple fractures are the most common cause of hypovolemic shock.

C. blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock.

D. the patient's respirations are deep during the early stages of shock.

C. blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock.

When should nonlifesaving interventions be performed for your multisystem trauma patient?

Select one:

A. En route to the hospital

B. During the primary assessment

C. Prior to transport

D. Immediately after the injuries are discovered

A. En route to the hospital

When treating an 80-year-old patient who is in shock, it is important to remember that:

Select one:

A. the older patient's central nervous system usually reacts more briskly to compensate for shock.

B. medications older patients take for hypertension often cause an unusually fast heart rate.

C. changes in gastric motility may delay gastric emptying, which increases the risk for vomiting.

D. compensation from the respiratory system usually manifests with increased tidal volume.

C. changes in gastric motility may delay gastric emptying, which increases the risk for vomiting.

Which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause obstructive shock?

Select one:

A. Spinal cord injury

B. Simple pneumothorax

C. Liver laceration

D. Cardiac tamponade

D. Cardiac tamponade

Which of the following is the ONLY action that can prevent eventual death from a tension pneumothorax?

Select one:

A. Early administration of high-flow oxygen

B. Rapid administration of intravenous fluids

C. Decompression of the injured side of the chest

D. Positive-pressure ventilation with a bag-valve mask

C. Decompression of the injured side of the chest

You suspect your patient is in shock. You note the patient's skin is pale. This is likely due to ___________.

Select one:

A. an increased heart rate

B. peripheral vasoconstriction

C. peripheral vasodilation

D. hypothermia

B. peripheral vasoconstriction

Your patient has a decreased cardiac output and poor myocardial contractility. This will likely lead to ___________.

Select one:

A. neurogenic shock

B. cardiogenic shock

C. hypovolemic shock

D. septic shock

B. cardiogenic shock

Your patient is in shock, but the body's defense mechanisms are currently able to maintain adequate circulation. This is called ___________.

Select one:

A. irreversible shock

B. compensated shock

C. decompensated shock

D. late shock

B. compensated shock

A 31-year-old female is experiencing an acute asthma attack. She is conscious and alert, but in obvious respiratory distress. After assisting her with her prescribed MDI, you should:

Select one:

A. administer another treatment in 30 seconds if she is still in distress.

B. contact medical control and apprise him or her of what you did.

C. check the drug's expiration date to ensure that it is still current.

D. reassess the patient and document her response to the medication.

D. reassess the patient and document her response to the medication.

A 62-year-old male is seen with crushing chest pain, which he describes as being the same kind of pain that he had with a previous heart attack. He has prescribed nitroglycerin but states that he has not taken any. After administering supplemental oxygen if needed and contacting medical control, you should:

Select one:

A. administer the nitroglycerin unless he has taken Viagra within the past 72 hours.

B. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin before assessing his blood pressure.

C. begin immediate transport and request a rendezvous with a paramedic unit.

D. assist him with his nitroglycerin unless his systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg.

D. assist him with his nitroglycerin unless his systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg.

Activated charcoal is an example of a(n):

Select one:

A. suspension.

B. elixir.

C. gel.

D. solution.

A. suspension.

Advil, Nuprin, and Motrin are trade names for the generic medication:

Select one:

A. ibuprofen.

B. acetaminophen.

C. aspirin.

D. nitrostat.

Select one:

A. ibuprofen.

After taking diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for an allergic reaction, a person begins experiencing drowsiness and a dry mouth. These findings are an example of a(n):

Select one:

A. side effect.

B. therapeutic effect.

C. unpredictable effect.

D. untoward effect.

A. side effect.

In ___________ administration, you are administering medication to yourself or your partner.

Select one:

A. peer-assisted

B. patient-assisted

C. EMT-administered

D. paramedic-administered

A. peer-assisted

Medications encased in a gelatin shell that are taken by mouth are called:

Select one:

A. capsules.

B. caplets.

C. pills.

D. tablets.

A. capsules.

The amount of medication that is given is known as the _________.

Select one:

A. contraindication

B. indication

C. dose

D. side effect

C. dose

The process of binding or sticking to a surface is called:

Select one:

A. adsorption.

B. digestion.

C. suspension.

D. absorption.

A. adsorption.

The term "pharmacology" is MOST accurately defined as:

Select one:

A. the study of how medications affect the brain.

B. the study of drugs and their actions on the body.

C. the study of drug excretion from the human body.

D. the study of drugs that are produced illegally.

B. the study of drugs and their actions on the body.