Musculoskeletal & Connective-Tissue Disorders – Master Flashcards

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Flashcards cover key diagnostic criteria, antibodies, treatments, physical signs, imaging findings, red-flags, and disease associations across connective-tissue and musculoskeletal disorders.

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94 Terms

1
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What autoantibody is highly sensitive but not specific for Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?

Antinuclear antibody (ANA)

2
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Name two autoantibodies that are highly specific for SLE.

Anti-dsDNA and anti-Smith (anti-Sm) antibodies

3
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Which form of lupus is limited to the skin and often causes scarring lesions?

Discoid Lupus Erythematosus (DLE)

4
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Which lupus subtype presents with annular, non-scarring lesions that worsen with sun exposure?

Subacute Cutaneous Lupus Erythematosus (SCLE)

5
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What antibody is characteristic of Drug-Induced Lupus?

Anti-histone antibody

6
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What is the most serious complication of Neonatal Lupus?

Congenital heart block

7
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First-line long-term, flare-preventive drug for SLE skin & joint disease?

Hydroxychloroquine

8
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SLE treatment used for refractory disease that targets B-cell survival factor BLyS?

Belimumab

9
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List any 4 clinical items from the 2012 SLICC SLE criteria.

Malar rash, discoid rash, photosensitivity, oral ulcers, arthritis, serositis, renal disorder, neurologic disorder, hematologic disorder, immunologic disorder, positive ANA (any 4)

10
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What complement levels are typically low during an SLE flare?

C3 and C4

11
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Which autoantibody is classically positive in Sjögren syndrome?

Anti-Ro (SSA) (often accompanied by Anti-La (SSB))

12
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Dry eyes + dry mouth + lymphocytic sialadenitis on lip biopsy: diagnosis?

Sjögren syndrome

13
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What antibody is associated with Diffuse cutaneous Systemic Sclerosis and predicts ILD?

Anti-Scl-70 (anti-topoisomerase I)

14
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Raynaud + sclerodactyly + telangiectasias + anti-centromere Ab: likely subtype?

Limited cutaneous Systemic Sclerosis (CREST)

15
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Which systemic sclerosis autoantibody predicts scleroderma renal crisis?

Anti-RNA polymerase III

16
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Key lung screening study for systemic sclerosis patients?

High-resolution CT (HRCT) of the chest plus PFTs

17
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Triad of Mixed Connective Tissue Disease (MCTD) clinical overlap + antibody?

Features of SLE, scleroderma, polymyositis; high-titer anti-U1-RNP

18
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Most common extra-articular lung complication in Rheumatoid Arthritis?

Interstitial lung disease / pulmonary fibrosis

19
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Classic triad of Felty’s syndrome in RA.

Rheumatoid arthritis, splenomegaly, neutropenia

20
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Antibody strongly associated with Antiphospholipid Syndrome lab diagnosis?

Lupus anticoagulant OR anticardiolipin OR anti-β2-glycoprotein I (any)

21
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What INR range is targeted for long-term warfarin therapy in APS?

INR 2.0 – 3.0

22
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HLA allele strongly linked to Ankylosing Spondylitis.

HLA-B27

23
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HLA allele associated with celiac disease (name either).

HLA-DQ2 or HLA-DQ8

24
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Name the genetic defect in Marfan syndrome.

Mutation in FBN1 gene encoding fibrillin-1

25
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Classic cardiac lesion requiring surveillance in Marfan patients.

Aortic root dilation / risk of dissection

26
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Most common life-threatening complication of Ehlers-Danlos vascular type (vEDS).

Arterial or organ rupture (esp. large arteries)

27
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Polymyalgia Rheumatica initial drug and dose range?

Low-dose prednisone 10–20 mg daily

28
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Elevated CK + proximal muscle weakness + anti-Jo-1 antibody: diagnosis?

Polymyositis (anti-synthetase syndrome if ILD also present)

29
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Inclusion Body Myositis weakness pattern hallmark?

Asymmetric weakness affecting finger flexors & quadriceps; poor steroid response

30
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CRP vs ESR: which rises and falls faster with acute inflammation?

CRP rises and falls faster

31
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Synovial fluid WBC > 50,000/µL with >90 % neutrophils suggests?

Septic arthritis

32
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Birefringence & crystal shape in gout under polarized light?

Needle-shaped, negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals

33
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Calcium pyrophosphate crystals birefringence & shape?

Rhomboid, weakly positively birefringent (pseudogout)

34
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Interpretation of fat globules in joint aspirate after trauma.

Lipohemarthrosis → intra-articular fracture

35
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First imaging for suspected osteoarthritis.

AP & lateral plain X-rays showing joint-space narrowing, osteophytes

36
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Key differentiating feature of RA vs OA on imaging.

RA shows symmetric erosions & periarticular osteopenia; OA shows osteophytes & joint-space narrowing without erosions

37
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Drug of choice for acute gout attack when no renal/GI contraindication.

NSAIDs (e.g., indomethacin)

38
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Target serum uric acid level for chronic gout prophylaxis.

< 6 mg/dL
39
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Mainstay treatment for polymyositis & dermatomyositis.

High-dose corticosteroids with steroid-sparing immunosuppressants (e.g., methotrexate)

40
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Best initial therapy for Raynaud phenomenon in systemic sclerosis.

Dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker (e.g., nifedipine)

41
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Cauda equina syndrome key red-flag symptoms (list 2).

Saddle anesthesia, new urinary retention or fecal incontinence, bilateral leg weakness

42
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Straight-leg-raise reproduces pain down below knee — diagnosis?

Lumbar radiculopathy (usually L4/L5 or L5/S1 disc herniation)

43
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Classic 'sunburst' periosteal pattern on X-ray suggests which bone tumor?

Osteosarcoma

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Most common benign bone tumor presenting as cartilage-capped bony outgrowth.

Osteochondroma

45
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Ewing sarcoma translocation chromosome abnormality?

t(11;22)(q24;q12) → EWSR1-FLI1 fusion

46
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Preferred imaging modality for early osteomyelitis.

MRI of affected bone

47
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Empiric IV antibiotics for septic arthritis of native joint in adults.

Vancomycin plus third-generation cephalosporin until cultures return

48
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Most common causative organism of osteomyelitis in sickle-cell disease.

Salmonella species

49
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What pediatric apophyseal overuse injury causes heel pain in active children?

Sever disease (calcaneal apophysitis)

50
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Knee pain at tibial tubercle in adolescent athletes = ____ disease.

Osgood-Schlatter disease

51
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Name two Ottawa ankle rule criteria that mandate ankle X-ray.

Bone tenderness at posterior edge/tip of either malleolus OR inability to bear weight immediately and in ED (4 steps)

52
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Compartment syndrome hallmark clinical finding.

Severe pain out of proportion, especially with passive stretch

53
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First step in suspected necrotizing fasciitis management.

Emergent broad-spectrum IV antibiotics and surgical consultation for debridement

54
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Classic radiographic feature of rickets at metaphysis.

Cupping and fraying of metaphyseal ends

55
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Bisphosphonate MOA used in osteoporosis.

Inhibit osteoclast-mediated bone resorption

56
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Humeral mid-shaft fracture risks injury to which nerve producing wrist drop?

Radial nerve

57
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Scapular winging after radical mastectomy indicates damage to which nerve?

Long thoracic nerve (serratus anterior)

58
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Positive Finkelstein test indicates which diagnosis?

De Quervain’s tenosynovitis

59
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Drop-arm test inability to slowly lower arm indicates tear of which tendon?

Supraspinatus

60
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Positive empty-can (Jobe) test localizes weakness to which rotator cuff muscle?

Supraspinatus muscle

61
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Bouchard nodes occur at which finger joints?

Proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints

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Heberden nodes occur at which finger joints?

Distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints

63
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Trendelenburg gait indicates weakness of which muscle and nerve?

Gluteus medius/minimus weakness (superior gluteal nerve)

64
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Gait pattern with high stepping due to foot drop is called?

Neuropathic (steppage) gait

65
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Most common site of osteoid osteoma.

Cortex of proximal femur or tibia

66
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Typical symptom relief characteristic of osteoid osteoma.

Night pain relieved by NSAIDs/aspirin

67
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What test is used in newborns to dislocate an unstable hip (DDH)?

Barlow maneuver

68
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What maneuver reduces a dislocated neonate hip?

Ortolani maneuver

69
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Greenstick fracture definition.

Incomplete fracture where one cortex breaks and the other bends

70
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Medial epicondyle apophysitis in young baseball pitchers is called ____ elbow.

Little League elbow

71
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Radiographic ‘onion-skin’ periosteal reaction in diaphysis of long bone indicates?

Ewing sarcoma

72
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Initial management of osteoarthritis pain when acetaminophen ineffective.

NSAIDs (topical or oral)

73
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Define pseudogout crystal appearance under light microscopy.

Rhomboid, positively birefringent calcium pyrophosphate

74
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Drug that lowers uric acid by inhibiting xanthine oxidase.

Allopurinol or febuxostat

75
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Mainstay prophylaxis during first 6 months of urate-lowering therapy.

Low-dose colchicine or NSAID

76
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Positive Phalen maneuver reproduces numbness in which fingers?

Thumb, index, middle, and radial half of ring finger (median nerve)

77
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Typical empiric antibiotics for human bite wound to hand.

Amoxicillin-clavulanate

78
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Treatment of choice for compartment syndrome.

Urgent fasciotomy

79
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What constitutes a positive Adson test?

Loss of radial pulse with head turned toward tested side and deep inspiration → thoracic outlet syndrome

80
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Anal wink reflex root level.

S2–S4

81
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Primary lab marker to track muscle injury severity in rhabdomyolysis.

Serum creatine kinase (CK)

82
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Neer impingement sign targets which tendon under acromion?

Supraspinatus tendon (subacromial impingement)

83
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Mainstay therapy for vertebral osteomyelitis due to MRSA.

6–8 weeks IV vancomycin plus possible surgical debridement

84
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Name any two red-flag features in low-back pain that warrant immediate imaging.

Age

85
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Bone scan isotope commonly used to detect skeletal metastasis.

Technetium-99m-labeled diphosphonate

86
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What does a T-score ≤ −2.5 on DEXA indicate?

Osteoporosis

87
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Earliest imaging change in Paget disease of bone.

Focal lytic lesion with cortical thickening on X-ray

88
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Child with heel pain after growth spurt, tenderness at posterior calcaneus; diagnosis?

Sever disease (calcaneal apophysitis)

89
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Foot drop nerve and root level.

Common peroneal (fibular) nerve, root L4–L5

90
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What pharmacologic class prevents bone resorption in osteoporosis by inducing osteoclast apoptosis?

Bisphosphonates

91
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Describe Murphy (McMurray) test purpose.

Assesses meniscal tear; pain/click with rotation during knee extension

92
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Tension of pelvic floor muscles causing chronic pelvic pain is termed?

Pelvic floor tension myalgia

93
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Best initial step in suspected acute septic arthritis of native knee.

Urgent arthrocentesis for Gram stain, culture, and cell count

94
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Osteogenesis Imperfecta Type I hallmark clinical triad.

Multiple childhood fractures, blue sclerae, hearing loss later in life