Mycology & Virology Practice Flashcards

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A set of practice flashcards covering key mycology and virology concepts, including fungal biology, diagnostic methods, dermatophyte morphology, systemic mycoses, and foundational virology topics.

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63 Terms

1
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What are the defining cellular and growth characteristics of fungi?

Eukaryotic, achlorophyllous organisms that obtain nourishment from the environment; generally obligate aerobes; cell walls contain chitin, glucans, and mannans; membranes contain ergosterol; require moisture for growth.

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What are the two main fungal forms and their typical growth temperatures?

Yeast (unicellular; reproduces by budding/fission; grows at 37°C) and Molds (multicellular; grows at 20–25°C).

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What do the terms monomorphic, dimorphic, and polymorphic mean in fungi?

Monomorphic: exists as yeast or mold only; Dimorphic: exists as yeast or mold; Polymorphic: can have both forms in the same culture (e.g., Exophiala).

4
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What is the fundamental unit of fungi and what is the mass composed of called?

Hyphae; a mass of hyphae is called mycelium.

5
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What is the difference between aseptate (coenocytic) and septated hyphae, and which group commonly lacks septa?

Aseptate hyphae lack cross walls; Septated hyphae have cross walls; Zygomycetes (Mucorales) commonly have aseptate hyphae.

6
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What are the two pigmentation categories of fungi and give examples?

Hyaline/moniliaceous (lightly pigmented; e.g., Aspergillus, Fusarium, Rhizopus) and Dematiaceous/Phaeoid (darkly pigmented; e.g., Alternaria, Bipolaris, Cladosporium, Phialophora).

7
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Name the major sexual and asexual spore types in fungi.

Sexual spores: asci (ascospores), basidia (basidiospores), zygospores, oospores. Asexual spores: arthroconidia, conidia (macroconidia, microconidia), blastoconidia, chlamydospores.

8
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What is a 'perfect' fungus?

A fungus that can undergo both sexual and asexual reproduction.

9
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What is an 'imperfect' fungus?

A fungus that undergoes only one mode of reproduction (sexual or asexual).

10
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Name the fungal phyla and representative genera as mentioned.

Zygomycota: Mucor, Absidia, Rhizopus; Ascomycota: Aspergillus, Saccharomyces, Histoplasma capsulatum; Basidiomycota: Cryptococcus neoformans; Deuteromycota (Fungi Imperfecti): Dermatophytes and Fusarium.

11
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Which stains are used for routine fungal microscopy and what is each used for?

KOH mounts (detect fungal elements in skin/hair/nails); Lactophenol Cotton Blue (permanent mounts); India ink (capsule of Cryptococcus neoformans); Calcofluor white (fluorescent staining for chitin); PAS and Gomori’s methenamine silver (tissues); Giemsa/Wright (historic fungal staining); Fontana Masson & H&E (special purposes); Acridine Orange (fluorescence).

12
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What is the purpose of Wood’s lamp in fungal diagnosis?

To detect fluorescence of certain dermatophytes; Microsporum canis shows yellow-green fluorescence; Microsporum audouinii shows apple-green fluorescence.

13
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What is the standard culture medium for routine fungal cultivation?

Sabouraud Dextrose Agar (SDA).

14
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What media is used specifically for dermatophytes that contains chloramphenicol and cycloheximide?

SDA with antibiotics, also called Mycobiotic/Mycosel.

15
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Which medium stimulates sporulation of Candida albicans in culture?

Corn Meal Agar (CMA).

16
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What medium is used to detect Cryptococcus neoformans pigment production?

Niger Seed (Bird Seed) medium.

17
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Which medium is used to assess pigment production for dermatophytes like Trichophyton rubrum?

Potato Dextrose Agar.

18
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Which medium is used to detect pigment production of Malassezia furfur?

Malt Extract Agar.

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What is the significance of 'Rice Medium' in dermatophyte testing?

Positive for Microsporum canis; negative for Microsporum audouinii.

20
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Describe the Microsporum canis and Microsporum audouinii macroconidia.

M. canis: spindle-shaped, large, multiseptate with knobby projections; M. audouinii: bizarre-shaped macroconidia.

21
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What fluorescence pattern is associated with Microsporum canis on Wood’s lamp?

Yellow-green fluorescence.

22
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What fluorescence pattern is associated with Microsporum audouinii on Wood’s lamp?

Apple-green fluorescence.

23
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How do you differentiate Microsporum canis from Microsporum audouinii using Rice Medium?

M. canis: Rice Medium positive; M. audouinii: Rice Medium negative.

24
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What are hair infection patterns for Trichophyton tonsurans and Trichophyton rubrum in terms of microconidia shapes?

T. tonsurans: microconidia globose in grape-like clusters; T. rubrum: tear-shaped or clavate microconidia laterally on hyphae.

25
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Which dermatophyte shows antler hyphae (Favic chandelier) morphology?

Trichophyton schoenleinii.

26
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What is the hair invasion pattern for Microsporum canis?

Not specified here; the note highlights “Birds on a fence” appearance for M. canis in one mnemonic; key distinguishing features include cat/dog reservoir and fluorescence, not a fixed hyphal pattern.

27
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Which organism causes Sporotrichosis and what is the yeast form at 37°C?

Sporothrix schenckii; cigar-shaped yeast.

28
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What is a hallmark of Chromoblastomycosis on histology?

Sclerotic (muriform) bodies, medlar bodies, copper penny–like cells.

29
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What causes Eumycotic Mycetoma and what characterizes it?

Caused by various fungi; tumor-like deformities of the affected area.

30
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What are key systemic mycoses caused by dimorphic fungi?

Blastomyces dermatitidis; Coccidioides immitis; Histoplasma capsulatum.

31
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What are the characteristic yeast forms for Blastomyces dermatitidis at 37°C?

Large yeast with a broad-based budding (the “lollipop” appearance).

32
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What organism is responsible for San Joaquin Valley Fever and what does its mold form produce?

Coccidioides immitis; thick-walled spherules with endospores; barrel-shaped arthroconidia in mold.

33
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Which dimorphic fungus is associated with Histoplasmosis and what is a key morphologic descriptor?

Histoplasma capsulatum; knobby/tuberculate macroconidia in the mold form.

34
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What is Mucorales’ hyphae characteristic?

Aseptate (coenocytic) hyphae.

35
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Which pathogens are commonly associated with mucormycosis (Zygomycota) and what is a key hyphal feature?

Mucor, Absidia, Rhizopus; aseptate hyphae; known as “lid lifters.”

36
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What family includes Cryptococcus neoformans and which test detects its capsule?

Cryptococcus neoformans belongs to Cryptococcaceae (in practice: Cryptococcus). India ink staining demonstrates the capsule; mucicarmine can also highlight the capsule.

37
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Which test is used to presumptively identify Candida albicans and what is its result?

Germ Tube Test; positive for Candida albicans (and C. dubliniensis).

38
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What is the significance of CHO (carbohydrate) assimilation testing in yeasts?

Determines which carbohydrates the organism can assimilate for growth; indicates metabolic capabilities.

39
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What antibiotics and agents are added to fungal media to suppress unwanted growth?

Chloramphenicol or gentamicin to prevent bacterial overgrowth; cycloheximide to prevent saprophytic fungi.

40
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What is the preferred specimen type and handling for fungal cultures?

Specimens should be processed ASAP; aseptic technique; avoid cotton swabs; some samples may be refrigerated briefly if processing is delayed (except dermatologic samples, blood, CSF).

41
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What is the basic approach to fungal diagnostics (order of tests)?

Specimen -> microscopy (KOH, stains) -> culture -> additional/differential tests (germ tube, CHO assimilation, etc.).

42
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What is the gold standard method for detecting fungal infections and typical incubation time?

Culture; fungi are slow growers; incubation typically 21–30 days at 25–30°C.

43
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What are the three major categories of fungal diagnostics listed?

Microscopy, culture, and additional differential tests (e.g., germ tube, biochemical tests).

44
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What is HIV’s virus family and a defining feature of this family?

Retroviridae; reverse transcriptase; integrate into host DNA; high mutation rates.

45
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Which virus family is the largest and has brick-shaped virions?

Poxviridae (e.g., Variola, Vaccinia); large, brick-shaped virions; enveloped.

46
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What is the common name for the virus that causes varicella and zoster (chickenpox and shingles) and its family?

Varicella-Zoster Virus (HHV-3); Herpesviridae.

47
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Which herpesvirus is most commonly associated with infectious mononucleosis and Burkitt’s lymphoma?

Epstein-Barr Virus (HHV-4; Lymphocryptovirus).

48
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Which herpesvirus is the major cause of CMV disease and is a TORCH agent?

Cytomegalovirus (HHV-5).

49
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Which virus is often detected by the 1-3 beta-D-glucan test as a general fungal marker?

1,3-beta-D-glucan assay (pan-fungal marker).

50
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What chromogenic test helps identify Candida species and what color indicates C. albicans on CHROMagar?

Chromogenic agar for Candida; C. albicans typically shows green colonies.

51
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What is the typical specimen collection guidance for respiratory viruses?

Aspirates or nasopharyngeal/oropharyngeal swabs; swabs better than tissues; collect during acute illness; store at 4°C if delayed.

52
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What receptor is commonly used by SARS-CoV-2 for host cell entry?

ACE2 (Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme 2).

53
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What is the recommended storage condition for viral specimens if processing is delayed beyond 5 days?

-70°C (or lower) to preserve viral integrity.

54
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What type of culture cells are used for viral culture (primary, diploid, continuous) and give an example of each?

Primary cells (e.g., PMK, AGMK); Diploid/PMK-like (HDF, HEF); Continuous cell lines (HeLa, Hep2, A549).

55
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Where do most DNA viruses replicate and which DNA virus family is the notable exception?

Most DNA viruses replicate in the nucleus; Poxviridae is the notable exception (replicates in the cytoplasm).

56
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Where do most RNA viruses replicate, and which two RNA virus groups replicate in the nucleus?

Most RNA viruses replicate in the cytoplasm; Retroviruses and Orthomyxoviruses replicate in the nucleus.

57
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What is the World Health Organization-reported test standard for SARS-CoV-2 confirmation?

RT-PCR for SARS-CoV-2 detection.

58
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Which organisms are known as opportunistic fungi commonly causing meningitis in AIDS patients?

Cryptococcus neoformans; also Aspergillus, Candida, Pneumocystis jirovecii (opportunistic infections listed).

59
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What is Negri body a diagnostic feature of?

Rabies virus (rabies inclusions in neurons).

60
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Which insect-borne viruses are classed under Flaviviridae, and what is a common test for dengue?

Flaviviridae; dengue virus (vector Aedes); NS1 antigen test is commonly used.

61
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What is the classic histological appearance for Histoplasma capsulatum in tissue?

Knobby, tuberculate macroconidia in mold form; yeast forms in tissue within macrophages (Darling’s disease).

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Which genus is associated with 'flowerette' conidia arrangement at room temperature and cigar-shaped yeast at 37°C?

Sporothrix schenckii (sporotrichosis).

63
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What is the cornerstone test for diagnosing cryptococcal meningitis in CSF or serum?

Cryptococcal antigen testing and India ink staining of CSF; latex agglutination can also be used.