Final Exam

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180 Terms

1
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What hormone is responsible for calcium resorption?

Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

2
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What condition can occur post-thyroidectomy due to parathyroid removal or atrophy?

Hypocalcemia

3
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What is Chvostek's sign?

Cheek tapping that leads to twitching in patients with hypocalcemia

4
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What is Trousseau's sign?

Carpopedal spasms when a blood pressure cuff is inflated above systolic pressure for 3 minutes in a hypocalcemic patient

5
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What are the normal sodium levels?

135-145 mEq/L

6
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What conditions can cause fluid shifts between ICF and ECF?

Hyponatremia and hypernatremia

7
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Why is sodium imbalance dangerous?

It can cause fluid shifts affecting the brain

8
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What is a key nursing intervention for sodium imbalance?

Initiate seizure precautions

9
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What are normal potassium levels?

3.5-5 mEq/L

10
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What is a major cause of hyperkalemia?

Renal failure

11
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What are additional causes of hyperkalemia?

Overreplacement, cell damage, acidosis, and use of spironolactone

12
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What are causes of hypokalemia?

Diuretics (Thiazide and Loop), laxatives, NG tube drainage, poor intake, renal loss, GI loss, insulin administration, and alkalosis

13
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What ECG changes are seen in hyperkalemia?

Peaked T waves, prolonged QRS, flattened P waves, blocks, PVCs, and arrhythmias

14
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What ECG changes are seen in hypokalemia?

Flattened T waves, peaked P waves, PVCs, and arrhythmias

15
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What is a crucial intervention in both hypo- and hyperkalemia?

Obtain ECG/EKG and report to MD/physician

16
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Why does renal failure lead to hyperkalemia?

Because potassium is not adequately excreted through the kidneys

17
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What do gallstones indicate?

Cholelithiasis

18
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How can patients with gallstones manage symptoms?

Lifestyle modifications such as reducing fat intake

19
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Which hepatitis types have vaccines?

Hepatitis A (HAV) and Hepatitis B (HBV)

20
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Which hepatitis types can become chronic?

Hepatitis B (HBV), C (HCV), and D (HDV, only if HBV is present)

21
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Is Hepatitis A acute or chronic?

Acute only

22
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How is Hepatitis A transmitted?

Fecal-oral route

23
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What is the vaccine schedule for Hepatitis A?

2 shots — 1st shot before travel, 2nd shot after 6 months

24
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What is the post-exposure treatment for Hepatitis A?

Immune globulin (IVIG) within 2 weeks if unvaccinated

25
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When are children recommended to get the Hepatitis A vaccine?

1-2 years old with second dose in 6 months

26
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Is Hepatitis B acute or chronic?

Both acute and chronic

27
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What are modes of transmission for Hepatitis B?

Blood and body fluids

- Sharing needles

- Sexual contact (semen, vaginal fluids)

- Perinatal (mother to baby at birth)

- Mucosal exposure (e.g., open wounds)

28
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What is the Hepatitis B vaccine schedule?

3 doses at 0, 1 month, and 6 months

29
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What is Twinrix?

A combination vaccine for Hepatitis A & B

30
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Is there a vaccine for Hepatitis C?

No

31
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Can Hepatitis C become chronic?

Yes — can lead to liver damage

32
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What are the transmission routes for Hepatitis C?

Blood-to-blood

- Sharing needles

- Blood transfusions before 1992

- High-risk sexual contact

- Perinatal

- Occupational (needlesticks)

33
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Is there a vaccine for Hepatitis D?

No direct vaccine

34
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Can Hepatitis D become chronic?

Yes — but only if co-infected with Hepatitis B

35
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How is Hepatitis D transmitted?

Bloodborne: IV drug use, sexual contact

36
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What does HDV require to infect a person?

Co-infection with Hepatitis B

37
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Is Hepatitis E acute or chronic?

Acute only

38
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Is there a vaccine for Hepatitis E?

Not in the U.S. (available in China)

39
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What is the most common mode of transmission for Hepatitis E?

Fecal-oral, especially via contaminated drinking water

40
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Why is Hepatitis E serious during pregnancy?

It can cause fulminant hepatic failure and maternal death, especially in the third trimester

41
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What is the post-exposure treatment for Hepatitis B?

HBIG antibodies ASAP (best within 24 hours), combined with the 1st dose of 3-dose HBV vaccine

42
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What lab changes are associated with dehydration?

Increased hematocrit and hypernatremia due to hemoconcentration

43
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What is ascites?

Accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal or abdominal cavity

44
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What are signs of ascites?

Abdominal distention and weight gain

45
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What condition commonly causes ascites?

Cirrhosis

46
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How does cirrhosis lead to ascites?

↓ Albumin → ↓ oncotic pressure → fluid shifts out of blood vessels into peritoneum

47
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What hormonal changes are associated with ascites?

↑ Aldosterone, ↑ Na reabsorption, ↑ H2O retention, due to RENIN activation

48
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What causes hepatic encephalopathy?

Elevated blood ammonia levels affecting the CNS

49
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What medication can prevent hepatic encephalopathy?

Neomycin (neomycin sulfate)

50
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How does neomycin help in hepatic encephalopathy?

Decreases gut bacteria that form ammonia, lowering ammonia levels

51
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What are symptoms of high ammonia levels?

Lethargy, confusion, decreased consciousness

52
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What blood ammonia level is concerning in clinical practice?

60-80 µmol/L or higher

53
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What is one main goal of paracentesis in treating ascites?

To relieve respiratory distress caused by pressure from excess abdominal fluid

54
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What is steatorrhea and what condition is it associated with?

Fatty, frothy, smelly stool — seen in pancreatitis due to lack of lipase release

55
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What are two main causes of acute pancreatitis?

Binge drinking and gallstones

56
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What is Cullen's sign?

Periumbilical ecchymosis (bruising around the belly button)

57
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What condition might show Cullen's sign?

Acute pancreatitis

58
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Who is Cullen's sign named after?

Thomas Stephen Cullen, the physician who described it

59
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What is fluid volume deficit (FVD) also called?

Hypovolemia

60
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What causes fluid volume deficit?

- Hemorrhage

- Vomiting/diarrhea

- Diuretics

- Excessive sweating (diaphoresis)

- Third-spacing (e.g., ascites, burns)

- Inadequate fluid intake

61
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What are signs and symptoms of FVD (Fluid volume deficit)?

- Dry mucous membranes, dry skin

- Poor skin turgor

- Hypotension (↓ BP)

- Tachycardia (↑ HR)

- Weight loss

- Oliguria

- Dark, concentrated urine

- Sunken eyes, flat neck veins

- Confusion, dizziness, fatigue

62
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What are the lab findings in FVD (Fluid volume deficit)?

- ↑ Hematocrit

- ↑ BUN

- ↑ Urine specific gravity

- ↑ Serum osmolality

- Hemoconcentration

63
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What are nursing interventions for FVD (Fluid volume deficit)?

- Monitor daily weight & I/O

- Assess vital signs frequently

- Encourage oral fluids if safe

- Administer IV fluids (e.g., NS or LR)

- Fall precautions (orthostatic hypotension risk)

FVD = DRY: ↓ BP, ↑ HR, dry mouth, low urine output

64
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What is fluid volume excess (FVE) also called?

Hypervolemia

65
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What causes fluid volume excess?

- Heart failure

- Renal failure

- Cirrhosis

- Excessive IV fluids

- Hyperaldosteronism

- Long-term corticosteroid use

66
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What are signs and symptoms of FVE (Fluid volume excess)?

- Edema (peripheral/generalized)

- Jugular vein distention (JVD)

- Bounding pulses

- Hypertension

- Crackles in lungs

- Dyspnea, orthopnea

- Weight gain

- Ascites (if liver-related)

67
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What are the lab findings in FVE (Fluid volume excess)?

- ↓ Hematocrit

- ↓ BUN

- ↓ Urine specific gravity (diluted)

- ↓ Serum osmolality

- Hemodilution

68
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What are nursing interventions for FVE (Fluid volume excess)?

- Restrict fluids and sodium

- Monitor daily weight & I/O

- Administer diuretics (e.g., furosemide)

- Elevate HOB if dyspneic

- Monitor respiratory status

- Assess for edema and skin integrity

FVE = WET: ↑ BP, edema, crackles, JVD

69
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What causes jaundice?

Functional liver cell damage and bile duct compression from connective tissue overgrowth

70
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What happens when the liver can't conjugate bilirubin?

Bilirubin enters the bloodstream and urine (dark urine), and stools become clay-colored

71
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How does jaundice appear in the body?

- Yellowing of the sclera and skin

- Dark urine

- Clay-colored stools

72
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How should nurses assess for jaundice?

Inspect sclera and skin, and monitor stool and urine color

73
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What is Homan's sign?

Pain in the calf upon dorsiflexion of the foot, indicating possible DVT

74
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What are symptoms of DVT?

- Calf tenderness

- Lower leg swelling

- Warmth

- Redness

75
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What is Virchow's Triad?

Venostasis, hypercoagulability, and vessel wall injury/inflammation

76
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What is RICE used for?

Soft tissue injury treatment: Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation

77
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What is a T-tube used for post-cholecystectomy?

To help with bile drainage

78
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What position should hip replacement patients avoid?

Flexion angle > 90°, such as sitting in a low chair

79
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What lab change occurs during the emergent burn phase?

Hemoconcentration → ↑ hematocrit levels

80
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What is the priority concern with large burns (>30% BSA)?

Massive fluid loss

81
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What might coughing during the immediate postburn phase indicate?

Inhalation injury — a major predictor of mortality

82
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What causes GERD pathophysiologically?

Relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter (LES)

83
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What is a complication of chronic untreated GERD?

Barrett's epithelium → increased risk of esophageal cancer

84
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How does pregnancy contribute to GERD?

Progesterone relaxes LES and enlarged uterus increases abdominal pressure

85
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What patient education is important when taking antacids?

Take other medications at least 2 hours apart due to potential absorption issues

86
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Why is escharotomy performed in burn patients?

To relieve pressure and prevent compartment syndrome in circumferential burns

87
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What is the best route for pain management after burns?

Intravenous (IV) for rapid therapeutic effect

88
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What is compartment syndrome?

Increased pressure in a muscle compartment impairs circulation and nerve function

89
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What are the 6 P's of compartment syndrome?

Pain, pallor, paralysis, paresthesia, pulselessness (late sign), poikilothermia

90
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What symptom of compartment syndrome requires immediate attention?

Pain unrelieved by medication

91
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How should casts be handled to prevent skin ulcers?

Move with palms, not fingertips, during drying phase

92
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What are compensatory signs of severe anemia?

Tachycardia and dyspnea due to low oxygen-carrying capacity

93
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What are pagophagia and pica signs of?

Iron deficiency anemia

94
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What is the focus of hospice care?

Comfort and quality of life for patients with life expectancy under 6 months

95
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What should patients receiving radiation therapy be taught?

Monitor skin for breakdown and avoid sun exposure or trauma to treated areas

96
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What is the pathophysiology of Type 1 DM?

Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells → no insulin production

97
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What is the typical onset of Type 1 DM?

Childhood or adolescence (can occur at any age)

98
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What are key features of Type 1 DM?

Thin body type, rapid onset, insulin-dependent, ketone production, DKA risk

99
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What are symptoms of Type 1 DM?

Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, weight loss, fatigue, ketonuria

100
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What is the pathophysiology of Type 2 DM?

Insulin resistance + impaired insulin secretion; beta-cell function declines