Veterinary Cardiology, Ophthalmology, Neurology & Musculoskeletal Disorders

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311 Terms

1
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What number of ventricular premature contractions (VPCs) per minute is concerning and warrants treatment?

>25/minutes

2
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What compensatory mechanisms does the body use to manage heart disease?

Changing heart rate, blood pressure, blood volume, and heart muscle contractility.

3
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What are the symptoms of right-sided heart failure in animals?

Liver, venous, and splenic congestion, pleural effusion, ascites, SQ edema, and arrhythmias.

4
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What type of murmur is associated with a Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA) and where is it heard?

Continuous (machinery) murmur heard on the left side towards the base.

5
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What is mitral regurgitation and where is it typically heard?

It occurs when the valve doesn't close properly, causing backflow into the atrium during ventricular contraction, heard at the left apex of the heart.

6
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What types of arrhythmias are commonly seen in dogs and cats?

Ventricular (tachycardia & bradycardia), ventricular premature contractions (PVCs), ventricular fibrillation, sinus bradycardia, SA block, and atrial fibrillation.

7
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How can you distinguish between atrial and ventricular arrhythmias?

Atrial arrhythmias have normal sinus signals with missing P waves; ventricular tachycardia shows no relationship between P waves and QRS complexes.

8
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Which arrhythmia is common and considered normal in dogs?

Sinus arrhythmia.

9
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What occurs during sinus arrhythmia?

Abnormal heart impulse that corresponds to breathing.

10
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Which drug causes toxicity in Collies?

Ivermectin.

11
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What makes testing for heartworms in cats challenging?

Cats are resistant to heartworms, usually test negative for microfilaria, and canine tests cannot be used.

12
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What is Progressive Retinal Atrophy (PRA)?

A genetic/inherited condition in dogs causing bilateral, symmetrical degeneration of the retina, leading to blindness.

13
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Which eye disease in cats can be caused by taurine deficiency?

Progressive Retinal Atrophy.

14
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What is acute glaucoma and what can it lead to?

Increased production of aqueous humor or blockage of outflow, leading to optic nerve damage and blindness.

15
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What is the normal range for intraocular pressure in cats and dogs?

10-25 mmHg.

16
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What is primary glaucoma and which breeds are predisposed to it?

Related to decreased outflow of aqueous humor; seen in Beagles with ADAMTS10 mutation and Siamese cats.

17
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What eye disease is caused by an accumulation of lymphocytes and plasma cells?

Pannus or Chronic Superficial Keratitis.

18
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Why is Cyclosporine used to treat Keratoconjunctivitis Sicca (KCS)?

It is an immunomodulating and anti-inflammatory agent that targets the underlying cause of the condition.

19
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What factors contribute to osteoarthritis?

Weight, age, infection, trauma, developmental dystrophies, obesity, or autoimmune diseases.

20
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What is osteosarcoma and which animals are more likely to develop it?

Bone cancer; more common in large breeds and cats (85% of bone cancer in cats is osteosarcoma).

21
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Which inherited musculoskeletal disease is seen in the Flandres de Bouvier?

Hip dysplasia.

22
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What is a common issue seen in dogs that rupture their cruciate ligament?

Meniscus injury.

23
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What are the symptoms of Polyradiculoneuritis?

Acute ascending flaccid paralysis, voice change, and loss of reflexes.

24
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Which ticks in the US are responsible for tick paralysis?

Dermacentor variabilis (common dog tick) and Dermacentor andersoni (Rocky Mountain wood tick).

25
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Which species is less likely to suffer from tick paralysis?

Cats.

26
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What causes Discospondylitis?

Bacterial or fungal infection of the intervertebral disk and vertebrae.

27
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Which spinal disease commonly affects the thoracolumbar area in canines?

Intervertebral disc disease (IVDD).

28
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Where must a spinal lesion be located to affect the hind limbs?

Lumbosacral lesions (L4-S3) or thoracolumbar lesions (T3-L3).

29
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What should be recommended for a dog testing positive for Discospondylitis caused by Brucella canis?

Have the dog spayed or neutered.

30
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What spinal disease affects the vertebral column at C5-C7?

Cervical spondylomyelopathy (Wobbler's syndrome).

31
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What is vertebral subluxation?

A misalignment of the vertebrae.

32
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What is the reflex arc?

A neural pathway controlling a reflex action, allowing for a rapid, involuntary response to a stimulus, involving sensory and motor neurons.

33
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What do the dorsal horns of the spinal cord do?

Carry sensory information into the spinal cord.

34
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What do the ventral horns of the spinal cord do?

Carry motor signals out to muscles.

35
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What are the signs referred to as clonic and tonic activity during a seizure?

Tonic - stiffening; Clonic - rhythmic jerking; both seen in generalized seizures.

36
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What is an aura in relation to a seizure?

Behavioral changes preceding a seizure, such as restlessness or whining.

37
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What is the treatment for head trauma?

Oxygen, IV fluids, mannitol, and corticosteroids.

38
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What is ischemic encephalopathy?

Spinal cord infarct caused by fibrocartilage blocking blood flow.

39
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How is idiopathic vestibular disease treated?

Supportive care; usually resolves in 3 to 6 weeks; can use steroids, antibiotics, and anti-nausea medication.

40
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What can cause increased intracranial pressure with head trauma?

Bleeding into the skull (hematomas), swelling (cerebral edema), or a buildup of cerebrospinal fluid.

41
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When do we typically see idiopathic vestibular disease in cats?

Late spring, summer, and early fall.

42
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What prognosis do patients who are comatose for greater than 48 hours due to head trauma have?

Guarded to grave prognosis.

43
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What does therapeutic drug monitoring involve?

Measuring drug blood levels to ensure efficacy and avoid toxicity.

44
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What is IVDD and how many different types are there?

Intervertebral disc disease; there are two types: Type I and Type II.

45
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What is IVDD?

A common degenerative condition in dogs where the discs that cushion the vertebrae in the spine deteriorate.

46
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How many types of IVDD are there?

There are 2 types.

47
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When is it best to perform IVDD surgery for optimal outcomes?

Within the first 24 hours of symptoms.

48
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What does the head trauma coma scale measure?

It is a scoring system to assess the severity of head injury and prognosis.

49
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What are the signs of estrogen toxicosis in female ferrets?

Anorexia, pale mucous membranes, weakness, swollen vulva with discharge, dorsally symmetrical alopecia, lethargy.

50
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What treatment gives a ferret with insulinoma the best prognosis?

Surgery to remove the tumor, which helps slow down growth but is not curative.

51
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Which organs are involved in endocrine disease in ferrets?

The pancreas and adrenal glands.

52
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What are the signs seen with uterine tumors in rabbits?

Decreased and stillborn litters, anemia, hematuria, vaginal discharge, anorexia, depression.

53
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Which species show sticky eyelids and nasal discharge due to bacterial pneumonia?

Rats and hamsters.

54
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What bacterium causes enteropathy in young hamsters, such as wet tail?

Lawsonia intracellularis.

55
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What is Tyzzer's disease and which bacterium causes it?

An enteropathy in mature hamsters and gerbils caused by Clostridium piliforme.

56
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What causes a rabbit's urine to appear red?

Porphyrin.

57
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What does caseous abscesses mean in rabbits?

Thick, cheese-like abscesses.

58
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What diagnostic tools help diagnose dermatophytosis?

A woods lamp, skin scrape, and/or fungal cultures.

59
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What is a major component in respiratory disease in rats?

Mycoplasma pulmonis.

60
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What are common issues seen in rabbits?

Intestinal stasis, dental disease, pododermatitis, respiratory infection, parasites.

61
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What percentage of ferrets with heartworms develop microfilaria?

50-60%.

62
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What vaccines are required by law for ferrets, cats, and dogs?

Rabies.

63
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What should ferrets be vaccinated for?

Rabies and canine distemper.

64
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What is Snuffles and in which species is it found?

Also known as Pasteurellosis, it is the most commonly diagnosed respiratory disease in rabbits caused by Pasteurella multocida.

65
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What can hairballs or trichobezoars cause in ferrets and rabbits?

Intestinal stasis or blockage.

66
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Which species are induced ovulators?

Ferrets and rabbits.

67
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What is the 'keel' bone?

The breastbone, where the wing muscles connect and aids in balance.

68
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How do we treat birds with lower airway disease?

By providing an oxygen-rich environment and using a nebulizer.

69
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Describe the uniqueness of the avian eye.

Avians can see many colors and have keen eyesight with a large field of vision.

70
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What is the cloaca?

The combined opening of the urinary tract, digestive tract, and reproductive tract.

71
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What is the synsacrum in reptiles?

The fusion of the skeletal structure including thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and caudal vertebrae to aid in flight by creating stability.

72
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What can cause an iodine deficiency in birds?

An improper diet, such as an all-seed diet.

73
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How many chambers does a snake heart have?

3 chambers: 2 atria and 1 ventricle.

74
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What is visceral gout?

The accumulation of uric acid crystals (tophi) in internal organs, often seen in snakes.

75
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What is the leading cause of hepatic lipidosis in turtles?

Anorexia.

76
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What signs are seen in a snake that has suffered spinal trauma?

Lack of panniculus response, paresis, or paralysis.

77
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When should an oviduct prolapse be treated?

The sooner it is treated, the better the outcome.

78
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What types of deficiencies should aging reptiles be monitored for?

Vitamin A, vitamin D, and calcium.

79
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Which types of reptiles require animal proteins in their diets?

Carnivores and omnivores.

80
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What is primary glaucoma?

An inherited defect seen in Cockers, Chow Chows, and Bassets.

81
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What arrhythmia is indicated by a rapid, irregular heart rhythm with pulse deficits in Dobermans?

Atrial fibrillation.

82
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Where can you hear mitral valve regurgitation?

At the left apex.

83
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What is a corneal ulcer?

An abrasion to the surface of the eye (the epithelium).

84
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Why is it difficult to get accurate heartworm test results in cats?

Cats do not usually have microfilaria; they are resistant, and canine antigen testing is not adequate.

85
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What percentage of dogs with a ligament rupture also demonstrate a meniscus injury?

50%.

86
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What does it mean if a condition is referred to as familial?

It is a genetic disorder that can be passed down to offspring.

87
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What type of seizure activity is characterized by involuntary paddling of limbs and dilated pupils?

Clonic seizure activity.

88
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What does tonic activity during a seizure look like?

The animal falls over, becomes rigid, and arches their head, neck, and back.

89
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Which limbs are affected by T3-L3 spinal lesions?

Hindlimbs.

90
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What condition is characterized by ascending flaccid paralysis and absence of spinal reflexes?

Polyradiculoneuritis.

91
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What is the pigment that fluoresces and causes red urine?

Porphyrin.

92
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What is the prognosis for ferrets with insulinoma after surgery?

They have a good prognosis.

93
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Psittacine

Birds with a hooked beak, characteristics of parrots, & 2 toes pointing forward & 2 toes pointing backward. Eg. Amazon parrots, macaws, parakeets, caiques, cockatoos, cockatiels, conures, eclectus parrots, lorikeets, lovebirds, african grey parrots, monk parakeets, pionus, Senegal parrots, & ring-necked parakeets.

94
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Passerine

Perching songbirds with 3 toes pointing forward & 1 pointing backward. Eg. Canaries, finches, mynas, etc.

95
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Appropriate housing for pet birds

Cages should be constructed of metal, plexiglas, or a suitable wire mesh; Cage materials can be bamboo, decorative wood, plexiglas, etc., & it must be suitable for the size & strength of the bird; Design must be simple & provide a safe environment for the bird.

96
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Determining appropriate cage size

Bird should be able to spread its wings without touching the cage walls, & its tail should not drag the floor or hit the sides of the cage.

97
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Varied diet for pet birds

Seeds, pellets, & table food such as veggies, breads, cheese, cooked eggs, fruit, & even a small amount of meat with seeds, peanuts, or pellets.

98
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Importance of fresh water for birds

Only produce little amounts of saliva & rely on adequate water intake to digest food.

99
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Dangers to pet birds out of cages

Other pets, ceiling fans, windows, mirrors, getting lost outdoors, predators & cars outdoors.

100
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Good talking species

Parakeets, Amazon parrots, African grey parrots, cockatoos, & macaws.