CS Ethics

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199 Terms

1
The term morals refers to the personal principles upon which an individual bases his or her decisions about what is right and what is wrong.
True
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2
The goodwill that is created by which of the following can make it easier for corporations to conduct their business?
CSR Activities
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3
What term is used to describe a habit of unacceptable behavior?
Vice
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4
A set of beliefs about right and wrong behavior within a society is known as which of the following?
Ethics
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5
Which of the following helps ensure that employees abide by the law, follow necessary regulations, and behave in an ethical manner?
Code of ethics
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6
During which step of the decision-making process should one be extremely careful not to make assumptions about the situation?
Develop problem statement
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7
A well-implemented ethics and compliance program and a strong ethical culture can lead to:
Less pressure on employees to misbehave
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8
Fairness and generosity are examples of virtues.
True
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9
Which of the following activities describes when an organization reviews how well it is meeting its ethical and social responsibility goals, and communicates its new goals for the upcoming year?
Social Audit
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10
The term ethics describes standards or codes of behavior expected of an individual by a group to which the individual belongs.
True
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11
The greater reliance of information systems in all aspects of life has decreased the risk that information technology will be used unethically.
False
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12
Setting corporate social responsibility (CSR) goals encourages an organization to achieve higher moral and ethical standards.
True
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13
In which step of the decision-making process should the decision makers consider laws, guidelines, policies, and principles that might apply to the decision?
Choose Alternative
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14
A rapid increase in the appointment of corporate ethics officers typically follows:
The revelation of a major business scandal
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15
Lawrence Kohlberg found that the most crucial factor that stimulates a person's moral development is monetary reward for good behavior.
False
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16
Multinational and global organizations must not present a consistent face to their shareholders, customers, and suppliers but instead must operate with a different value system in each country they do business in.
False
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17
A mission statement is a clear, concise description of the issue that needs to be addressed.
False
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18
In the decision-making process of implementing the decision, what plan must be defined to explain to people how they will move from the old way of doing things to the new way?
Transition
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19
The countries with the highest software piracy rate in the world include Luxembourg, Japan, and New Zealand.
False
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20
In the business world, important decisions are too often left to the technical experts; general business managers must assume greater responsibility for these decisions.
True
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21
The posting of thousands of State Department documents on the WikiLeaks Web site is an example of which of the following?
inappropriate sharing of information
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22
The crime of obtaining goods, services, or property through deception or trickery is known as which of the following?
Fraud
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23
Which of the following is defined as not doing something that a reasonable person would do or doing something that a reasonable person would not do?
negligence
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24
A bribe is a crime even if the payment was lawful under the laws of the foreign country in which it was paid.
False
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25
A trade secret is information, generally unknown to the public, that a company has taken strong measures to keep confidential.
True
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26
The Business Software Alliance (BSA) has a few dozen lawyers and investigators who prosecute only the 100 or so most egregious cases of software piracy each year.
False
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27
While no policy can stop wrongdoers, it can establish boundaries for acceptable and unacceptable behavior and enable management to punish violators.
True
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28
To qualify legally as a bribe, the gift or payment must be made directly from donor to recipient.
False
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29
To prove fraud in a court of law, prosecutors must demonstrate that:
the wrongdoer made a false representation of material fact.
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30
Currently no one IT professional organization has emerged as preeminent, so there is no universal code of ethics for IT workers.
True
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31
Laws provide a complete guide to ethical behavior.
False
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32
There are many industry association certifications in a variety of IT-related subject areas.
True
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33
What term refers to the obligation to protect people against any unreasonable harm or risk?
Duty of Care
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34
Which of the following states the principles and core values that are essential to the work of a particular occupational group?
Professional code of ethics
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35
A vendor certification:
may focus too narrowly on the technical details of the vendor's technology.
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36
A survey by the Fawcett Society on the use of computing resources at work found that:
20 percent of men admit to viewing porn while at work
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37
Which entity is a computing society founded in 1947 with more than 97,000 student and professional members in more than 100 countries, and it publishes over 50 journals and 30 newsletters?
Association for Computing Machinery
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38
Which of the following is true about certification?
It can be applied to products.
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39
Government licensing is generally administered at the federal level in the United States.
False
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40
Professionals who breach the duty of care are liable for injuries that their negligence causes. This liability is commonly referred to as which of the following?
professional malpractice
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41
Trojan horse has become an umbrella term for many types of malicious code.
False
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42
Discussing security attacks through public trials and the associated publicity has not only enormous potential costs in public relations but real monetary costs as well.
True
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43
Which of the following concepts recognizes that managers must use their judgment to ensure that the cost of control does not exceed the system's benefits or the risks involved?
reasonable assurance
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44
Before the IT security group can begin an eradication effort, it must:
collect and log all possible criminal evidence from the system
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45
After virus eradication, you can use a previous backup to restore an infected computer.
False
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46
Malware that stops you from using your computer or accessing your data until you meet certain demands is known as which of the following?
ransomware
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47
The most common computer security precaution taken by businesses is the installation of which of the following?
firewall
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48
Cyberterrorism involves the deployment of malware that secretly steals data in the computer systems of organizations, such as government agencies, military contractors, political organizations, and manufacturing firms.
False
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49
A network attack in which an intruder gains access to a network and stays there, undetected, with the intention of stealing data over a long period of time is known as which of the following?
APT
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50
A router is a hardware- or software-based network security system that is able to detect and block sophisticated attacks by filtering network traffic dependent on the packet contents.
False
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51
Employees and contract workers must be educated about the importance of security so that they will be motivated to understand and follow the security policies.
True
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52
A business policy that permits employees to use their own mobile devices to access company computing resources and applications is known as which of the following?
Bring your own device (BYOD)
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53
Computer viruses differ from worms in that viruses can propagate without human intervention, often sending copies of themselves to other computers by email.
False
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54
The Fifth Amendment regulates the collection of the content of wire and electronic communications.
False
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55
What exploit is characterized as the abuse of email systems to send unsolicited email to large numbers of people?
Spam
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56
A piece of programming code, usually disguised as something else, that causes a computer to behave in an unexpected and usually undesirable manner is known as which of the following?
virus
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57
The act of fraudulently using email to try to get the recipient to reveal personal data is known as which of the following?
Phishing
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58
Whenever possible, automated system rules should mirror an organization's written policies.
True
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59
Ransomware is malware that stops you from using your computer or accessing your data until you meet certain demands, such as paying a ransom or sending photos to the attacker.
True
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60
Which term is defined as an exploit that takes place before the security community or software developer knows about the vulnerability or has been able to repair it?
zero-day attack
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61
Electronically stored information includes any form of digital information stored on any form of electronic storage device.
True
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62
Established in 1980, The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development's created which of the following, which are often held up as the model of ethical treatment of consumer data?
fair information practices
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63
A vehicle event data recorder (EDR) is a device that records vehicle and occupant data for a few seconds before, during, and after any vehicle crash that is severe enough to deploy the vehicle's air bags.
True
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64
Which of the following rules requires each financial institution to document a data security plan describing the company's preparation and plans for the ongoing protection of clients' personal data?
Safeguards Rule
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65
Online marketers can capture personal information, such as names, addresses, and Social Security numbers without requiring consent.
False
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66
In the context of tenets of the European Union Data Protection Directive, which of the following terms refers to an individual's right to challenge the accuracy of the data and provide the corrected data?
correction
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67
0.5 / 0.5 pts
In 2008, which act granted expanded authority to collect, without court-approved warrants, international communications as they flow through U.S. telecom network equipment and facilities?
Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act Amendments Act
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68
The Privacy Act of 1974 extends to the actions of the CIA, U.S. law enforcement agencies, and the private industry.
False
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69
A pen register is a device that records the originating number of incoming calls for a particular phone number.
False
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70
Discovery is part of the pretrial phase of a lawsuit in which each party can obtain which of the following from the other party by various means?
Evidence
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71
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act requires healthcare providers to obtain which of the following from patients prior to disclosing any information in their medical records?
written consent
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72
Which act included strong privacy provisions for electronic health records and bans the sale of health information, promotes the use of audit trails and encryption, and provides rights of access for patients?
American Recovery and Reinvestment Act
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73
Under the USA PATRIOT Act, the FBI can issue a National Security Letter to compel banks, Internet service providers, and credit reporting companies to turn over information about their customers without a court order simply on the basis that the information is needed for an ongoing investigation.
True
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74
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act requires healthcare organizations to employ standardized electronic transactions, codes, and identifiers to enable them to fully digitize medical records thus making it possible to exchange medical records over the Internet.
True
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75
The U.S. has a single, overarching national data privacy policy.
False
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76
The USA PATRIOT Act grants citizens the right to access certain information and records of federal, state, and local governments upon request.
False
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77
The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act includes three key rules that affect personal privacy: financial privacy rule, safeguards rule, and pretexting rule.
True
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78
Which act enables the public to gain access to certain government records?
Freedom of Information Act
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79
Which act requires that financial institutions must provide a privacy notice to each consumer that explains what data about the consumer is gathered, with whom that data is shared, how the data is used, and how the data is protected?
Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act
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80
The use of cookies and tracking software is controversial because companies can collect information about consumers without their explicit permission.
True
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81
Each violation of the provisions of the Controlling the Assault of Non-Solicited Pornography and Marketing (CAN-SPAM) Act can result in a fine of up to $250 for each unsolicited email, and fines can be tripled in certain cases.
True
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82
Proponents of the Children's Internet Protection Act (CIPA) contended that shielding children from drugs, hate, pornography, and other topics is a sufficient reason to justify which of the following?
Internet filters
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83
A U.S. citizen who posts material on the Web that is illegal in a foreign country cannot be prosecuted in that country.
False
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84
Which of the following involves the examination of Internet records in an attempt to reveal the identity of an anonymous poster?
Doxing
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85
Which country has the largest online population in the world and also perhaps the most rigorous Internet censorship?
China
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86
Section 230 of which act provides immunity to an Internet service provider (ISP) that publishes user-generated content, as long as its actions do not rise to the level of a content provider?
Communications Decency Act
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87
Which of the following is considered an absolute defense against a charge of defamation?
Truth
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88
Despite the importance of which of the following in early America, it took nearly 200 years for the Supreme Court to render rulings that addressed it as an aspect of the Bill of Rights?
anonymity
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89
Over the years, a number of federal, state, and local laws have been found unconstitutional because they violated one of the tenets of the First amendment.
True
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90
The plaintiff in a strategic lawsuit against public participation (SLAPP) can present themselves to the court admitting that their intent is to censor their critics.
False
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91
Proponents of the Children's Internet Protection Act (CIPA) argued that:
Internet filters are highly flexible and customizable.
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92
Anti-SLAPP laws are designed to protect children from pornography.
False
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93
Violation of which of the following acts can cause a school or public library to lose funding to help pay for its Internet connections?
Children's Internet Protection Act (CIPA)
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94
In general, the closer an Internet service provider (ISP) is to a pure service provider than to a content provider, the more likely that the Section 230 immunity of the Communications Decency Act (CDA) will apply.
True
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95
Which of the following statements is true of Children's Internet Protection Act (CIPA)?
CIPA requires federally financed schools to use some form of technological protection to block computer access to obscene material.
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96
In the United States, speech that is merely annoying, critical, demeaning, or offensive enjoys protection under which Amendment?
First
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97
With dynamic content filtering, each Web site's content is evaluated immediately before it is displayed, using techniques such as object analysis and image recognition.
True
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98
The Children's Internet Protection Act (CIPA) was an attempt to protect children from accessing pornography and other explicit material online.
True
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99
The California State Court in Pre-Paid Legal v. Sturtz et al. set a legal precedent that refined the criteria courts apply to which of the following?
subpoenas requesting the identity of anonymous Web posters
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100
The Supreme Court has held that obscene speech and which of the following are not protected by the First Amendment and may be forbidden by the government?
Defamation
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