3: Pharmaceutical Quality System

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Last updated 11:55 AM on 8/20/26
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102 Terms

1
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What is the overarching principle of the Pharmaceutical Quality System (PQS)?

Quality must be built directly into the product from design until the medicine reaches the patient.

2
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True or False: Quality is achieved merely by testing at the end of production.

False. The correct statement is: Quality is not achieved merely by testing at the end of production

3
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Where and when must quality be holistically ensured according to the PQS Core Principle?

At every process step.

4
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What is the key mechanism of the PQS Core Principle regarding the manufacture of every dosage form?

Ensures consistency in the manufacture of every dosage form so that all products meet predetermined specifications.

5
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Which of the following are examples of dosage forms mentioned in the key mechanism of the PQS Core Principle? A. APIs and excipients B. Tablets, capsules C. Raw and in-process materials D. Sterility and appearance E. Heavy metals and lead

Answer: B. Tablets, capsules

6
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What is the must-know concept regarding clinical/board relevance for the PQS Core Principle?

Quality is built into the product, not tested into it.

7
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What system is continuous and covers the entire product life cycle?

The Pharmaceutical Quality System (PQS).

8
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True or False: The PQS is continuous and covers the entire product life cycle.

True.

9
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What does the PQS ensure are consistently manufactured, controlled, improved, and supplied with the required quality?

Medicines.

10
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Enumerate the stages of the Lifecycle continuum as per the key mechanism of the Product Life Cycle. Clue: 5 stages starting with Development

Development, Manufacturing, Distribution, Post-marketing, Continuous improvement

11
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What is the overall quality management framework that dictates how a manufacturing facility operates to maintain product standards?

Pharmaceutical Quality System (PQS).

12
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Which of the following describes the Pharmaceutical Quality System (PQS)? A. The specific component that ensures the drug product maintains quality during the manufacturing phase itself B. The collective techniques and activities that test and verify product quality to ensure patient safety C. The overall quality management framework that dictates how a manufacturing facility operates to maintain product standards D. A periodic review of product performance E. A systematic process for the assessment of risks

Answer: C. The overall quality management framework that dictates how a manufacturing facility operates to maintain product standards

13
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What is the specific component that ensures the drug product maintains quality during the manufacturing phase itself?

Good Manufacturing Practice (GMP).

14
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What are the collective techniques and activities that test and verify product quality to ensure patient safety?

Quality Control (QC) / Testing & Verification.

15
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Enumerate the materials subjected to rigorous testing under the key mechanism of Quality Control. Clue: 3 types of materials/products

Raw materials, In-process materials, Finished products

16
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What is a periodic, generally annual, review of product performance to identify if any manufacturing process changes or improvements are required?

Product Quality Review (PQR).

17
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True or False: A Product Quality Review (PQR) is a daily review of product performance to identify if any manufacturing process changes or improvements are required.

False. The correct statement is: A Product Quality Review (PQR) is a periodic, generally annual, review of product performance to identify if any manufacturing process changes or improvements are required.

18
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Enumerate the parameters reviewed in a Product Quality Review (PQR). Clue: 8 parameters

Starting/in-process materials, Deviations, Regulatory changes, Complaints, Recalls, Stability, Post-marketing commitments, CAPA effectiveness

19
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What is a systematic process for the assessment, control, and communication of risks to the quality of the drug product?

Quality Risk Management (QRM).

20
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Enumerate the steps involved in the key mechanism of Quality Risk Management (QRM). Clue: 4 steps

Identifying a risk, Evaluating the magnitude of its effect, Determining its frequency, Implementing preventative measures

21
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Which of the following is NOT involved in the key mechanism of Quality Risk Management (QRM)? A. Identifying a risk B. Evaluating the magnitude of its effect C. Determining its frequency D. Implementing preventative measures E. Rigorous testing of raw materials

Answer: E. Rigorous testing of raw materials

22
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What is the goal of maintaining identical, optimal quality across every single manufactured batch (e.g., from batch 1 to batch 60)?

Product realization.

23
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What are the measurable properties indicating the correct quality is met during product realization?

Quality attributes.

24
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Enumerate the key quality attributes provided as important examples. Clue: 4 measurable properties

Potency, Purity, Sterility, Appearance

25
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Which of the following is a key quality attribute? A. Temperature B. Humidity C. Sterility D. Compression Force E. Mixing Speed

Answer: C. Sterility

26
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According to what guidelines must medicinal products be designed from the very beginning?

GMP guidelines.

27
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True or False: Medicinal products must be designed according to GMP guidelines from the very beginning.

True.

28
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What requires the manufacturer to ensure continuous learning regarding the drug, manufacturing experience, and quality improvements throughout the life cycle?

Product knowledge.

29
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Enumerate the areas of continuous learning a manufacturer must ensure according to product knowledge requirements. Clue: 3 areas

The drug, Manufacturing experience, Quality improvements

30
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True or False: Quality begins during the testing phase, not during development.

False. The correct statement is: Quality begins during development, not during the testing phase.

31
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Enumerate how manufacturing procedures must be established under Production, Control, and Management requirements. Clue: 3 characteristics

Explicitly written, Standardized, Validated

32
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Who is responsible for providing leadership and resources in production, control, and management?

Management.

33
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What is the must-know philosophy regarding production, control, and management?

"Quality is everybody's business"—from the factory worker to management.

34
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Enumerate the entities included in the philosophy "Quality is everybody's business". Clue: 2 entities showing the spectrum of involvement

Factory worker, Management

35
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True or False: Any materials from reputable suppliers can be used.

False. The correct statement is: Only approved materials (APIs, excipients, packaging) from reputable suppliers can be used.

36
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Enumerate the approved materials mentioned that can be used from reputable suppliers. Clue: 3 types of materials

APIs, Excipients, Packaging

37
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What must be strictly maintained when outsourcing (e.g., toll manufacturers)?

Quality.

38
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Which of the following is an example of outsourcing? A. Quality Control unit B. Toll manufacturers C. Marketing Authorization Holder D. Authorized Person E. Compliant facilities

Answer: B. Toll manufacturers

39
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Enumerate who holds the ultimate responsibility for outsourced quality, per regional regulations. Clue: 2 entities

Marketing Authorization Holder, Manufacturer

40
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True or False: Ultimate responsibility for outsourced quality remains with the toll manufacturer.

False. The correct statement is: Ultimate responsibility for outsourced quality remains with the Marketing Authorization Holder and the Manufacturer, per regional regulations.

41
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What is the continuous monitoring of critical variables during manufacturing to prevent drug deterioration or loss of therapeutic effect?

Process Control.

42
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Why are critical variables continuously monitored during manufacturing in Process Control?

To prevent drug deterioration or loss of therapeutic effect.

43
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Enumerate the monitored variables given as important examples in Process Control. Clue: 4 critical variables

Temperature, Humidity, Mixing Speed, Compression Force

44
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What is generated by excessive mixing speed?

Heat.

45
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What is the effect of heat generated by excessive mixing speed?

Degrading heat-sensitive drugs.

46
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What is the documented evidence proving a process consistently produces results meeting predetermined specifications?

Validation.

47
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True or False: Validation is the documented evidence proving a process consistently produces results meeting predetermined specifications.

True.

48
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Enumerate the required steps for any planned changes under change control before conducting a Post-Implementation Review. Clue: 3 steps

Formal evaluation, Approval, Implementation

49
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What must follow the formal evaluation, approval, and implementation of planned changes in change control?

A Post-Implementation Review.

50
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What is the purpose of a Post-Implementation Review in change control?

To confirm objectives were met without inducing new problems.

51
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What is the key mechanism of Validation & Change Control?

Proves consistency.

52
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True or False: Process changes can be made suddenly or informally.

False. The correct statement is: No process changes can be made suddenly or informally.

53
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What is a systematic investigation used to identify the true underlying cause of a defect or problem, ensuring operators are not falsely blamed for systemic errors?

Root Cause Analysis (RCA).

54
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What does Root Cause Analysis (RCA) ensure operators are not falsely blamed for?

Systemic errors.

55
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Enumerate the common Root Cause Analysis (RCA) tools provided as important examples. Clue: 2 tools

FMEA (Failure Mode and Effects Analysis), The 5 Whys

56
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What does FMEA stand for?

Failure Mode and Effects Analysis.

57
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Enumerate the GMP Facility requirements. Clue: 3 requirements

Competent personnel, Compliant facilities, Proper microbial testing

58
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What is the function of proper microbial testing in GMP facilities?

Monitoring bacterial overgrowth in production premises.

59
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Enumerate the required characteristics of GMP documentation. Clue: 3 characteristics

Clear, Visible, Comprehensive

60
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True or False: Environmental monitoring limits are loosely specified.

False. The correct statement is: Environmental monitoring limits are strictly specified.

61
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What is the consequence of exceeding microbial thresholds in a GMP facility?

Invalidates the premise for drug production.

62
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What involves handling unexpected events that deviate from approved procedures?

Deviation Management & CAPA.

63
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Which of the following is an example of an unexpected event that deviates from approved procedures? A. Proper microbial testing B. Tablet weight exceeding specifications C. Formal evaluation of changes D. Validated manufacturing procedures E. Monitoring bacterial overgrowth

Answer: B. Tablet weight exceeding specifications

64
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Enumerate the required responses to an unexpected event that deviates from approved procedures. Clue: 3 required responses

Immediate documentation, Investigation, Implementation of CAPA

65
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What does CAPA stand for?

Corrective Action and Preventive Action.

66
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What is defined as fixing the immediate problem?

Corrective Action.

67
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Which of the following is an example of a Corrective Action? A. Scheduling regular preventive maintenance B. Continuous operator training C. Repairing a defective machine D. Validating test methods E. Formal evaluation of changes

Answer: C. Repairing a defective machine

68
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What is defined as preventing the recurrence of the problem?

Preventive Action.

69
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Enumerate the examples given for Preventive Action. Clue: 2 examples

Scheduling regular preventive maintenance, Continuous operator training

70
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True or False: Every batch must be immediately locatable.

True.

71
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What practice must distribution follow to maintain quality?

Good Distribution Practice (GDP).

72
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Enumerate the stages where Good Distribution Practice (GDP) maintains quality. Clue: 3 stages

Storage, Transport, Delivery

73
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Enumerate the requirements when handling complaints. Clue: 3 requirements

Documentation, Investigation, CAPA

74
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True or False: Rapid batch traceability is critical during product recalls.

True.

75
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What is defined as the removal of defective products from the market?

Product recalls.

76
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Enumerate the triggers for product recalls. Clue: 2 triggers

Severe Adverse Drug Reactions (ADRs), Identified contamination

77
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What does ADRs stand for?

Adverse Drug Reactions.

78
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Which of the following is an example of identified contamination that triggers a product recall? A. Heavy metals/lead B. Excessive mixing speed C. Heat-sensitive drugs D. Approved materials E. Excipients

Answer: A. Heavy metals/lead

79
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Enumerate the requirements for Quality Control (QC). Clue: 2 requirements

Adequate facilities/equipment, Competent personnel

80
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Enumerate the required characteristics of QC test methods. Clue: 4 characteristics

Validated, Accurate, Precise, Reproducible

81
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True or False: Test methods must be validated, accurate, precise, and reproducible.

True.

82
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By whom must sampling be performed strictly?

Authorized personnel.

83
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Enumerate the strict specifications against which finished products are verified. Clue: 6 specifications

Identity, Purity, Strength/Assay, Quality, Packaging, Labeling

84
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Enumerate the outcomes ensured by verifying finished products against strict specifications. Clue: 2 outcomes

Patient compliance, Optimal therapeutic effect

85
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What is the stringent regulatory checkpoint before any manufactured drug enters the market?

Batch Release Authorization.

86
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True or False: A product or batch may be released before it is formally certified.

False. The correct statement is: No product or batch may be released until it is formally certified by an Authorized Person.

87
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Who must formally certify a product or batch before it can be released?

An Authorized Person.

88
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Which of the following units typically house the Authorized Person for batch release authorization? A. Marketing Authorization Holder or Manufacturer B. Quality Assurance or Quality Control unit C. Product Development or Production unit D. Management or Supply Chain unit E. Outsourcing or Toll manufacturing unit

Answer: B. Quality Assurance or Quality Control unit

89
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What is the mandatory retention of sufficient quantities of raw materials and finished products?

Reference Samples / Sample Retention.

90
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Enumerate what must be retained in sufficient quantities for Reference Samples / Sample Retention. Clue: 2 types of materials/products

Raw materials, Finished products

91
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In what form is it preferable to retain finished products for reference samples?

In final marketed packaging.

92
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What is the key mechanism of Reference Samples?

Serves as a historical physical record.

93
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When are Reference Samples used to isolate liability?

During subsequent investigations.

94
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What is the purpose of using reference samples during subsequent investigations?

To isolate liability.

95
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Enumerate the parties mentioned when determining where a defect originated to isolate liability. Clue: 3 parties

Manufacturer, Distributor, Shipper

96
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Which of the following is a core component of the PQS that is a periodic, generally annual, review? A. Quality Risk Management B. Quality Control C. Good Manufacturing Practice D. Product Quality Review E. Process Control

Answer: D. Product Quality Review

97
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True or False: Quality Risk Management (QRM) involves implementing preventative measures.

True.

98
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Which of the following must be explicitly written, standardized, and validated? A. Quality attributes B. Manufacturing procedures C. Environmental monitoring limits D. Test methods E. Reference samples

Answer: B. Manufacturing procedures

99
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Which of the following prevents drug deterioration or loss of therapeutic effect by continuously monitoring critical variables? A. Root Cause Analysis B. Change control C. Process Control D. Deviation Management E. Product Quality Review

Answer: C. Process Control

100
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Which of the following confirms that objectives were met without inducing new problems after a planned change? A. Post-Implementation Review B. Root Cause Analysis C. Microbial testing D. Product Quality Review E. Corrective Action

Answer: A. Post-Implementation Review