Valvular Heart Disease Flashcards | Cardiology Study Guide

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69 Terms

1
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S/S of ___ include dyspnea on exertion, SOB, dizziness, lightheadedness, syncope, decreased exercise tolerance, and fatigue.

Valvular disorders

2
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___ is caused by insufficient opening of the leaflets?

Stenosis

3
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___ is caused by backward flow of blood

Regurgitation

4
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___ are caused by improper flow of blood through the heart.

Murmurs

5
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___ murmur is louder with decreased preload

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

6
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What is the most common valvular disorder?

Aortic stenosis

7
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Incidence of aortic stenosis increases with ___ but it not the only risk factor

age

8
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What is a significant congenital risk factor for aortic stenosis?

Congenital bicuspid aortic valve

9
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Aortic stenosis causes the need to generate higher systolic pressures for blood to eject causing ___

LV hypertrophy

10
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in aortic stenos increased left sided pressures are eventually going to cause ___

pulmonary hypertension

11
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Which valvular disorder presents with a 'crescendo-decresceno'

Aortic stenosis

12
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Where can the systolic murmur be heard in aortic stenosis?

Right upper sternal border

13
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Which murmur has decreased intensity of S2?

Aortic stenosis

14
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Which valvular disorder presents with pulses carves et tardus and LV hypertrophy

Aortic stenosis

15
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What are the four diastolic murmurs?

Mitral stenosis

Pulmonic regurgitation

Aortic regurgitation

Tricuspid stenosis

16
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Tx options for aortic stenosis?

- BAV

- TAVR

- SAVR

17
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The only tx of aortic stenosis shown to improve survival is ___

aortic valve replacement

18
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What are some medical interventions that can be done to improve aortic stenosis S/S?

- limitation of physical activity

- avoid hypotension

- avoid after load reducing agent (ACEi and CCBs)

- use nitrates and diuretics

19
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Percutaneous balloon aortic valve valvuloplasty (BAV) is considered a ___

palliative procedure

20
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What is the major risk involved with SAVR?

calcified leaflet remnants can cause stroke

21
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___ can be done through the femoral, subclavian, aortic, transapical or transcaval approach

TAVR

22
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In which aortic stenosis intervention are the calcified leaflets cut out and sucked up before a new valve is inserted into the annulus?

SAVR

23
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What are the pros and cons of tissue valves over mechanical valves?

- no lifelong anticoagulation needed

- will need to be replaced in ~ 15 years

24
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Aortic regurgitation leaks blood back into the LV during diastole which causes ___

dilation and hypertrophy of the LV

25
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What are some of the etiologies of aortic insufficiency?

- infections (endocarditis/rheumatic)

- bicuspid valve

- inflammatory (RA/SLE)

- myxomatous

- trauma

- iatrogenic

- aortic root dilation

- aortic dissection

26
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In aortic insufficiency how does the LV compensate for the backwards flow?

- dilates and gets thicker

- left atrial enlargement due to increased pressures

27
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Acute AI leads to very high ___ and very poor CO

LV end diastolic pressure

28
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Which valvular disorder causes a high pitched early diastolic decrescendo murmur?

Aortic regurgitation

29
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Which murmur can be heard at the 3rd intercostal space on the left?

Aortic regurgitation

30
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Which valvular disorder has a wide pulse pressure?

aortic regurgitation

31
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Which valvular disorder can cause corrigan's pulse?

Aortic regurgitation

32
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Tx of aortic insufficiency?

- medically: ACEi and CCB

- surgically: AVR (symptomatic HF, EF <50%, LV enlargement)

33
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What are some primary causes of mitral regurgitation?

- prolapse

- flail leaflet

- rheumatic

- myxoma

- endocarditis

- congenital defects

34
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What are some secondary causes of mitral regurgitation?

- dilated annulus

- dilated ventricle

- congenital defects

35
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Acute ___ is fatal if not urgently corrected

mitral regurgitation

36
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Chronic mitral regurgitation will cause progressive ___ and ___ hypertrophy

enlargement of the LA and LV hypertrophy

37
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In mitral regurgitation you will frequently see ___ due to enlarged LA

atrial fibrillation

38
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Which type of valvular disorder can present with a night time cough?

Mitral regurgitation

39
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Which valvular murmur can be heard at the left sternal border that radiates to the axilla?

Mitral regurgitation

40
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T/F: the loudness of a murmur does not correlate with the severity of mitral regurgitation

True

41
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Why can patients with MR experience tachycardia?

compensate for loss of 'forward' stroke volume

42
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Acute ___ patients can be in respiratory failure, hypotensive and in life threatening cariogenic shock

mitral regurgitation

43
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Tx options of MR?

- acute: IABP, intubation, after load reducing Rx if normotensive, +/- inotropes/pressers

- chronic: ACEi or hydralazine to reduce after load, surgery (MVV/MVR), mitraclip, TMVR

44
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Pros/cons of MVV vs MVR for mitral regurgitation?

MVV: pros: last longer than replacement, no anticoagulation needed. cons: might not be totally competent.

MVR: pros: will not lead, can cut down time in OR. cons: 10-15 year replacement time, need anticoagulation.

45
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What is the most common cause of mitral stenosis?

rheumatic fever

46
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What are the common causes of mitral stenosis?

- rheumatic fever (m/c)

- MAC

- congenital

- autoimmune (SLE)

- left atrial myxoma

47
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MS results in decreased LV ___

preload

48
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In ___ there is a large gradient across the mitral valve which worsens with exertion

mitral stenosis

49
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What is the progression of mitral stenosis to HF?

- LA dilation

- increased LA pressures

- increased pulmonary pressures

- elevated pressures in right heart

- heart failure

50
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Which valvular disorder has an opening 'snap' heard after the S2 sound?

mitral stenosis

51
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Which murmur has a decreased S1 sound?

mitral stenosis

52
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Which disorder can cause clots to be in the left atrium due to fib or poor flow?

Mitral stenosis

53
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Tx of mitral stenosis?

- medical: diuretics, BB, antiarrhythmics, and anticoagulants

- surgical: mitral balloon valvuloplasty or replacement

54
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___ occurs on the inner surface of the heart and usually involves the cardiac valves

Infective endocarditis

55
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What is the most common cause of infective endocarditis?

bacteria (rarely fungal)

56
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Which organisms are typically responsible for infective endocarditis?

- staph aureus

- viridian strep

- enterococci

- fungal: candida, histoplasmosis, aspergillus

57
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Risk factors for infective endocarditis?

- IV drug abuse

- poor dental hygiene

- immunocompromised

- PPM/AICD

- damaged valves

- DM

58
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Bacterial growth causes vegetation on valves and causes ___

regurgitation

59
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In infective endocarditis vegetations can break off and ___ which can cause pulmonary emboli

embolize

60
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What is often the first sign of a subacute infectious endocarditis?

complication from a septic emboli

61
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S/S of ___ include weight loss and fever, new/different murmur, elevated CRP, Osler nodes, laneway lesions, Roth spots, organ damage, acute HF/CHF, sepsis, hypotension

infective endocarditis

62
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How many duke criteria are necessary for a diagnosis of infective endocarditis?

- 2 major

- 1 major 2 minor

- 3-5 minor

63
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Tx of endocarditis?

- medical: IV abx 4-6 weeks (vanco/unasyn), tx of symptoms

- surgical: replacement of valves

64
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Where does coarctation of the aorta typically occur?

Ductus arteriosus/ligamentum arteriosum inserts

65
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S/S of ___ include L/R heart failure, higher blood pressure in UE/head, hypo perfusion to abdominal organs, cold legs/feet

Coarctation of Aorta

66
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Dx for coarctation of aorta?

- BP measurement all extremities

- CT/MRI

- CXR (3 sign)

67
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Tx of coarctation of aorta?

- medical rx

- baloon angioplasty w/ or w/o stent

- surgical resection with graft

68
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Which type of valvular pathology is usually well tolerated?

Tricuspid regurgitation

69
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Patents with mechanical valves need to be fully ___ to prevent thrombus formation on the valve

anticoagulated