Retina & Macula ~ MASTERCARDS~

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467 Terms

1
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"What are the key characteristics of choroideremia in the OCT images?

There is marked atrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium and thinning of the

outer nuclear layers, and the choroidea is virtually absent."

2
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"What are the signs of Leber's hereditary optic neuropathy during the acute

stage?

The signs of Leber's hereditary optic neuropathy during the acute stage may

include mild disc hyperemia, obscuration of disc margins, vascular tortuosity

and dilatation in retinal vessels, oedema of RNFL, dilated capillaries on disc

surface which may extend to the retina, and juxtapapillary telangiectasia."

3
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"What is the prognosis of Leber's hereditary optic neuropathy?

The prognosis of Leber's hereditary optic neuropathy is poor, as most patients

experience severe, bilateral, and permanent visual loss (6/60 or worse) with

no effective treatment and require low vision aids and genetic counseling."

4
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"Deficient mitochondrial function resulting in acquired optic atrophy is most

commonly seen with ___ deficiencies like Vitamin ___ and ___abuse.

Deficient mitochondrial function resulting in acquired optic atrophy is most

commonly seen with {{B group vitamin}} deficiencies like Vitamin {{ B12, B1,

B2, B3, B6 }} and {{chronic alcohol }}abuse."

5
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"What is the hyaloid system and what are its possible anomalies?

The hyaloid system emerges from the optic disc and extends through the vitreous to the lens during eye development. Persistence of the hyaloid system can result in Mittendorf's dot, Bergmeister's papillae or a remnant of glial tissue at the optic nerve."

6
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"What are Bergmeister's papillae?

Bergmeister's papillae are a type of remnant of the hyaloid system that can occur as a tuft at the optic disc."

7
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"Persistent foetal vasculature can cause ___ and is

also known as ___

Persistent foetal vasculature can cause {{a white pupil (leucocoria)}} and is

also known as {{ pseudoglioma }}"

8
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What is persistent foetal vasculature?

Persistence of hyperplastic primary vitreous

9
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"A vitreous cyst can either be remnants of ___ or a cyst

originating from ___

A vitreous cyst can either be remnants of {{primary hyaloid system}} or a cyst

originating from {{ CB pigment epithelium }}"

10
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What are the characteristics of a vitreous cyst?

Rare, congenital vitreous anomaly

11
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"Chorio-retinal Coloboma appears white because the ___ fails to

develop.

Chorio-retinal Coloboma appears white because the {{ choroid }} fails to

develop."

12
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"What is a chorio-retinal coloboma?

Imperfect closure of the inferior foetal fissure during intrauterine

development"

13
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"What is medullated nerve fibres?

Medullated nerve fibres are anomalous medullation of the retinal nerve fibres,

anterior to the lamina cribrosa, occurring in about 1% of the population."

14
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"What are the characteristics of medullated nerve fibres?

Medullated nerve fibres appears as a white/yellow patch with feathery/striate

borders in superficial retina, often found at the edge of the optic disc. They

are usually asymptomatic but may cause an enlarged blindspot and field defect

associated with area of medullation."

15
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"What are the possible visual effects associated with extensive medullated

nerve fibres?

Extensive medullation can be associated with high myopia, amblyopia, and

strabismus."

16
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"What is the management for medullated nerve fibres?

Medullated nerve fibres usually require no treatment, and are usually benign

and stable. Routine review and visual fields can be assessed to detect any

possible visual effects if there is a large area of myelination. Lesions have

been reported to disappear in patients after optic neuritis, or in

demyelinating diseases such as multiple sclerosis."

17
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"What is the Morning glory disc variant?

The Morning glory disc variant is a rare, congenital disc anomaly

characterized by a large disc with a funnel-shaped central core of pale glial

tissue, raised disc margins, and an elevated pigment ring. It is usually

unilateral and is associated with poor vision and an increased risk of retinal

detachment."

18
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"The Morning glory disc is usually associated with an increased risk of ___

The Morning glory disc is usually associated with an increased risk of {{

retinal detachment }}"

19
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"What are the characteristics of Optic Disc Pit?

Optic Disc Pit is a congenital, usually unilateral condition. It is

characterized by a pale, round or oval pit in the disc tissue, which is

usually present in temporal disc. It may be pale, yellowish or gray and often

associated with a cilio-retinal artery, and peripapillary atrophy. The disc of

the affected eye is usually larger and associated with arcuate visual field

defects (60% of cases), when neuroretinal rim tissue is affected."

20
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"What are the potential symptoms of Optic Disc Pit?

Optic Disc Pit is usually asymptomatic but there is a potential for serous

detachment of the macula. This can result in metamorphopsia, micropsia, and

blurred vision. Serous detachment usually happens in the 30s and 40s, and is

more common with temporal pits and larger pits. Prognosis with serous

detachment is poor, and it can cause severe central vision loss."

21
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"What are the symptoms of optic nerve hypoplasia?

The symptoms of optic nerve hypoplasia include unilateral cases presenting in

childhood with amblyopia, strabismus, and a relative afferent pupillary defect

(RAPD). Visual field and color vision loss and nystagmus may also be present."

22
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"What is the potential association of optic nerve hypoplasia?

Potential associations of optic nerve hypoplasia include aniridia, midline

defects such as septo-optic dysplasia, and pituitary gland dysfunction (aka de

Morsier's syndrome)."

23
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"In Stage 2 Retinopathy of prematurity, a ridge develops between the

___, and it is characterized by

isolated ___.

In Stage 2 Retinopathy of prematurity, a ridge develops between the

{{vascularised and non-vascularised retina}}, and it is characterized by

isolated {{ neovascular tutts}}."

24
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"Stage 3 Retinopathy of Prematurity is characterized by ___, while Stage 4 is characterized by

___ with ___

Stage 3 Retinopathy of Prematurity is characterized by {{a ridge with extra

retinal fibrovascular proliferation}}, while Stage 4 is characterized by

{{partial retinal detachment}} with {{extraretinal fibrovascular

proliferation. }}"

25
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"“Plus disease” is characterized by ___ and ___ in the posterior pole and indicates an especially aggressive

form of ___ with a poor prognosis.

“Plus disease” is characterized by {{arteriolar tortuosity}} and {{venous

engorgement}} in the posterior pole and indicates an especially aggressive

form of {{ischemic disease}} with a poor prognosis."

26
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"Cicatricial complications of Retinopathy of Prematurity include ___

Cicatricial complications of Retinopathy of Prematurity include {{high myopia,

reduced vision, retinal folds, dragging of the retina and disc, fibrovascular

proliferation and retinal detachment. }}"

27
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"What is asteroid hyalosis?

Asteroid hyalosis is a degeneration of the vitreous characterized by multiple

small yellowish white deposits that have a refractile appearance, resembling

stars or asteroids."

28
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"What are the symptoms of asteroid hyalosis?

Asteroid hyalosis is generally asymptomatic and does not affect vision.

However, in some cases, it may cause opacities in the vitreous that can

interfere with the management of retinal diseases."

29
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"What is the possible association of asteroid hyalosis with diabetes and

hypertension?

There is a suggested association between asteroid hyalosis and diabetes and

hypertension. Approximately 30% of patients with asteroid hyalosis have

diabetes, and 60% have hypertension."

30
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"What is posterior vitreous detachment (PVD)?

Posterior vitreous detachment (PVD) is the detachment of the vitreous from the

inner limiting membrane (ILM) of the retina. It commonly occurs with advancing

age and is the result of the normal aging process of the vitreous."

31
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"What are the possible complications of posterior vitreous detachment (PVD)?

The possible complications of posterior vitreous detachment (PVD) include

flashes and floaters, which may be accompanied by a retinal tear or

detachment. Traction or pulling on the retina can occur as the vitreous

separates from the retina, increasing the risk of retinal tears or

detachments."

32
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"Posterior Vitreous Detachment is more common in individuals above the age of

___ and the prevalence is approximately 60% in patients above the age of

50.

Posterior Vitreous Detachment is more common in individuals above the age of

{{ 55 }} and the prevalence is approximately 60% in patients above the age of

50."

33
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"What are the symptoms of a PVD?

Floaters, dark spots or lines close to the visual axis, flashes, and photopsia

in peripheral vision."

34
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"___ is observed if complete

separation of vitreous from optic disc occurs and it is pathognomonic of a

PVD.

{{ A symptomatic ring-shaped floater (Weiss’s ring) }} is observed if complete

separation of vitreous from optic disc occurs and it is pathognomonic of a

PVD."

35
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"______ examination is considered essential

for all patients presenting with symptoms of PVD as it helps identify any

retinal breaks.

{{ Dilated fundus }}{{ Dilated fundus }} examination is considered essential

for all patients presenting with symptoms of PVD as it helps identify any

retinal breaks."

36
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"What is the management for patients presenting with symptoms of PVD?

Dilated fundus examination is essential, thorough peripheral retinal

examination to identify any retinal breaks, look for Shafer's sign (tobacco

dust), which if present indicates that a retinal break is very likely, and

advise of the risk and symptoms of retinal detachment."

37
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"What are angioid streaks?

Angioid streaks are vein-sized breaks/cracks in the elastic lamina of Bruch's

membrane."

38
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"What are the fundus changes associated with angioid streaks?

Mottled refractile yellowish appearance of the periphery temporal to macula

may be present."

39
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"What are the risks associated with angioid streaks?

Subretinal neovascularization, subretinal haemorrhage, scarring, retinal

detachment and choroidal ruptures are possible risks."

40
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"Subretinal neovascularization can occur as a result of a ___

Subretinal neovascularization can occur as a result of a {{ break in Bruch’s

membrane }}"

41
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"What are the management options for Angioid streaks?

The management options for Angioid streaks include advising the patient to use

eye protection, avoidance of contact sports, giving the patient a take-home

Amsler grid to monitor for metamorphopsia developing, referral for potential

systemic investigation due to systemic associations, and referral if any signs

of neovascularization."

42
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"Central Serous Retinopathy (CSR) is usually unilateral and is more common in

___ aged 30-50 years.

Central Serous Retinopathy (CSR) is usually unilateral and is more common in

{{ pregnancy }} aged 30-50 years."

43
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"What is Central Serous Retinopathy?

Central Serous Retinopathy is an idiopathic eye condition characterized by

fluid leakage from the choroid into the subretinal space due to an incompetent

retinal pigment epithelium."

44
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"What are the symptoms and recovery period of Central Serous Retinopathy?

The symptoms of Central Serous Retinopathy include mild loss of vision,

metamorphopsia, and a hyperopic shift in refraction. The condition is

typically self-limiting and usually recovers with normal or near-normal vision

within 3 months. However, if the patient is taking systemic steroids, the

healing of Central Serous Retinopathy may be delayed."

45
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Central serous retinopathy is diagnosed using ___

Central serous retinopathy is diagnosed using {{ fluorescein angiography.}}

46
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"What is the recommended management for Central Serous Retinopathy (CSR)?

The recommended management for Central Serous Retinopathy (CSR) includes

advising on the self-limiting nature of the condition, possibility of

recurrence, discontinuance of topical, inhaled, intranasal, intraarticular, or

intravenous steroids, and reviewing patients at 6-week intervals until disease

resolution. Laser treatment may be employed in some cases for persistent CSR,

recurrences when previous episodes resulted in permanent reduced vision, and

when prompt restoration of vision is important."

47
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"What is Retinal Pigment Epithelial Detachment?

Retinal Pigment Epithelial Detachment is a localized elevation of the retina

due to fluid accumulation below RPE. If the macula is affected, it causes

symptoms of reduced vision and metamorphopsia. It may be observed as part of

CSR (a variant of CSR), and typically resolves spontaneously. It may also be a

feature of age-related macular degeneration (AMD) and can be associated with

choroidal neovascularisation, which can lead to a haemorrhagic RPE detachment."

48
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"How is Retinal Pigment Epithelial Detachment diagnosed?

Retinal Pigment Epithelial Detachment is diagnosed through OCT imaging, which

is very useful in detecting elevated RPE, underlying fluid (hypo-reflective

space) between RPE and Bruch’s membrane, and one or more elevations of the

retina and RPE that may also appear slightly paler than the surrounding retina

with overlying or marginal pigmentary changes."

49
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"What is Cystoid Macular Oedema (CME)?

Cystoid Macular Oedema (CME) is the presence of multiple cyst-like areas of

fluid at the macula, which can result in a painless loss of vision and

metamorphopsia."

50
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"What are the most common imaging techniques used to detect Cystoid Macular

Oedema (CME)?

Red-free imaging and OCT are the most common imaging techniques used to detect

Cystoid Macular Oedema (CME)."

51
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"What is an Epiretinal membrane?

Epiretinal membrane is a glial membrane that forms at the vitreo-retinal

interface, which may lead to mild to moderate blurring and distortion of

vision (metamorphopsia)."

52
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"What are the potential causes of epiretinal membrane?

Epiretinal membrane can be caused by multiple factors, including idiopathic

(age-related), posterior vitreous detachment, retinal tears and detachments,

post retinal surgery or trauma, vascular retinopathies, and posterior uveitis."

53
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"On OCT, the appearance of epiretinal membrane is a thin, hyper-reflective line

on the inner surface of the retina

Epiretinal membrane may be observed as an area of glistening/sparkling in

macula on direct ophthalmoscopy, thicker membranes may appear yellow-white or

gray, and contraction of the membrane may lead to retinal folds and tortuosity

of some retinal vessels called macular pucker."

54
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"If vision is 6/12 or worse, patients with epiretinal membrane should be

referred to a retinal specialist for possible ___

If vision is 6/12 or worse, patients with epiretinal membrane should be

referred to a retinal specialist for possible {{ vitrectomy and epiretinal

membrane peel }}"

55
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"Macula holes are typically caused by ___ and can also occur secondary to

___. They usually occur in patients ___

Macula holes are typically caused by {{vitreo-macula traction on the fovea

from a posterior vitreous detachment }} and can also occur secondary to

{{trauma, age-related macula degeneration, cystoid macular oedema, high

myopia}}. They usually occur in patients {{ >60 years old and more common in

women }}"

56
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"Macula holes appear as a ___ at the

macula and typically the retina surrounding the hole is ___. They result in rapid onset, moderate to severe vision loss,

metamorphopsia and occasionally a central scotoma. ___ are

often seen within the hole. Macula holes can be diagnosed using the ___

Macula holes appear as a {{well circumscribed circular red area}} at the

macula and typically the retina surrounding the hole is {{thickened and raised

with traction}}. They result in rapid onset, moderate to severe vision loss,

metamorphopsia and occasionally a central scotoma. {{Yellow deposits}} are

often seen within the hole. Macula holes can be diagnosed using the {{ Watzke-

Allen test }}"

57
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"Macula hole formation typically evolves through a series of stages over a

period of ___

Macula hole formation typically evolves through a series of stages over a

period of {{ weeks to months }}"

58
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"What are the characteristics of Stage 1 impending macula hole?

Stage 1 impending hole is characterized by vitreomacular traction and may show

a flattening of the foveal depression (yellow spot on ophthalmoscopy) (Stage

1a). Flattening of foveal pit and intra-retinal cystic changes (seen as a

yellow ring on ophthalmoscopy), retinal roof remains intact (Stage 1b)."

59
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"What is the difference between Stage 2 and Stage 3 macula hole?

Stage 2 macula hole is a small full-thickness hole of size ≤400 µm, with no

PVD (i.e. vitreous traction remains). Stage 3 macula hole is medium to large

hole >400 µm, with no PVD (i.e. vitreous traction remains). Additionally, an

operculum or a flap may be present on the posterior hyaloid over the hole."

60
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"Stage 2 of macula hole staging is characterised by a small full-thickness hole

that is less than or equal to ___ µm and has ___

Stage 2 of macula hole staging is characterised by a small full-thickness hole

that is less than or equal to {{ 400 }} µm and has {{no PVD.}}"

61
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"What is Lamellar macular hole and how is it different from Macular pseudohole?

Lamellar macular hole is a partial-thickness defect in the neurosensory

retina, whereas macular pseudohole is an epiretinal membrane with a circular

or oval configuration, which gives the false clinical appearance of a full-

thickness macular hole."

62
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"A macular pseudohole gives the appearance of a full-thickness macular hole but

is actually an ___

A macular pseudohole gives the appearance of a full-thickness macular hole but

is actually an {{epiretinal membrane of a circular or oval configuration.}}"

63
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"What are the treatment options for macula hole?

The treatment options for macula hole include referral to retinal specialist,

observation and monitoring of Stage 1 holes, surgical treatment involving

vitrectomy to relieve traction, and injection of gas bubble. Patients may

further need to maintain face-down posture for 1-2 days (up to 2 weeks) post-

surgery. Intravitreal injection of protein enzyme called ocriplasmin (jetrea)

which causes lysis of the vitreous retina interface, is proposed as a

potential treatment for small macular holes. Prognosis is better if treatment

is done earlier within 6 months of hole developing."

64
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"What is age-related macular degeneration?

Age-related macular degeneration is a degenerative retinal disorder that

affects the macula region in people aged 55 years and older."

65
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"Exudative AMD can cause rapid and profound vision loss due to ___

Exudative AMD can cause rapid and profound vision loss due to {{ haemorrhaging

and scarring}}"

66
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"What are some risk factors for AMD?

Some risk factors for AMD include age, race, family history of AMD, smoking,

hypertension, high fat intake, obesity, low consumption of dark green leafy

vegetables and fruits, cataract surgery, blue iris color, high lifetime

sunlight exposure, and female gender."

67
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"What are some visual changes/symptoms associated with AMD?

Some visual changes/symptoms associated with AMD include progressive loss of

central vision, visual changes with atrophic AMD generally slow/gradual,

exudative AMD can cause rapid and profound vision loss due to hemorrhaging and

scarring, peripheral vision generally retained, metamorphopsia/distortion of

central vision, reduced contrast sensitivity, difficulty in adjusting from

different lighting conditions, prolonged photostress recovery, and color

vision changes (blue yellow defect)."

68
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"What are Drusen?

Drusen are small yellow-white lesions with distinct borders that can be of

different sizes: small (less than 63μm in diameter), medium (between 63 μm and

125 μm), and large (more than 125 μm)."

69
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"What are the pigmentary changes associated with drusen in atrophic AMD?

The pigmentary changes associated with drusen in atrophic AMD include

hyperpigmentation and hypopigmentation. These changes represent a significant

risk factor for the progression of AMD."

70
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"What is the association between reticular pseudodrusen and AMD?

The presence of reticular pseudodrusen is associated with increased risk of

CNV, and a faster rate of growth of GA."

71
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"Drusen may coalesce with adjacent large drusen to form a ___

Drusen may coalesce with adjacent large drusen to form a {{ drusenoid pigment

epithelial detachment }}"

72
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What are calcified drusen?

Drusen that have become calcified

73
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"What is geographic atrophy in atrophic AMD?

Geographic atrophy is a sharply delineated round or oval region of at least

175 µm in diameter in which the underlying choroidal vessels are visible."

74
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"What are the FAF images used to detect in atrophic AMD?

Fundus autofluorescence (FAF) images are used to detect areas of decreased or

absent autofluorescence in atrophic AMD."

75
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"What is Neovascular AMD?

Neovascular AMD is a condition in which new blood vessels grow under or into

the retina, leading to vision loss."

76
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"Type 1 (poorly defined/occult) neovascularization involves ___

Type 1 (poorly defined/occult) neovascularization involves {{new vessels from

choroid extending underneath RPE }}"

77
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"What are the types of neovascularisation?

The types of neovascularisation are type 1 (poorly defined or occult), type 2

(well-defined), and type 3 (retinal angiomatous proliferation)."

78
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"Polypoidal choroidal vasculopathy is considered a form of type ___ CNV in

AMD and has a ___ with ___. Presence

of ___ with absence of ___

Polypoidal choroidal vasculopathy is considered a form of type {{1}} CNV in

AMD and has a {{branching network of choroidal vessels above Bruch’s membrane

and below RPE}} with {{multiple terminal protruberances (polyps)}}. Presence

of {{prominent haemorrhage}} with absence of {{ drusen }}"

79
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"What is a disciform scar?

A disciform scar is a type of scarring pattern that occurs in the macula. It

is typically associated with advanced stages of wet age-related macular

degeneration (AMD)."

80
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"The key to reducing vision loss and preserving quality of life in patients

with exudative AMD is ___

The key to reducing vision loss and preserving quality of life in patients

with exudative AMD is {{ early diagnosis and prompt referral for treatment }}"

81
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"What is the recommended management for intermediate AMD?

Regular review (12 monthly), Amsler grid for regular self-testing (weekly),

counseling on lifestyle factors to reduce risk of progression to more advanced

disease like smoking cessation and healthy lifestyle and diet, and

supplementation with high-dose antioxidant and mineral are the recommended

managements for intermediate AMD."

82
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"What is the treatment for exudative AMD?

Prompt treatment with intravitreal injections of anti-VEGF (vascular

endothelial growth factor), such as Eylea, Lucentis, and Avastin, is the

recommended treatment for exudative AMD."

83
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"Retinitis Pigmentosa (RP) is the most common inherited fundus dystrophy with a

prevalence of approximately 1 in ___ people.

Retinitis Pigmentosa (RP) is the most common inherited fundus dystrophy with a

prevalence of approximately 1 in {{ 5000 }} people."

84
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"Retinitis Pigmentosa (RP) is a group of inherited retinal degenerative

diseases, predominantly affecting the ___ photoreceptors and later

degeneration of the cones.

Retinitis Pigmentosa (RP) is a group of inherited retinal degenerative

diseases, predominantly affecting the {{ rod }} photoreceptors and later

degeneration of the cones."

85
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"Retinitis Pigmentosa is a condition characterized by ___ and ___

Retinitis Pigmentosa is a condition characterized by {{ night vision problems

}} and {{visual field loss}}"

86
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"Early signs of Retinitis Pigmentosa include ___ and ___ with ___

Early signs of Retinitis Pigmentosa include {{arteriolar attenuation}} and {{

generalized diffuse RPE sine pigmentovdepigmentation}} with {{little or no

pigment deposition}}"

87
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"The loss of ___ in the

___ is a sign of RP on OCT

The loss of {{outer hyper-reflective bands (photoreceptor bands)}} in the

{{paramacular region}} is a sign of RP on OCT"

88
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"What are the typical symptoms of Retinitis Pigmentosa and when do they usually

manifest?

Typically presents in teenage years (A-Dominant forms may start later).

Patient complains of night vision problems dating from childhood. Noticeable

symptoms of VA loss, field loss often by late 20’s, possibly earlier. Progress

typically to severe visual loss with visual field restriction and night

blindness in 40’s. By age 50, majority have VA less than 6/60. ~5% of RP is

very early-onset (infancy) and severe. Grouped together as “Leber congenital

amaurosis”."

89
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"What is Leber Congenital Amaurosis and what are its common symptoms?

Leber Congenital amaurosis is a severe rod-cone dystrophy and is the commonest

genetic retinal dystrophy in children. It is characterized by blindness at

birth or infancy, absent or diminished pupil light reflex, peripheral

pigmentary retinopathy, macular pigmentary deposits, optic atrophy and

vascular attenuation, nystagmus, and oculo-digital syndrome."

90
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"What is sectorial Retinitis Pigmentosa?

Sectorial RP is a localized form of RP which affects isolated quadrants of the

retina. It usually has a later onset of visual problems and progresses more

slowly than other forms of RP."

91
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"What is Retinitis Punctata Albescens and how does it differ from other forms

of RP?

Retinitis Punctata Albescens is a form of RP where fundus deposits are white,

instead of black. It is characterized by scattered whitish-yellow spots, most

numerous in periphery, and it causes nyctalopia and progressive field loss,

which may progress to resemble RP."

92
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"___ is a possible macula complication associated with

RP

{{ Cystoid macular oedema}} is a possible macula complication associated with

RP"

93
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"In Laurence-Moon/ Bardet-Biedel Syndrome, RP may be associated with a systemic

disorder, including ___,

___, ___, and ___.

In Laurence-Moon/ Bardet-Biedel Syndrome, RP may be associated with a systemic

disorder, including {{ obesity, hearing loss, mental handicap, polydactyly }},

{{ obesity, hearing loss, mental handicap, polydactyly }}, {{ obesity, hearing

loss, mental handicap, polydactyly }}, and {{ obesity, hearing loss, mental

handicap, polydactyly }}."

94
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"Kearn Sayer Syndrome is associated with ___.

Kearn Sayer Syndrome is associated with {{ Chronic progressive external

ophthalmoplegia }}."

95
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"Tay-Sachs Disease is a familial lipid degeneration that begins in infancy more

prevalent in ___. It is characterized by a

___ Progressive optic atrophy

can lead to ___ and ultimately, blindness.

Tay-Sachs Disease is a familial lipid degeneration that begins in infancy more

prevalent in {{eastern European Jewish populations}}. It is characterized by a

{{white posterior pole with a cherry-red macula.}} Progressive optic atrophy

can lead to {{ wasting, muscular weakness, severe intellectual disability,

fatal by 2-3 years of age. }} and ultimately, blindness."

96
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"What is Stargardt Disease?

Stargardt Disease is a rare macular dystrophy that is inherited in an

autosomal recessive pattern. It leads to degeneration of the Retinal Pigment

Epithelium (RPE) causing bilateral symmetrical loss of vision, starting early

in life often before 10 years of age. It is characterized by minimally visible

ophthalmoscopic findings and normal ERG in the early stages. It eventually

leads to macular atrophy with surrounding yellow ""pisiform"" shaped soft yellow

flecks across posterior pole and severe loss of central vision by the age of

20."

97
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"What is the progression of Stargardt Disease?

Stargardt Disease leads to macular atrophy with surrounding yellow ""pisiform""

or fish-tail shaped soft yellow flecks across posterior pole and severe loss

of central vision by the age of 20. The vision loss starts slowly from 6/12

and progresses rapidly thereafter to 6/60 or worse."

98
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"What is the thickness of the retina shown in the OCT findings of Stargardt

Disease? ___

What is the thickness of the retina shown in the OCT findings of Stargardt

Disease? {{ 200 um }}"

99
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"What are Lipofuscin pigments and how are they related to FAF imaging?

Lipofuscin pigments present in the retina exhibit autofluorescent properties

that can be detected by FAF imaging."

100
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"___ is avoided in the management of Stargardt

disease as it may accelerate progression.

{{ Vitamin A supplementation }} is avoided in the management of Stargardt

disease as it may accelerate progression."