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micro 150

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61 Terms

1
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What is sterilization?

Complete destruction of all microbial life, including endospores.

2
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What is disinfection?

Destruction of most vegetative cells, but not endospores.

3
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What is antisepsis?

Reduction of microbial count on living tissue such as skin or mucous membranes.

4
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What is sanitization or decontamination?

Reduction of microbial population to safe levels on objects or surfaces.

5
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List microbes from most to least resistant.

Prions → Bacterial endospores → Mycobacteria → Protozoan cysts → Vegetative protozoa → Gram-negative bacteria → Fungi → Gram-positive bacteria → Non-enveloped viruses → Enveloped viruses.

6
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What are the four phases of the bacterial growth curve?

Lag phase, Log (exponential) phase, Stationary phase, and Death phase.

7
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What happens during the lag phase?

Bacteria adjust to the new environment; no rapid division yet.

8
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What happens during the log phase?

Cells divide rapidly and growth increases exponentially.

9
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What happens during the stationary phase?

Growth rate equals death rate; nutrients start depleting.

10
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What happens during the death phase?

Bacteria die due to lack of nutrients and toxin buildup.

11
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What are the main physical methods of microbial control?

Moist heat (autoclave), dry heat, pasteurization, filtration, and radiation.

12
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What are the sterilization conditions for an autoclave?

121°C for 15 minutes under pressure.

13
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What temperature and time are used for pasteurization?

72°C for 15 seconds.

14
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What is the purpose of ultra-high temperature (UHT) pasteurization?

Kills microbes for long shelf life (140°C for 1 second).

15
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What does UV radiation do to DNA?

Causes thymine dimers that lead to mutations and replication errors.

16
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Name the most effective alcohol concentration for killing bacteria.

70% alcohol — it denatures proteins and dissolves lipids.

17
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What does 3% hydrogen peroxide do?

Acts as a mild antiseptic for wounds but not for sterilization.

18
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What is glutaraldehyde used for?

As a high-level disinfectant or sterilant for medical equipment.

19
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Why does bleach kill microbes effectively?

It denatures proteins and destroys cell membranes (10% bleach = sterilizing).

20
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What is chlorhexidine gluconate (Peridex) used for?

As an oral antiseptic in mouthwashes to kill bacteria.

21
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What is the function of silver sulfadiazine?

Used to prevent infection on burn wounds.

22
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How do high salt or high sugar levels preserve food?

They create a hypertonic environment causing plasmolysis (water leaves cells).

23
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What are the main oxygen categories for bacteria?

Obligate aerobe, obligate anaerobe, facultative anaerobe, microaerophile, and aerotolerant anaerobe.

24
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What does an obligate aerobe require?

Oxygen for growth.

25
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What happens to obligate anaerobes in oxygen?

They die because oxygen is toxic to them.

26
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What are facultative anaerobes?

Bacteria that grow with or without oxygen but prefer oxygen.

27
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What is a microaerophile?

Organisms that need only small amounts of oxygen.

28
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What are aerotolerant anaerobes?

Organisms that tolerate oxygen but do not use it for metabolism.

29
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What enzyme converts superoxide radicals to hydrogen peroxide?

Superoxide dismutase (SOD).

30
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What enzyme breaks hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen?

Catalase.

31
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List temperature classifications for bacteria.

Psychrophile (cold-loving), Psychrotroph (tolerates cold), Mesophile (body temp), Thermophile (hot), and Extreme thermophile (very hot).

32
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What temperature range do psychrophiles prefer?

0°C, can grow below freezing.

33
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What temperature range do psychrotrophs prefer?

10–20°C (refrigerator temperatures).

34
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What temperature range do mesophiles prefer?

25–40°C (body temperature range).

35
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What temperature range do thermophiles prefer?

65–70°C (hot springs).

36
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What temperature range do extreme thermophiles prefer?

Above 100°C (boiling environments).

37
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Describe the effects of hypotonic, isotonic, and hypertonic solutions on plant cells.

Hypotonic → turgid (healthy); Isotonic → flaccid; Hypertonic → plasmolyzed (shriveled).

38
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Describe the effects of hypotonic, isotonic, and hypertonic solutions on animal cells.

Hypotonic → lysis (burst); Isotonic → normal; Hypertonic → shriveled.

39
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What are the five main antibiotic categories?

Cell wall inhibitors, protein synthesis inhibitors, nucleic acid inhibitors, cell membrane disruptors, and folic acid inhibitors.

40
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What do cell wall inhibitors target?

Peptidoglycan synthesis in bacterial cell walls.

41
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Give examples of cell wall inhibitors.

Penicillins, cephalosporins, vancomycin, bacitracin, carbapenems, and monobactams.

42
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What do protein synthesis inhibitors target?

Bacterial ribosomes to stop protein production.

43
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Give examples of protein synthesis inhibitors.

Aminoglycosides, tetracyclines, erythromycin, chloramphenicol, clindamycin.

44
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What do nucleic acid inhibitors target?

Enzymes involved in DNA and RNA synthesis.

45
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Give examples of nucleic acid inhibitors.

Rifampin (RNA) and Quinolones like ciprofloxacin (DNA).

46
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What do cell membrane disruptors do?

Damage bacterial membranes causing leakage and death.

47
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Give examples of cell membrane disruptors.

Polymyxin B and Daptomycin.

48
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What do folic acid inhibitors do?

Block folate synthesis, preventing bacteria from making DNA.

49
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Give examples of folic acid inhibitors.

Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim.

50
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List common antifungal drug endings.

“-azole,” “-fungin,” “-statin” (e.g., fluconazole, caspofungin, nystatin).

51
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What are three mechanisms bacteria use to resist antibiotics?

  1. Destroy the drug with enzymes (β-lactamase) 2. Pump the drug out (efflux) 3. Change binding sites so the drug can’t attach.
52
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What are the three methods of horizontal gene transfer in bacteria?

Transformation, Transduction, and Conjugation.

53
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What happens in transformation?

Bacteria take up free DNA from the environment.

54
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What happens in transduction?

A virus (bacteriophage) transfers DNA between bacteria.

55
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What happens in conjugation?

DNA is transferred through direct contact via a pilus.

56
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What does MRSA stand for and what is it resistant to?

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus — resistant to methicillin and other penicillins.

57
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What is MDR-TB resistant to?

Isoniazid and rifampin.

58
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What is NDM-1 E. coli resistant to?

β-lactam antibiotics and carbapenems.

59
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What drug resistance is seen in Plasmodium (malaria)?

Resistance to quinine, chloroquine, and artemisinin.

60
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Why does high sugar or salt preserve food?

It creates a hypertonic environment, pulling water out of microbes (plasmolysis).

61
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