Trusts – Lecture Review Flashcards

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These flashcards review key concepts, definitions, and rules from the lecture on trusts, covering formation requirements, types of trusts, trustee duties, beneficiary rights, modification and termination, and special doctrines.

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73 Terms

1
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What is the basic definition of a trust?

A fiduciary relationship in which a trustee manages, protects, and invests property for named beneficiaries.

2
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What three elements are required for a valid trust?

(1) A trustee, (2) an ascertainable beneficiary, and (3) trust assets (res).

3
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Are trust interests generally alienable?

Yes, they are transferable during life, by will, or by intestacy unless the trust terms provide otherwise.

4
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Who holds legal title to trust property?

The trustee.

5
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Who holds equitable title to trust property?

The beneficiary.

6
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Is consideration required to create a trust?

No.

7
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Under the majority rule, is a trust presumed revocable or irrevocable?

Revocable unless it expressly states it is irrevocable.

8
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Under the minority rule, what is the presumption about revocability?

A trust is presumed irrevocable.

9
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What distinguishes a mandatory trust from a discretionary trust?

Mandatory trusts require distribution of all income; discretionary trusts give the trustee discretion over distributions.

10
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To what future‐interest rule are trusts subject?

The Rule Against Perpetuities (unless charitable).

11
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Who is the settlor?

The person who creates or contributes property to the trust.

12
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Can the same individual be sole trustee and sole beneficiary?

No; title would merge and the trust would fail.

13
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Name two basic duties a trustee must have for the trust to stand?

Duties to manage/invest and to distribute according to the terms.

14
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How may a person accept trusteeship if the instrument is silent?

By accepting delivery of property, exercising trustee powers, or performing trustee duties.

15
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What happens if a designated trustee declines within a reasonable time?

They are deemed to have declined; the court will appoint a successor trustee unless the settlor intended otherwise.

16
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Define an express trust?

A trust created by the expressed intent of the owner to create a trust relationship.

17
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List the six elements of a valid private express trust?

(i) Settlor with capacity, (ii) present intent, (iii) identifiable property, (iv) trustee with duties, (v) definite beneficiaries, (vi) valid purpose.

18
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What is a precatory trust?

A gift with language of hope or wish that may be construed as a trust if specific fiduciary instructions and an unnatural disposition absent a trust exist.

19
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What is required for trust property (res)?

It must be owned by the settlor and identifiable/segregated at creation.

20
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What is a pour-over devise?

A will provision directing assets into a trust at the testator’s death.

21
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What is a Totten trust?

A bank account titled "A, trustee for B" where A retains full control during life; revocable and not a true trust.

22
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Under UTMA, what is the role of the custodian?

Manage the account for a minor until the minor reaches 21; the custodian does not hold legal title as trustee.

23
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Why is a life-insurance trust valid even though unfunded at creation?

The policy proceeds constitute the res when the insured dies.

24
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Define a testamentary trust?

A trust whose terms are set out in a will and which takes effect at death.

25
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What is a "secret" trust?

Looks like a gift in a will but relies on the beneficiary’s promise to hold property for another; enforced by constructive trust if proven.

26
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What is a "semi-secret" trust?

Will indicates property is in trust but fails to name beneficiary/terms; gift fails and property goes by resulting trust.

27
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What two requirements make a trust charitable?

A stated charitable purpose and benefit to the community or a changing class of persons.

28
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Name three accepted charitable purposes?

Relief of poverty, advancement of education or religion, promotion of health (also gov./municipal, community benefit).

29
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Are charitable trusts subject to the Rule Against Perpetuities?

No; they may last indefinitely.

30
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What is the cy pres doctrine?

Court modification of a charitable trust to a purpose as near as possible when the original one becomes impossible, impracticable, or illegal.

31
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What is an honorary trust?

A trust without a definite human beneficiary (e.g., for pets or graves) enforceable by statute for a limited period.

32
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When does a resulting trust arise?

When an express trust fails or there is an incomplete disposition, so property returns to settlor or estate.

33
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State the two elements needed to impose a constructive trust?

(1) Defendant holds title to property; (2) retention would unjustly enrich the defendant due to wrongdoing.

34
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What is a spendthrift trust?

A trust that restricts voluntary and involuntary transfer of a beneficiary’s interest while in the trust.

35
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Name two creditor exceptions to a spendthrift clause?

Claims for child/spousal support and tax liens (sometimes providers of necessities).

36
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What is a support trust?

Trust directing trustee to pay income/principal as necessary for beneficiary’s support, maintaining accustomed lifestyle.

37
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Define a discretionary trust?

Trust where trustee has complete discretion whether to distribute income or principal.

38
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Under the Claflin doctrine, when can beneficiaries not terminate a trust?

When continuation is necessary to achieve a material purpose such as spendthrift or discretionary provisions.

39
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What is the default presumption about revocability under the UTC?

Revocable unless stated otherwise.

40
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How may a settlor revoke a revocable trust absent a specified method?

By a later will/codicil referring to the trust or by other clear and convincing evidence of intent.

41
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What duty must a trustee follow immediately upon accepting office?

Safeguard trust property (insure, earmark, record deeds, locate beneficiaries, follow instructions).

42
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Name the overarching fiduciary duties of a trustee?

Duty of loyalty, duty of prudence, duty of impartiality, duty to inform and account.

43
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What is the "no further inquiry" rule regarding self-dealing?

Once self-dealing is shown, it is a per se breach; reasonableness and good faith are irrelevant.

44
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Can a trustee ever engage in self-dealing?

Only if expressly authorized, approved by court, or consented to by all beneficiaries AND the transaction is fair.

45
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What standard governs trustee investments under the Uniform Prudent Investor Act?

A prudent investor standard focusing on total portfolio performance, reasonable care, caution, and skill.

46
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Must a trustee diversify trust investments?

Yes, unless the costs or circumstances make diversification contrary to the trust’s purpose.

47
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What does the duty of impartiality require?

Balancing the interests of income and remainder beneficiaries without favoritism.

48
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What information must a trustee generally provide to beneficiaries on request?

A copy of the trust instrument and accurate information about trust property and administration.

49
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What is the unitrust concept under the UPAIA?

Beneficiaries receive a fixed percentage of the trust’s annual value, making income/principal distinction irrelevant.

50
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Under UPAIA, how are stock dividends normally allocated?

As principal.

51
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What liabilities does a trustee face for breach of trust?

Responsibility for lost profits, lost interest, and other losses; may also be removed.

52
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When is a co-trustee liable for another trustee’s breach?

If the co-trustee consented, failed to prevent, concealed, or improperly delegated regarding the breach.

53
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Is a successor trustee liable for a predecessor’s breach?

Generally no, unless the successor fails to seek redress or secure the property after learning of the breach.

54
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How can a trustee resign?

By 30-day notice to settlor (if living), co-trustees, and qualified beneficiaries, or by court approval.

55
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List one ground for court removal of a trustee?

Incapacity, material breach, conflict of interest, serious conflict with beneficiaries, or persistent poor performance.

56
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What is a power of appointment?

Authority (often given to a beneficiary) to direct the trustee to distribute trust property, sometimes to a limited class.

57
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What is the effect of a beneficiary disclaiming a future interest?

Beneficiary is treated as predeceasing; interest passes to next takers (estate or issue depending on jurisdiction).

58
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Do adopted children generally count as "children" in class gifts today?

Yes, absent contrary intent; UPC treats adopted children as biological for class gifts.

59
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What is the Rule Against Perpetuities period traditionally?

Life in being plus 21 years.

60
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Which trusts are NOT subject to RAP?

Charitable trusts.

61
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Define an executory interest?

A future interest that cuts short a prior vested interest or follows a fee simple subject to an executory limitation.

62
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What happens to excess trust property if a trust purpose fails and there is no gift-over clause?

A resulting trust returns property to the settlor or the settlor’s estate.

63
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Who generally has standing to enforce a charitable trust?

The state attorney general and persons with a special interest in the trust.

64
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In a discretionary trust, when can a beneficiary’s creditors reach trust assets?

Only after the trustee actually decides to make a distribution, unless a spendthrift provision blocks it.

65
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What is required to modify a noncharitable irrevocable trust with beneficiaries’ agreement alone?

Court must find modification is not needed to achieve a material purpose OR no material purpose remains.

66
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What is a gift-over clause?

A provision directing where trust property goes if the trust purpose fails.

67
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Under the UTC, when can a trustee combine or divide trusts?

After notice to qualified beneficiaries, if rights are not impaired and purposes are not adversely affected.

68
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Name two expenses typically charged to trust income?

Half of trustee compensation and ordinary expenses like interest or routine repairs.

69
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Name two expenses typically charged to trust principal?

The other half of trustee compensation and payments on trust debt principal.

70
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What does the Uniform Custodial Trust Act create?

A revocable management trust to handle assets if the grantor becomes incapacitated.

71
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Under the UPIA, may a trustee delegate investment functions?

Yes, if prudent in selecting, instructing, and monitoring the agent.

72
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What is constructive fraud in trust accounting?

Providing false statements in an accounting that proper investigation would have corrected.

73
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How long do most animal (pet) trusts last?

Until the animal (or last surviving animal) dies.