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Last updated 6:50 PM on 7/1/26
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67 Terms

1
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What is the normal reticulocyte count?

0.5–2%.

2
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What is the main diagnosis in a patient with Hb 6.9 g/dL, RBC 2.90 ×10¹²/L, PCV 23.1%, MCV 70.5 fL, MCH 23.8 pg and RDW 18.6%?

Iron deficiency anaemia.

3
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Which haemoglobin finding supports anaemia in iron deficiency?

Low haemoglobin (6.9 g/dL).

4
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Which RBC index indicates microcytosis?

Low MCV.

5
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Which RBC index indicates hypochromia?

Low MCH.

6
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What does an increased RDW indicate?

Anisocytosis (variation in red cell size).

7
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What white cell abnormality may accompany iron deficiency anaemia in this case?

Neutrophilia.

8
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Mention a cause of neutrophilia in iron deficiency anaemia cases.

Stress, infection or a reactive state.

9
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Name one differential diagnosis of iron deficiency anaemia.

Anaemia of chronic disease.

10
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Another differential diagnosis of iron deficiency anaemia?

Thalassaemia trait.

11
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Another differential diagnosis of iron deficiency anaemia?

Lead poisoning.

12
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Another differential diagnosis of iron deficiency anaemia?

Sideroblastic anaemia.

13
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What is the best initial investigation for iron deficiency anaemia?

Serum ferritin.

14
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Which iron study measures circulating iron?

Serum iron.

15
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Which investigation measures the iron-binding capacity of transferrin?

Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC).

16
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Which test estimates the proportion of transferrin occupied by iron?

Transferrin saturation.

17
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How is the nucleus of a plasma cell positioned?

Eccentrically placed.

18
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Describe the chromatin pattern of a plasma cell.

Clock-face (cartwheel) chromatin.

19
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What is the staining characteristic of plasma cell cytoplasm?

Moderately to deeply basophilic.

20
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What produces the perinuclear halo in plasma cells?

Prominent Golgi apparatus.

21
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Plasma cells may occasionally have how many nuclei?

Two or multiple nuclei.

22
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Uniform plasma cells suggest what process?

Clonal proliferation.

23
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Is multiple myeloma a clonal disorder?

Yes.

24
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Which immunoglobulin abnormality characterizes multiple myeloma?

Monoclonal immunoglobulin (M protein).

25
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What is the common differential diagnosis for reactive plasma cell proliferation?

Reactive plasmacytosis.

26
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Which lymphoma may resemble plasma cells morphologically?

Plasmablastic lymphoma.

27
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Which lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma produces IgM paraprotein?

Waldenström macroglobulinaemia.

28
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Which investigation demonstrates the M-protein spike?

Serum protein electrophoresis (SPEP).

29
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Which bone marrow finding confirms multiple myeloma?

More than 10% clonal plasma cells.

30
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Which investigation assesses clonality using the κ/λ ratio?

Serum free light chain assay.

31
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Which differentiated B cell is responsible for antibody production?

Plasma cell.

32
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What is another name for clock-face chromatin?

Spoke-wheel chromatin.

33
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What is another name for the perinuclear clear zone?

Hof.

34
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What characteristic RBC arrangement is seen in multiple myeloma?

Rouleaux formation.

35
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What causes rouleaux formation?

Increased serum proteins reducing RBC surface charge.

36
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How do RBCs appear in rouleaux formation?

Like stacked coins.

37
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Which type of anaemia is classically seen in multiple myeloma?

Normocytic normochromic anaemia.

38
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Why may platelet and neutrophil counts be reduced in multiple myeloma?

Bone marrow crowding suppresses normal haematopoiesis.

39
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Which red cell abnormality with increased reticulocytes suggests haemolytic anaemia?

Spherocytes.

40
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What is the likely diagnosis in severe anaemia with spherocytes and raised reticulocytes?

Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA).

41
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Give another differential diagnosis of haemolytic anaemia.

G6PD deficiency.

42
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Another differential diagnosis of haemolytic anaemia?

Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH).

43
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Which mutation is commonly associated with Polycythaemia Vera?

JAK2 V617F mutation.

44
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Which laboratory value strongly supports Polycythaemia Vera?

Markedly elevated haematocrit.

45
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What genetic abnormality characterizes CML?

t(9;22)(q34;q11), the Philadelphia chromosome.

46
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What fusion gene is produced by the Philadelphia chromosome?

BCR-ABL1.

47
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What is the Leukocyte Alkaline Phosphatase (LAP) score in CML?

Low.

48
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What is the molecular weight of the BCR-ABL protein commonly found in CML?

210 kDa.

49
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What is the shelf life of blood stored in Acid Citrate Dextrose (ACD)?

21 days.

50
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What is the shelf life of blood stored in CPD?

28 days.

51
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What is the shelf life of blood stored in CPDA?

35 days.

52
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What is the shelf life of blood stored in SAGM?

42 days.

53
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How much blood can a standard blood bag hold?

450–465 mL.

54
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What is the minimum weight for blood donation?

50 kg.

55
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What is the minimum height for blood donation according to the slide?

1.5 m.

56
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Which anticoagulant bottle is used for PCV and reticulocyte count?

Potassium EDTA bottle.

57
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How does EDTA prevent clotting?

By chelating calcium.

58
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Which bottle is commonly used for blood grouping and cross-matching?

Plain bottle.

59
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Which bottle is used for PT and aPTT?

Sodium citrate bottle.

60
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Which cell is diagnostic of Hodgkin lymphoma?

Reed–Sternberg cell.

61
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Which chemotherapy regimen is standard for Hodgkin lymphoma?

ABVD.

62
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What does the A in ABVD stand for?

Adriamycin (Doxorubicin).

63
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What does the B in ABVD stand for?

Bleomycin.

64
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What does the V in ABVD stand for?

Vinblastine.

65
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What does the D in ABVD stand for?

Dacarbazine.

66
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What blood film finding is characteristic of β-thalassaemia?

Target cells.

67
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What is the diagnosis when target cells predominate on the smear?

Beta thalassaemia.