Block 2 Quiz

A 5-year-old boy has fallen and has a severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist. He has possible sustained a fracture of the _________ forearm.

a. superior

b. dorsal

c. distal

d. proximal

c. distal

A diabetic patient has polydipsia. This means that she:

a. has low blood sugar

b. urinates frequently

c. is excessively thirsty

d. is unable to swallow

c. is excessively thirsty

A fracture of the humerus just above the elbow would be described as a:

a. proximal humerus fracture

b. proximal elbow fracture

c. distal forearm fracture

d. distal humerus fracture

d. distal humerus fracture

A patient has fractured both femurs. Anatomically, these injuries would be described as being:

a. proximal

b. medial

c. unilateral

d. bilateral

d. bilateral

A patient in a semi-reclined position with the head elevated to facilitate breathing is in the ________ position.

a. prone

b. recovery

c. Fowler

d. supine

c. Fowler

A patient with a pneumothorax has unilateral chest expansion. This means that:

a. only one of his chests rises when he inhales

b. his chest and his abdomen are moving in opposite directions

c. both of his lungs are expanding when he inhales

d. both sides of this chest are moving minimally

a. only one of his chests rises when he inhales

A pregnant patient is diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum. This means that:

a. she has frequent urination

b. she has excessive vomiting

c. her respiratory rate is rapid

d. her unborn baby is very large

b. she has excessive vomiting

A young male jumped from a tree and landed feet first. Which aspect of his body has sustained the initial injury?

a. Plantar

b. Dorsal

c. Palmar

d. Ventral

a. Plantar

After applying a tourniquet, the injury from a patient’s leg stops bleeding. This is called:

a. hemolysis

b. hemiplegia

c. hematemesis

d. hemostasis

d. hemostasis

An intoxicated 40-year-old male is found lying face down. How would you document his body’s position?

a. Recumbent

b. Supine

c. Prone

d. Dorsal

c. Prone

Enlargement of the liver is called:

a. pneumonitis

b. hepatomegaly

c. hydrocephalus

d. nephritis

b. hepatomegaly

In relation to the chest, the back is:

a. inferior

b. anterior

c. ventral

d. posterior

d. posterior

In relation to the wrist, the elbow is:

a. distal

b. proximal

c. medial

d. lateral

b. proximal

Movement or motion away from the body’s midline is called:

a. abduction

b. adduction

c. extension

d. flexion

a. abduction

The_______ of the heart is the inferior portion of the ventricles

a. apex

b. dorsum

c. septum

d. base

a. apex

The term “pericardiocentesis” means:

a. a surgical opening made in the heart

b. surgical repair of the sac around the heart

c. the removal of fluid from around the heart

d. narrowing of the arteries supplying the heart

c. the removal of fluid from around the heart

The term “supraventricular tachycardia” means:

a. a slow heart rate that originates from above the ventricles

b. a rapid heart rate that originates from within the ventricles

c. a slow heart rate that originates from within the ventricles

d. a rapid heart rate that originates from above the ventricles

d. a rapid heart rate that originates from above the ventricles

The topographic term used to describe the location of body parts that are closer toward the midline of the body is:

a. midaxillary

b. midclavicular

c. lateral

d. medial

d. medial

The topographic term used to describe the parts of the body that are nearer to the feet is:

a. inferior

b. dorsal

c. superior

d. internal

a. inferior

Which of the following anatomic terms is synonymous with the word “dorsal”

a. Medial

b. Posterior

c. Palmar

d. Anterior

b. Posterior

All critical life functions are coordinated in which part of the brain?

a. Cerebellum

b. Brainstem

c. Gray matter

d. Cerebrum

b. Brainstem

As the bronchus divides into smaller bronchioles, the terminal ends of these smaller passages form the:

a. alveoli

b. capillaries

c. bronchi

d. pleura

a. alveoli

Dead space is the portion of the respiratory system that is:

a. includes the alveoli and capillaries surrounding the alveoli

b. must be filled with air before gas exchange can take place

c. contains no alveoli and does not participate in gas exchange

d. receives oxygen but is unable to release carbon dioxide

c. contains no alveoli and does not participate in gas exchange

Key hormones of the sympathetic nervous system include:

a. acetylcholine and insulin

b. norepinephrine and acetylcholine

c. glucagon and noradrenaline

d. epinephrine and norepinephrine

d. epinephrine and norepinephrine

Oxygen and carbon dioxide pass across the alveolar membrane in the lungs through a process called:

a. breathing

b. ventilation

c. osmosis

d. diffusion

d. diffusion

Skeletal muscle is also called:

a. autonomic muscle

b. involuntary muscle

c. smooth muscle

d. voluntary muscle

d. voluntary muscle

The axial skeleton is composed of the:

a. skull, face, thorax, and vertebral column

b. arms, legs, and pelvis

c. lower part of the torso and the legs

d. bones that constitute the pelvic girdle

a. skull, face, thorax, and vertebral column

The carpal bones form the:

a. foot

b. wrist

c. ankle

d. hand

b. wrist

The central nervous system is composed of the:

a. spinal cord and sensory nerves

b. brain and spinal cord

c. motor and sensory nerves

d. brain and sensory nerves

b. brain and spinal cord

The elbow is an example of a _______ joint

a. ball-and-socket

b. gliding

c. saddle

d. hinge

d. hinge

The electrical impulse of the heart normally begins at the:

a. atrioventricular node

b. bundle of His

c. sinoatrial node

d. Purkinje fibers

c. sinoatrial node

The exchange of oxygen and nutrients for waste products of metabolism occurs at the cellular level in the:

a. venules

b. capillaries

c. arteries

d. arterioles

b. capillaries

The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through the

a. pulmonary arteries

b. superior venae cavae

c. pulmonary veins

d. inferior venae cavae

c. pulmonary veins

The most distal four spinal vertebrae. which are fused together, form the:

a. ischium

b. coccyx

c. sacrum

d. ilium

b. coccyx

The muscle tissue of the heart is called the:

a. endocardium

b. pericardium

c. myocardium

d. epicardium

myocardium

The nose, chin, umbilicus (navel), and spine are examples of _______ anatomic structures

a. superior

b. midaxillary

c. midline

d. proximal

c. midline

Which of the following glands regulates the function of all other endocrine glands in the body?

a. Pituitary

b. Parathyroid

c. Adrenal

d. Thyroid

a. Pituitary

Which of the following is not a facial bone

a. Mastoid

b. Mandible

c. Maxilla

d. Zygoma

a. Mastoid

Which of the following organs or structures lies within the retroperitoneal space?

a. Kidneys

b. Spleen

c. Gallbladder

d. Ascending aorta

a. Kidneys

White blood cells, which are also called leukocytes, function by:

a. producing the body’s erythrocytes

b. protecting the body from infection

c. carrying oxygen and other nutrients

d. producing blood-clotting factors

b. protecting the body from infection

Age-related changes in the renal system result in:

a. dilation of the blood vessels that supply the nephrons, which allows the kidneys to maintain their function

b. a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed.

c. a significant increase in filtration, which causes the excretion of large amounts of water from the body

d. the formation of large amounts of urine secondary to an increase in kidney mass of up to 20%

b. a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed

An infant of small child’s airway can be occluded if it is overextended or overflexed because:

a. he or she has a long neck, which makes the trachea prone to collapse

b. the tongue is proportionately small and can fall back into the throat

c. the occiput is proportionately large and the trachea is flexible.

d. the back of the head is flat, which prevents a neutral position.

c. the occiput is proportionately large and the trachea is flexible.

At what age does separation anxiety typically peak in infants and small children?

a. 6 to 8 months

b. 18 to 24 months

c. 10 to 18 months

d. 24 to 36 months

c. 10 to 18 months

Breathing is often more difficult in older adults because the:

a. overall size of the airway decreases

b. diaphragm and intercostal muscles enlarge

c. elasticity of the lungs decreases

d. surface area of the alveoli increases

c. elasticity of the lungs decreases

Factors that contribute to a decline in the vital capacity of an elderly patient include all of the following except:

a. decreased residual volume

b. increased stiffness of the thoracic cage

c. a loss of respiratory muscle mass

d. increased surface area available for air exchange

d. increased surface area available for air exchange

In contrast to secure attachment, anxious-avoidant attachment occurs when a child:

a. shows little emotional response to a parent or caregiver following repeated rejection

b. reaches out and explores because he or she knows that the parents are there as a safety net

c. becomes acutely anxious in the presence of strangers or in unfamiliar surroundings

d. clings to a parent or caregiver because he or she knows that the person can be trusted

a. shows little emotional response to a parent or caregiver following repeated rejection

In preconventional reasoning, children

a. act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want

b. make decisions based on their conscience

c. look for approval from their peers and society

d. blame their actions on what they have observed in older children

a. act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want

The average pulse rate of persons between 19 and 40 years of age is typically:

a. 70 beats/min

b. 90 beats/min

c. 80 beats/min

d. 60 beats/min

a. 70 beats/min

The human body should be functioning at its optimal level between the ages of:

a. 18 and 22 years

b. 21 and 30 years

c. 19 and 25 years

d. 25 and 35 years

c. 19 and 25 years

The pulse rate of a child from ages 6 to 12 years is approximately:

a. 60 to 100 beats/min

b. 70 to 120 beats/min

c. 100 to 150 beats/min

d. 90 to 140 beats/min

b. 70 to 120 beats/min

Which of the following are noticeable characteristics of a 9-month-old infant?

a. Knows his or her name, can walk without any assistance

b. places objects in the mouth, pulls himself or herself up

c. responds to his or her name, crawls around efficiently

d. walks without help, becomes frustrated with restrictions

b. places objects in the mouth, pulls himself or herself up

Which of the following is an anatomical difference between children and adults?

a. The trachea of an infant is proportionately longer than an adult’s trachea

b. the rib cage of an infant is less flexible than an adult’s rib cage

c. an infant’s tongue is proportionately larger than an adult’s tongue

d. an infant’s head accounts for less body weight than an adult’s head

c. an infant’s tongue is proportionately larger than an adult’s tongue

Which of the following is not a common factor that would affect a 75-year-old patient’s vital signs?

a. Medications

b. Increased Weight

c. Overall health

d. Medical conditions

b. Increased Weight

Which of the following statements regarding age-related changes in nervous system is correct?

a. Interconnections between brain cells often prevent a loss of knowledge or skill, despite a loss of neurons

b. the metabolic rate in the brain increases with age, but the consumption of oxygen decreases significantly

c. Generally speaking, the brain increase in size by 10% to 20% by the time a person reaches 80 years of age

d. Because of a decrease in the number of brain cells, a person’s level of intelligence decreases with age

a. Interconnections between brain cells often prevent a loss of knowledge or skill, despite a loss of neurons.

Which of the following statements regarding an infant’s vital signs is correct?

a. By six months of age, an infant’s normal tidal volume is 2 to 4 mL/kg

b. An infant’s normal body temperature is typically higher than a preschooler’s normal body temperature

c. An infant’s heart rate generally ranges between 70 and 110 beats/min.

d. An infant’s normal heart rate increases by 10 beats/min each month

b. An infant’s normal body temperature is typically higher than a preschooler’s normal body temperature

Which of the following statements regarding middle adults is correct?

a. Women in the middle adult age group typically experience menopause in their late 50s or early 60s

b. Increased cholesterol levels in the middle adult age group often do not respond to exercise and diet.

c. Cardiovascular health becomes an issue in this age group, as does the greater incidence of cancer.

d. Significant impairments in hearing and vision begin to occur in persons between the ages of 41 and 44 years.

c. Cardiovascular health becomes an issue in this age group, as does the greater incidence of cancer

Which of the following statements regarding psychosocial development in the adolescent age group is correct?

a. Antisocial behavior and peer pressure peak around 14 to 16 years of age.

b. Adolescents are less fixated on their public image than younger children

c. Family conflict decreases as the adolescent gains control of his or her own life

d. Because they think rationally, adolescents are at the lowest risk for suicide

a. Antisocial behavior and peer pressure peak around 14 to 16 years of age

Which of the following statements regarding toddlers and preschoolers is correct?

a. Muscle mass and bone density decrease in toddlers and preschoolers because of increased physical activity.

b. The normal respiratory rate in toddlers and preschoolers is between 12 and 20 breaths/min

c. Toddlers and preschoolers commonly experience upper respiratory infections because of the loss of passive immunity.

d. Toddlers and preschoolers have well-developed lung musculature, even though they have less lung tissue

c. Toddlers and preschoolers commonly experience upper respiratory infections because of the loss of passive immunity.

You are assessing a 13-month-old female who is running a fever and has been vomiting. While you are performing your physical examination of this child, you will most likely find that she:

a. is unable to track your movement with her eyes

b. responds to her name but is fearful of your presence

c. will readily allow you to separate her from her mother

d. has bulging fontanelles secondary to severe dehydration

b. responds to her name but is fearful of your presence

A 20-year-old male with a head injury opens his eyes when you speak to him, is confused as to the time and date, and is able to move all of his extremities on command. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is:

a. 14

b. 10

c. 12

d. 13

d. 13

A blood pressure cuff that is too small for a patient’s arm will give a:

a. falsely high systolic but low diastolic reading

b. falsely low systolic and diastolic reading

c. falsely high systolic and diastolic reading

d. falsely low systolic but high diastolic reading.

c. falsely high systolic and diastolic reading

A patient’s short-term memory is MOST likely intact if they correctly answer questions regarding:

a. person and place

b. event and person

d. time and place

d. day and event

d. day and event

A properly sized blood pressure cuff should cover

a. one half the length between the armpit and the crease at the elbow

b. two thirds the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow

c. the entire upper arm between the armpit and the crease at the elbow

d. one third the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow

b. two thirds the length from the armpit ti the crease at the elbow

After performing a primary assessment, a rapid exam of the body should be performed to:

a. determine the need for spinal motion restriction precautions.

b. identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment

c. look specifically for signs and symptoms of inadequate perfusion

d. find and treat injuries or conditions that do not pose a threat to life

b. identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment

As you assess the head of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, your partner should:

a. prepare the immobilization equipment

b. assess the rest of the body for bleeding

c. look in the ears for gross bleeding

d. maintain stabilization of the head

d. maintain stabilization of the head

Capnography is used to:

a. trend a patient’s blood pressure and assess for shock

b. determine how much carbon dioxide is being exhaled

c. assess how much oxygen is bound to the hemoglobin

d. assess how much oxygen is reaching the body’s tissues

b. determine how much carbon dioxide is being exhaled

Cyanosis of the skin is caused by:

a. venous vasoconstriction

b. decreased blood oxygen

c. peripheral vasodilation

d. increased blood oxygen

b. decreased blood oxygen

In responsive patients who are older than 1 year of age, you should palpate the pulse at the _______ artery

a. carotid

b. femoral

c. radial

d. brachial

c. radial

In the adult, bradycardia is defined as a pulse rate less than ____ beats/min, and tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than _____ beats/min.

a. 30,130

b. 40, 120

c. 50,110

d. 60,100

d. 60,100

The goal of oxygenation for most patients is an oxygen saturation of:

a. 94% to 99%

b. 100%

c. 90% to 94%

d. 88% to 90%

a. 94% to 99%

The goal of the systematic head-to-toe exam that is performed during the secondary assessment is to:

a. assess only the parts of the body that are injured

b. locate injuries not found in the primary assessment

c. definitely rule out significant internal injuries

d. detect and treat all non-life threatening injuries

b. locate injuries not found in the primary assessment

The systematic head-to-toe assessment should be performed on:

A. stable patients who are able to tell you exactly what happened

b. all patients with traumatic injuries who will require EMS transport

c. patients with a significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients

d. responsive medical patients and patients without a significant MOI

c. patients with a significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients

Treatment and transport priorities at the scene of a mass-casualty incident should be determined after:

a. all the patients have been triaged

b. medical control has been contacted

c. area hospitals have been notified

d. a physician arrives at the scene

a. all the patients have been triaged

When performing a reassessment of your patient, you should first:

a. obtain updated vital signs

b. repeat the primary assessment

c. confirm medical history findings

d. reassess your interventions

b. repeat the primary assessment

When you use the palpation method to obtain a blood pressure, the measurement you obtain is the:

a. pulse pressure

b. diastolic blood pressure

c. cardiac output pressure

d. systolic blood pressure

d. systolic blood pressure

Which of the following findings indicated that your patient has a patent airway

a. Inspiratory stridor

b. Audible breathing

c. Unresponsiveness

d. ability to speak

d. ability to speak

Which of the following is an example of a symptom?

a. Hypertension

b. Headache

c. Cyanosis

d. Tachycardia

b. headache

Which of the following medical questions would be of LEAST pertinence in an acute situation?

a. “Does the pain stay in your chest”

b. “Does your mother have diabetes”

c. “Has this ever happened to you before”

d. “Are there medications that you cannot take?”

b. “Does your mother have diabetes”

Which of the following would the EMT likely NOT perform on a responsive patient with a headache and no apparent life-threatening conditions?

a. Noninvasive blood pressure monitoring

b. Systematic head-to-toe examination

c. Assessment of oxygen saturation

d. Focused secondary assessment

b. Systematic head-to-toe examination

A patient who is suspected of being hypoxic and is breathing adequately should be given supplemental oxygen with a:

a. mouth-to-mask device

b. nasal cannula

c. nonrebreathing mask

d. mag-mask device

c. nonrebreathing mask

An oxygen cylinder should be taken out of service and refilled when the pressure inside it is less than:

a. 500 psi

b. 1,000 psi

c. 200 psi

d. 1,500 psi

a. 500 psi

At a flow rate of 6L/min, a nasal cannula can deliver an approximate oxygen concentration of up to:

a. 35%

b. 44%

c. 52%

d. 24%

b. 44%

Gas exchange in the lungs is facilitated by:

a. adequate amounts of surfactant

b. pulmonary capillary constriction

c. water or blood within the alveoli

d. surfactant-destroying organisms

a. adequate amounts of surfactant

High-flow oxygen with a nasal cannula during the preoxygenation phase of endotracheal intubation is called:

a. denitrogenation

b. active ventilation

c. passive ventilation

d. apneic oxygenation

d. apneic oxygenation

Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by period of apnea are called:

a. eupneic respirations

b. agonal respirations

c. ataxic respirations

d. Cheyne-Stokes respirations

d. Cheyne-Stokes respirations

Oxygen toxicity is a condition in which:

a. significantly low levels of oxygen in the blood damage the cellular tissue.

b. excessive blood oxygen levels cause the hypoxic patient to stop breathing

c. decreased levels of oxygen in the blood result in free radical production

d. cellular tissue damage occurs from excessive oxygen levels in the blood

d. cellular tissue damage occurs from excessive oxygen levels in the blood

Structures of the lower airway include all of the following, EXCEPT:

a. the trachea

b. the epiglottis

c. alveoli

d. bronchioles

b. the epiglottis

The diaphragm is innervated by the ____ nerve, which allows it to contract.

a. vagus

b. hypoglossal

c. vestibulocochlear

d. phrenic

d. phrenic

The hypoxic drive is influence by:

a. high blood oxygen levels

b. low blood carbon dioxide levels

c. low blood oxygen levels

d. high blood carbon dioxide levels

c. low blood oxygen levels

The presence of elevated carbon dioxide levels i the blood is called:

a. hypoxemia

b. hypoxia

c. acidosis

d. hypercarbia

d. hypercarbia

The pressure of gas in a full cylinder of oxygen is approximately ________ pounds per square inch (psi).

a. 500

b. 2,000

c. 3,000

d. 1,000

b. 2,000

What is the MOST common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient?

a. The tongue

b. Blood clots

c. Aspirated fluid

d. Vomitus

a. The tongue

Which of the following factors will cause a reduction in minute volume in an adult?

a. respirations of 20 breaths/min

b. Shallow breathing

c. Increased tidal volume

d. Slight increase in respiratory rate

b. Shallow breathing

Which of the following is a late sign of hypoxia?

a. Tachycardia

b. Restlessness

c. Anxiety

d. Cyanosis

d. Cyanosis

Which of the following organs or tissues can survive the longest without oxygen?

a. Liver

b. Heart

c. Kidneys

d. Muscle

d. Muscle

Which of the following oxygen flowmeters is NOT affected by gravity and can be used in any position when attached to an oxygen cylinder?

a. Vertical-position flowmeter

b. Pressure-compensated flowmeter

c. Bourdon-gauge flowmeter

d. Ball-and-float flowmeter

c. Bourdon-gauge flowmeter

Which of the following patients is breathing adequately?

a. A conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin

b. An unconscious 52-year—old female with snoring respirations and cool, pale skin

c. A conscious male with respirations of 18 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume

d. a conscious female with facial cyanosis and rapid, shallow respirations

Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway?

a. Pharynx

b. Bronchus

c. Larynx

d. Oropharynx

b. Bronchus

With a good mask-to-face seal and an oxygen flow rate of 15L/min, the nonrebreathing mask is capable of delivering up to _____% inspired oxygen

a. 90

b. 80

c. 70

d. 100

a. 90

A medication with antagonistic properties is one that:

a. stimulates receptor sites and allows other chemicals to attach to them

b. blocks receptor sites and prevents other chemicals from attaching to them

c. enhances the effects of another medication when given in a higher dose

d. produces a cumulative effect when mixed with the same type of medication

b. blocks receptor sites and prevents other chemicals from attaching to them