antimicrobial therapy (without cell wall inhibitors)

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73 Terms

1
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What is the mechanism of action for ß-lactams, Vancomycin, and bacitracin?

Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

2
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What is the mechanism of action for Tetracyclines, Aminoglycosides, and Macrolides?

Inhibition of protein synthesis

3
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What is the mechanism of action for Quinolones and Rifampicin?

Inhibition of RNA and DNA synthesis

4
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What is the mechanism of action for Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim?

Inhibition of folate synthesis

5
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What is the mechanism of action for Polymyxin, Polyenes, and Daptomycin?

Disruption of cell membrane function

6
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How do Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis?

They compete with tRNA on the 30S ribosomal subunit

7
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Are Tetracyclines bacteriostatic or bactericidal?

Bacteriostatic

8
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What substances significantly decrease the oral absorption of tetracyclines?

Dairy products, Ca, Mg, Fe, & Al

9
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Which tetracycline is excreted in bile and allowed in renal patients?

Doxycycline

10
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What is a major use for tetracyclines in dentistry?

Management of periodontal disease

11
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What is a common GIT side effect of tetracyclines?

Nausea, vomiting, epigastric pain

12
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What is a common superinfection caused by tetracyclines?

Candida (vaginal or intestinal)

13
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What are the effects of tetracyclines on teeth and bone?

Discoloration of teeth, dental hypoplasia, and bone deformities

14
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Why are tetracyclines contraindicated in pregnancy?

Teratogenicity (bone and teeth abnormalities in fetus)

15
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What syndrome is associated with expired tetracyclines?

Fanconi syndrome

16
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How do Aminoglycosides inhibit protein synthesis?

Bind to 30S ribosomal subunits, causing misreading of mRNA

17
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Are Aminoglycosides bacteriostatic or bactericidal?

Bactericidal

18
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Are aminoglycosides well-absorbed orally?

No, they are polar compounds and must be given parenterally for systemic effect

19
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What is a common oral use for Neomycin?

To sterilize the gut before GIT operations or in hepatic coma

20
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What is the main adverse effect of Aminoglycosides on the 8th cranial nerve?

Ototoxicity (auditory and vestibular), which can be irreversible

21
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What is a major adverse effect of Aminoglycosides on the kidneys?

Nephrotoxicity

22
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What is the mechanism of macrolides (e.g., Erythromycin)?

Bind irreversibly to the 50S ribosomal subunit, inihibiting the translocation step

23
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Is Erythromycin stable in acid?

No, it must be given as enteric-coated tablets

24
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What is a major therapeutic use for Erythromycin in dentistry?

Second choice to penicillin for dental infections in allergic patients

25
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What is a characteristic adverse effect of Erythromycin?

Cholestatic jaundice

26
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Which macrolide is effective against H. influenzae and has a longer duration than erythromycin?

Clarithromycin

27
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Which macrolide has a long duration (once daily) and is preferred for chlamydia infections?

Azithromycin

28
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How does Chloramphenicol work?

Binds to 50S ribosomal subunit, inhibiting transpeptidation

29
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What is the most serious, idiosyncratic, non-dose-related adverse effect of Chloramphenicol?

Fatal aplastic anemia

30
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What is the reversible, dose-related adverse effect of Chloramphenicol?

Reversible anemia

31
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What is "Gray baby syndrome" caused by?

Accumulation of chloramphenicol in premature neonates

32
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Why is Chloramphenicol a risk for drug interactions?

It inhibits hepatic microsomal enzymes (HME)

33
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What is the principal use for Clindamycin?

Anaerobic infections (especially Bacteroides fragilis)

34
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What is a major adverse effect of Clindamycin?

Pseudomembranous colitis

35
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What is the treatment for pseudomembranous colitis?

Oral metronidazole or vancomycin

36
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What is the mechanism of action for Quinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin)?

Inhibition of DNA gyrase enzyme, preventing DNA supercoiling

37
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Are quinolones bacteriostatic or bactericidal?

Bactericidal

38
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Which generation of quinolones includes Ciprofloxacin and Ofloxacin?

Second generation

39
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Which generation of quinolones added anaerobic activity?

Fourth generation (e.g., trovafloxacin)

40
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What is a major adverse effect of quinolones on cartilage?

Damage to growing cartilage (arthropathy)

41
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Why are quinolones contraindicated in pregnancy, lactation, and patients under 18?

Risk of arthropathy

42
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What is the mechanism of action for Rifampicin?

Inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

43
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What is a characteristic, harmless side effect of Rifampicin?

Red discoloration of urine and all excreta

44
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Why does Rifampicin have many drug interactions?

It is a potent hepatic microsomal enzyme (HME) inducer

45
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What is the primary use for Rifampicin?

Treatment of TB and leprosy

46
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What is the mechanism of action for Sulfonamides?

They are bacteriostatic

47
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What is a major adverse effect of Sulfonamides on the kidney?

Crystalluria

48
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How can sulfonamide-induced crystalluria be avoided?

Plenty of fluids and alkalinization of urine

49
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Why are Sulfonamides contraindicated in pregnancy and infants?

Displace bilirubin, causing kernicterus

50
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What is Co-Trimoxazole?

A combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim

51
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How does Co-Trimoxazole work?

It produces a sequential block in folic acid synthesis, making it bactericidal

52
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What is the mechanism of Metronidazole?

It is reduced to an active metabolite that binds to DNA and inhibits nucleic acid synthesis

53
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What is a common dental use for Metronidazole?

Acute ulcerative gingivitis and dental abscess

54
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What is a characteristic adverse effect of Metronidazole?

Metallic taste

55
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What reaction occurs if alcohol is taken with Metronidazole?

Disulfiram-like reaction

56
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Why is combination drug therapy a "must" for tuberculosis?

To prevent the development of resistance

57
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What are the four "first-line" drugs for TB?

Isoniazid (INH), Rifampin, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol

58
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What is the mechanism of Isoniazid (INH)?

It is a prodrug that inhibits the synthesis of mycolic acid (cell wall)

59
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What is the most serious adverse effect of INH?

Hepatitis

60
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What common adverse effect of INH is caused by pyridoxine deficiency?

Peripheral neuropathy

61
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How is INH-induced peripheral neuropathy prevented?

Supplementation with pyridoxine (vitamin B6)

62
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What is the mechanism of action for Ethambutol?

Inhibits arabinosyl transferase, an enzyme for mycobacterial cell wall synthesis

63
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What is the most important adverse effect of Ethambutol?

Optic neuritis (loss of red-green color discrimination)

64
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What is a common adverse effect of Pyrazinamide?

Uric acid retention (can precipitate a gouty attack)

65
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What is DOT (Directly Observed Therapy) in TB treatment?

Patients take medications while being watched by a healthcare worker to improve cure rates and decrease resistance

66
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What are examples of second-line anti-TB drugs?

Aminoglycosides (Streptomycin), Fluoroquinolones

67
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What is the mechanism of action for Amphotericin B?

Binds to ergosterol in the fungal cell membrane, forming pores

68
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What are the immediate adverse effects of Amphotericin B infusion?

Fever, chills, vomiting, hypotension

69
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What is the major delayed toxicity of Amphotericin B?

Nephrotoxicity

70
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What is the mechanism of action for Azole antifungals (e.g., Ketoconazole)?

Inhibit fungal cytochrome P450, reducing ergosterol synthesis

71
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Which systemic azole is known for causing adrenal/gonadal hormone dysfunction?

Ketoconazole

72
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What is the mechanism of action for Nystatin?

Same as Amphotericin B (binds to ergosterol)

73
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What is the primary use for oral Nystatin?

Topical treatment of oral moniliasis (Candida)