Unit 4 Questions

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55 Terms

1
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All of the following could be virulence factors except:

  • Fimbriae

  • Capsule

  • Cell membrane

  • Flagella

  • Toxin

  • Cell membrane

2
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A-E all contribute to a pathogen’s ability to penetrate and/or hide from a host’s defenses except:

  • Invasins

  • Capsule

  • antigenic variation (phase variation)

  • hyaluronidase

  • coagulases

  • There are no exceptions, A-E are all correct

  • There are no exceptions, A-E are all correct

3
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Which of the following virulence factors among A-E is correctly matched with its definition or characterization?

  • Invasins: prevents opsonization of pathogen

  • Transcytosis: mechanism by which a pathogen might pass through tissues

  • OPA protein or M protein: type of exotoxins

  • Hyaluronidase or coagulase: used for attachment to cells, a type of adhesin

  • All are correctly mathced

  • Transcytosis: mechanism by which a pathogen might pass through tissues

4
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If a vaccine to a specific viral disease only a viral envelope protein, this would be called

  • A live attenuated vaccine

  • a nucleic acid vaccine

  • a recombinant vector vaccine

  • a subunit vaccine

  • an inactivated killed vaccine

  • a conjugated vaccine

  • none of the above

  • a subunit vaccine

5
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If a vaccine contained an avirulent form of a whole virus, capable of replicating, this would be called

  • a live attenuated vaccine

  • a nucleic acid vaccine

  • a recombinant vector vaccine

  • a subunit vaccine

  • an inactivated killed vaccine

  • a conjugated vaccine

  • possibly two of the above

  • a live attenuated vaccine

6
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The most selective antimicrobial activity would be exhibited by a drug that

  • inhibits cell wall synthesis

  • inhibits protein synthesis

  • injures the plasma membrane

  • inhibits nucleic acid synthesis

  • all of the above

  • inhibits cell wall synthesis

7
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All of the following are modes of action of antiviral drugs except

  • inhibition of protein synthesis

  • inhibition of DNA synthesis

  • inhibition of RNA synthesis

  • inhibition of uncoating

  • All of the above are modes of action of antiviral drugs

  • inhibition of protein synthesis

8
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Within a few weeks of treatment with teh drug 3TC, a patient’s HIV population consists entirely of 3TC-resistant viruses. How can this result best be explained

  • The drug caused the HIV RNA genome to change

  • A few drug resistant viruses were present at the start of treatment and natural selection increased their frequency

  • HIV began making drug resistant versions of reverse transcriptase (a viral enzyme) in response to the drug

  • A few drug resistant viruses were present at the start of treatment and natural selection increased their frequency

9
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Which among A-F is incorrect?

  • Streptococcus pathogen: necrotizing fasciitis

  • Staphylococcus pathogen: boils

  • Streptococcus pathogen: strep throat

  • Staphylococcus pathogen: scalded skin syndrome

  • Streptococcus pathogen: shingles

  • Staphylococcus pathogen: folliculitis & impetigo

  • A-F are all correct

  • Streptococcus pathogen: shingles

10
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All of these typically could potentially cause meningitis EXCEPT

  • Listeria monocytogenes

  • Neisseria meningitidis

  • Streptococcus pneumoniae

  • Rabies virus

  • All of these can cause meningitis

  • Rabies virus

11
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<p>Regarding the pathogen presented thus far, what would be the reservoir of those microbes</p><ul><li><p>Soil</p></li><li><p>Water</p></li><li><p>Humans</p></li><li><p>Animals</p></li><li><p>None of the above</p></li></ul><p></p>

Regarding the pathogen presented thus far, what would be the reservoir of those microbes

  • Soil

  • Water

  • Humans

  • Animals

  • None of the above

12
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<p>This person is suffering from</p><ul><li><p>A bad back</p></li><li><p>Meningitis</p></li><li><p>Botulism</p></li><li><p>Listeriosis</p></li><li><p>Tetanus</p></li></ul><p></p>

This person is suffering from

  • A bad back

  • Meningitis

  • Botulism

  • Listeriosis

  • Tetanus

  • Tetanus

13
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Humans most frequently contract rabies from the bite of a

  • Rat

  • Cat

  • Bat

  • Dog

  • Other

  • Bat

14
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Which of A-F is not correctly matched?

  • Infectious disease initially appears in one form, then years later can assume a different form: Herpes-Zoster virus

  • Intracellular foodborne pathogen that can grow at 4ºC: Listeria monocytogenes

  • Toxin blocks ability of muscles to contract: Botulism

  • Gram-negative diplococci able to cross the blood-brain barrier: Neisseria sp.

  • Lesser virulent member of this group of Gram-positive cocci arranged in grape-like cluster: Staphylococcus epidermidis

  • Vaccine can be given for treatment following infection: rabies

  • A-F are all correctly matched

  • A-F are all correctly matched

15
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Most respiratory infections and gastrointestinal infections are _____ in nature

  • Bacterial

  • Fungal

  • Protozoal

  • Viral

  • Viral

16
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Which of A-F is not correctly matched?

  • Pneumonic form of the disease caused by this pathogen is the most contagious: Yersinia pestis

  • Common protozoal pathogen causing GI tract infections: Giardia lamblia

  • One of its toxins kills ciliated cells in the trachea: Treponema pallidum

  • Facultative intracellular foodborne pathogen: Salmonella enteritidis

  • Can be the cause of pneumonia and meningitis: Streptococcus pneumonia

  • In nature, often found in amoebas: Legionella peumophila

  • A-F are all correctly matched

  • One of its toxins kills ciliated cells in the trachea: Treponema pallidum

17
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Which of A-E is not considered an obligate or facultative type of intracellular pathogen?

  • Legionella pneumophila

  • Listeria monocytogenes

  • Rabies virus

  • Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)

  • Neisseria meningitidis

  • All are considered either obligate or facultative type of intracellular pathogen

  • All are considered either obligate or facultative type of intracellular pathogen

18
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Bacteria

  • are totally awesome

  • my best friends

  • are part of my innate immune system

  • are my reason for living

  • All the above

  • All the above

19
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Which of the following represents a DNA vaccine?

  • attenuated measles virus

  • a plasmid containing genes for influenza type A protein

  • hepatitis B antigen produced in yeast cells

  • tetanus toxoid

  • a plasmid containing genes for influenza type A protein

20
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The administration of infectious material into the skin as done with smallpox to generate immunity is termed

  • variolation

  • agglutination

  • phagocytosis

  • endotoxin effect

  • variolation

21
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Which of the following among A-D is false?

  • Gram-negative bacteria: possess endotoxin

  • Syncytium formation: cytocidal effect of a virus

  • Subunit vaccine: contains live, attenuated organisms

  • A-B toxins: exotoxins possessing a targeting binding component and a component that disrupts cell function

  • None of A-D are false, all are true

  • Subunit vaccine: contains live, attenuated organisms

22
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All of the following are modes of action of antiviral drugs except:

  • inhibition of adherence to a cell

  • inhibition of DNA synthesis

  • Inhibition of RNA synthesis

  • Inhibition of uncoating

  • All of the above are modes of action of antiviral drugs

  • All of the above are modes of action of antiviral drugs

23
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Within a few weeks of treatment for herpes virus with the drug isoniazid, a patient’s herpes virus population consists entirely of isoniazid-resistant viruses. How can this be best explained?

  • The drug caused the HIV RNA genome to change

  • The isoniazid drug spontaneously converted to a form ineffective against the virus

  • HIV began making drug-resistant versions of reverse transcriptase (a viral enzyme) in response to the drug

  • None of the above

  • None of the above

24
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In the presence of penicillin, a cell dies because

  • it lacks a cell wall

  • it undergoes lysis

  • it lacks a cell membrane

  • it shrinks

  • it undergoes lysis

25
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Which of the following virulence factors among A-D is correctly matched with its definition or characterization?

  • Invasins: prevents opsonization of pathogen

  • Antigenic variation: allows pathogen to switch between different forms of an extracellular antigen (e.g., flagellum)

  • opa protein or M protein: type of exotoxins

  • Hyaluronidase or coagulase: used for attachment to cells, a type of adhesin

  • All are correctly matched

  • Antigenic variation: allows pathogen to switch between different forms of an extracellular antigen (e.g., flagellum)

26
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Superantigen type toxins lead to the release of excessive amounts of _____ stimulating a hyperactive immune response that can lead to shock and death in teh affected individual

  • antibodies

  • Antigenic variation: allows pathogen to switch between different forms of an extracellular antigen (e.g., flagellum)

  • water

  • antigen

  • interferon

  • cytokines

27
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All of the following contribute to a pathogen’s ability to penetrate host defenses or hide from host defenses EXCEPT:

  • toxins

  • capsules

  • antigenic variation

  • hyaluronidase

  • coagulases

  • toxins

28
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M protein, hyaluronidase, collagenase, and often a capsule, can be virulence factors for certain pathogenic strains of

  • Listeria

  • Streptococcus

  • Neisseria

  • Staphylococcus

  • Yersinia

  • Streptococcus

29
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Respiratory pathogen characterized by pseudomembrane formation in the pharynx and toxin production

  • Bordetella pertussis

  • Streptococcus pneumoniae

  • Corynebacterium diphtheriae

  • Streptococcus pyogenes

  • Legionella pneumonia

  • Corynebacterium diphtheriae

30
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Which of the following virulence factors among A-D is correctly matched with its definition or characterization?

  • Invasins: prevents opsonization of pathogen

  • Antigenic variation: allows pathogen to switch between different forms of an extracellular antigen (e.g., flagellum)

  • Opa protein or M protein: type of exotoxins

  • Hyaluronidase or coagulase: used for attachment to cells, a type of adhesin

  • All are correctly matched

  • Antigenic variation: allows pathogen to switch between different forms of an extracellular antigen (e.g., flagellum)

31
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Which pathogen description pair among A-E is incorrectly matched?

  • Treponema pallidum: can become a latent infection that later results in shingles

  • Staphylococcus aureus: some strains form exotoxins that cause gastroenteritis

  • Streptococcus mutans: Gram-positive, alpha-hemolytic pathogen that can cause cavities in your teeth

  • Streptococcus pneumoniae: primary cause of bacterial pneumonia among humans

  • Yersinia pestis: vector borne disease that causes a sytemic infection

  • A-E are all correctly matched

  • Treponema pallidum: can become a latent infection that later results in shingles

32
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Which is false among A-C regarding sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)?

  • Treponema pallidum: causative agent of syphilis

  • Since STD pathogens are susceptible to drying out, they require direct contact with mucous membranes for transmission

  • Tertiary syphilis: presence of chancres at site of infection caontaining pathogen

  • None of A-C are false; all are true statement

  • Tertiary syphilis: presence of chancres at site of infection caontaining pathogen

33
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Which of A-F is not correctly matched?

  • More likely to cause GI tract upset than any other microbe: virus, e.g., rotavirus

  • Spirochete-causing STD: Treponema pallidum

  • Intracellular foodborne pathogen that can cause meningitis: Listeria monocytogenes

  • Gram-negative vector borne pathogen that is at its most contagious if it enters the lungs: Yersinia pestis

  • This Gram positive causes GI problems without being in your gut: Staphylococcus aureus

  • An intracellular pathogen; disease outbreaks associated with contaminated water used for commercial AC ventilation systems: Legionella

  • A-F are all correctly matched

  • A-F are all correctly matched

34
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All of the following are modes of action of antiviral drugs except

  • inhibition of protein synthesis at 70s ribosomes

  • inhibition of DNA synthesis

  • inhibition of RNA synthesis

  • inhibition of uncoating

  • All of the above are modes of action of antiviral drugs

  • inhibition of protein synthesis at 70s ribosomes

35
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For which diseases listed below does the pathogen responsible have to cross the blood-brain barrier in order to produce the disease?

  • Necrotizing fasciitis

  • meningococcal meningitis

  • dysentery

  • tetanus

  • plague

  • meningococcal meningitis

36
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For which disease listed below might treatment include vaccination after the individual has already acquired the pathogen; this is possible due to the slow nature of growth of the agent and the resulting slow progress of the disease.

  • Necrotizing fasciitis

  • meningococcal meningitis

  • rabies

  • tetanus

  • plague

  • rabies

37
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Superantigen type toxins lead to the release of excessive amounts of _______ stimulating a hyperactive immune response that can lead to shock and death in the affected individual.

  • antibodies

  • cytokines

  • water

  • antigen

  • interferon

  • cytokines

38
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In the presence of penicillin, a cell dies because

  • it lacks a cell wall

  • it undergoes lysis

  • it lacks a cell membrane

  • it shrinks

  • it undergoes lysis

39
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Within a few weeks of treatment with the drug 3TC, a patient’s HIV population consists entirely of 3TC-resistant viruses. How can this result best be explained?

  • The drug caused the HIV RNA genome to change

  • A few drug-resistant viruses were present at the start of treatment and natural selection increased their frequency

  • HIV began making drug-resistant versions of reverse transcriptase (a viral enzyme) in response to the drug

  • None of the above

  • A few drug-resistant viruses were present at the start of treatment and natural selection increased their frequency

40
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Which of the following represents a toxoid vaccine?

  • attenuated measles virus

  • a plasmid containing genes for influenza type A protein

  • hepatitis B antigen produced in yeast cells

  • tetanus vaccine

  • tetanus vaccine

41
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If a vaccine to a specific viral disease contained only a virus envelope protein, this would be called

  • a live attenuated vaccine

  • a nucleic acid vaccine

  • a recombinant vector vaccine

  • a subunit vaccine

  • a conjugated vaccine

  • an inactivated killed vaccine

  • a subunit vaccine

42
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Use of antibiotics in animal feed leads to antibiotic-resistant bacteria because

  • bacteria from other animals replace those killed by the antibiotics

  • the few surviving bacteria that are affected by the antibiotics develop immunity to the antibiotics, which they pass on their progeny

  • teh antibiotics cause new mutations to occur in the surviving bacteria, which results in resistance to antibiotics

  • the antibiotics kill susceptible bacteria, but the few that are naturally resistant live and reproduce, and their progeny repopulate the host animal

  • the antibiotics persist in soil and water

  • the antibiotics kill susceptible bacteria, but the few that are naturally resistant live and reproduce, and their progeny repopulate the host animal

43
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All of the following contribute to a pathogen’s ability to penetrate host defenses or hide from host defenses, EXCEPT

  • toxins

  • capsules

  • antigenic variation

  • hyaluronidase

  • coagulases

  • toxins

44
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For which disease, or diseases, are humans the primary reservoirs?

  • plague

  • tetanus

  • meningitis

  • listeriosis

  • none of the above

  • meningitis

45
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The group contains pathogens that can be differentiated by reactions observed on blood agar

  • Staphylococcus

  • Listeria

  • Streptococcus

  • Neisseria

  • E coli

  • Streptococcus

46
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Botulism differs from tetanus in that

  • botulism causes flaccid paralysis and tetanus causes spastic paralysis

  • tetanus is a food-borne disease and botulism is airborne

  • botulism is due to an exotoxin and tetanus is due to an endotoxin

  • botulism toxin acts directly on muscle cells

  • two of the above are correct

  • botulism causes flaccid paralysis and tetanus causes spastic paralysis

47
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The gram stain would not be an effective tool to assist in the identification of this pathogen

  • Listeria monocytogenes

  • Giardia lamblia

  • Yersinia pestis

  • Clostridium tetani

  • Shigella dysenteriae

  • The identification of all the above can be aided by performing a Gram stain

  • Giardia lamblia

48
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The presence of Gram-negative diplococci in cerebrospinal fluid is generally diagnostic for

  • gonorrhea

  • tetanus

  • meningococcal meningitis

  • syphilis

  • listeriosis

  • meningococcal meningitis

49
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Which characteristic or feature among A-D is not applicable to the listeriosis pathogen

  • capable of multiplying within a cell

  • ability to grow at 4ºC

  • polymerization of actin for cellular movement

  • is widespread in soil, water, animals

  • all are applicable

  • all are applicable

50
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Botulism toxin, tetanus toxin, and vibrio enterotoxin are all examples of

  • endotoxin

  • exotoxin

  • A-B type toxins

  • membrane-disrupting toxins

  • two of the above are correct

  • two of the above are correct

51
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Endotoxins

caused by gram-negatives

52
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Exotoxins

  • Cell membrane disruptors

  • protein synthesis disrupters

  • second messenger pathway disrupters

  • superantigen

  • proteases

53
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Adhesins

  • Fimbriae/pili; glycoproteins

  • M protein; Opa protein

54
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Intracellular pathogens

  • Invade host cell → invasins; membrane ruffling of host cell; actin rockets

  • Ingestion via phagosome → break out; survive in phagolysosome; prevent fusion w/ lysosome

55
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Extracellular pathogens

  • Capsule

  • Bind/degrade antibodies → Proteins A (Staph); IgA protease (Neisseria)

  • Bind complement → M protein (Strep)

  • Phase variation