ITIL 4

What is the definition of Utility?

A. A tangible or intangible deliverable that is produced by carrying out an Activity

B. The assurance that a product or service will meet agreed requirements

C. A possible event that could cause harm or less, or make it more difficult to achieve objectives

D. The functionality offered by a product or service to meet a particular need

D

What is defined as "perceived benefits, usefulness and importance of something"?

A. Outputs

B. Value

C. Warranty

D. Outcomes

B

Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence: An organization is a person or a group of people that has its own functions with _______ to achieve its objectives?

A. Outputs and outcomes

B. Utility

C. Responsibilities, Authorities and Relationships

D. Products and services

C

A service provider describes a package that includes a mobile phone, with network access and 24/7 phone support. What is this an example of?

A. An outcome

B. A service offering

C. Warranty of a service

D. Value

B

A service provider states that their service provides 99.9% availability. What is this an example of?

A. A service offering

B. Warranty of a service

C. An outcome

D. Value

B

Which describes outputs?

A. Configuration of an organization's resources

B. Results for a stakeholder

C. Functionality offered by a product or service

D. Tangible or in tangible deliverables

D

Which describes products?

A. Functionality offered by a product or service

B. Results for a stakeholder

C. Configuration of an organization's resources

D. Tangible or intangible deliverables

C

"A means of enabling value co-creation by facilitating outcomes that customers want to achieve, without the customers having to manage specific cot or risk." What ITIL definition is this?

A. Service

B. Products

C. Service management

D. Outputs

A

What is the utility of a service?

A. Assurance that the service will meet security requirements

B. End-to-end service performance

C. Reliability of the components

D. Service functionality

D

What's the definition of an output?

A. A result for a stakeholder enabled by one or more outputs

B. A tangible or intangible deliverable of an activity

C. Activities performed by an organization to consume services

D. Joint activities performed by a service provider and a service consumer to ensure continual value co-creation based on agreed and available service offerings

B

Which of the following could be parts of service offering?

1. Goods

2. Policies

3. Access to resources

4. Service actions

A. 1, 2, 3

B. 1, 2, 4

C. 1, 3, 4

D. 2, 3, 4

C

Which is the best definition of a customer?

A. A person who is willing to provide a service

B. A person who authorizes budgets for service consumption. Can also be used to describe an organization or individual that provides financial or other support for an initiative

C. A person who uses services

D. A person who defines the requirements for a service and takes responsibility for the outcomes of service consumption

D

The ultimate value of a service is determined by?

A. The customer

B. The service provider

C. The supplier

D. The service relationship manager

A

A service provider suggests that they provide recovery of a service in 24 hours in the event of a disaster. What is this an example of?

A. An outcome

B. Value

C. Warranty of a service

D. A service offering

C

Which is NOT a benefit of adopting ITIL practices??

A. Support new digital business models

B. Create new revenue streams and sources of competitive advantage

C. Balance agility and stability

D. Demonstrate compliance with a standard

D

"A set of specialized organizational capabilities for enabling value for customers in the form of services" is the ITIL definition of?

A. Service management

B. Services

C. Products

D. Outcomes

A

What is the key focus of the "organizations & people" dimension?

A. Security & Compliance

B. Roles & responsibilities

C. Knowledge sharing with Partners

D. Activity workflows

B

Which service management dimension is focused on third parties and how they are managed?

A. Value streams and processes

B. Information and technology

C. Organizations and people

D. Partners and suppliers

D

Which is a key focus of the "value streams and processes" dimension?

A. Security and compliance

B. Knowledge sharing with partners

C. Roles and responsibilities

D. Activity workflows

D

Which of these are dimensions of service management?

1. Organizations and People

2. Hardware and Software

3. Information and Technology

4. Value Streams and Processes

A. 2, 3, 4

B. 1, 2, 4

C. 1, 2, 3

D. 1, 3, 4

D

Which is a focus of the "suppliers and partners" dimension?

A. Relationships with providers

B. Security and compliance

C. Activity workflows

D. Roles and responsibilities

A

Which guiding principle recommends an investigation of existing capabilities before starting a practice over?

A. Focus on value

B. Progress interactively with feedback

C. Collaborate and promote visibility

D. Start where you are

D

Which describes the principle "start where you are"?

A. Reviewing how an improvement initiative can be organized into smaller, manageable sections that can be completed in a timely manner

B. Reviewing service management practices and removing any unnecessary complexity

C. Using the four dimensions of service management to ensure coordination of all aspects of an improvement initiative

D. Conducting a review of existing service management practices and deciding what to keep and what to discard

D

Which describes the "focus on value" principle?

A. Conducting a review of existing service management practices and deciding what to keep and what to discard

B. Reviewing how an improvement initiative can be organized into smaller, manageable sections that can be completed in a timely manner

C. Investigating why the customers uses the services and how the service helps them meet their goals

D. Reviewing service management practices and removing any unnecessary complexity

C

Which guiding principle begins with assessing who the customers and stakeholders are?

A. Optimize and automate

B. Focus on value

C. Progress interactively with feedback

D. Keep it simple and practical

B

Which of the following are tools for collaborating and promoting visibility?

A. SWOT analysis

B. Balanced scorecard

C. Kanban board

D. Continual improvement model

C

In which of the guiding principles is theory of constraints highlighted?

A. Optimize and automate

B. Start where you are

C. Focus on value

D. Think and work holistically

D

Which is NOT one of the "optimization" steps in "optimize and automate?"

A. Customer preparation

B. Desired future state

C. Stakeholder engagement

D. Monitoring feedback

A

Which value chain activity provides information about service improvements to all value chain activities?

A. Engage

B. Improve

C. Deliver and support

D. Obtain/build

B

Which value chain activity uses service components to fulfill service request?

A. Improve

B. Engage

C. Deliver and support

D. Obtain/build

C

Which value chain activity includes communications with customers and users?

A. Deliver and support

B. Obtain/build

C. Design and transition

D. Engage

D

Which value chain activity includes reviewing service performance with customers?

A. Plan

B. Improve

C. Obtain/build

D. Engage

D

Which value chain activity includes establishing enterprise architecture?

A. Plan

B. Improve

C. Obtain/build

D. Engage

A

Which value chain activity includes the introduction of new or changed services?

A. Plan

B. Obtain/build

C. Engage

D. Design and Transition

D

Which value chain activity includes providing components?

A. Engage

B. Plan

C. Obtain/build

D. Improve

C

Which value chain activity provides stakeholder feedback for improvements?

A. Design and transition

B. Deliver and support

C. Obtain/build

D. Engage

D

Which value chain activity produces requirements and specifications?

A. Design and transition

B. Engage

C. Obtain/build

D. Deliver and support

A

Which are the key activities of governance?

1. Plan

2. Evaluate

3. Direct

4. Monitor

A. 1, 3, 4

B. 1, 2, 4

C. 1, 2, 3

D. 2, 3, 4

D

Which of the following is true of a value chain?

A. Defines a single sequence of activities and aren't combined in different ways

B. Doesn't consider needed skills and competencies

C. Supports a single ITIL practice

D. Converts inputs into outputs

D

How does prioritization of Incidents assist incident management?

A. It determines the resource assigned to the incident

B. It helps direct the incident to the correct support area

C. It helps determine which incidents should be resolved first

D. It determines how the service provider is perceived

C

Which is a purpose of the "problem management" practice?

A. To reduce the likelihood and impact of incidents by identifying actual and potential causes of incidents

B. To maximize the number of successful IT changes by ensuring risks are properly assessed

C. To set clear business-based targets for service performance

D. To capture the demand for incident resolution and service request

A

How does "service level management" contribute to "obtain/build" value chain activity?

A. It analyzes data to identify opportunities that provide new service request options

B. It ensures users continue to be productive when they need assistance from the service provider

C. It acquires pre-approved service components to help fulfill service request

D. It collects user-specific requirements, sets expectations and provides status updates

D

What should be included in every service level agreement?

A. Details of the process-based metrics used

B. Technical description of the service components and how they are operated

C. Expectations of both parties

D. Legal language

C

What is a normal change?

A. A change that is assessed, authorized and scheduled as part of "continual improvement"

B. A change that doesn't need a risk assessment because it is required to resolve an incident

C. A change that doesn't need a risk assessment because the procedure has been pre-authorized

D. A change that needs to be assessed, authorized and scheduled by a change authority

D

What is the purpose of "continual improvement"?

A. To align the organizations practices and services with changing business needs through the ongoing identification and improvement of services

B. To ensure that accurate and reliable information about the configuration of supplier's services are available when and where it's needed

C. To ensure that the organizations suppliers and their performance are managed appropriately at strategic and tactical levels through coordinated marketing, selling and delivery activities

D. To ensure that the organizations suppliers and their performance are managed appropriately to support the provision of seamless, quality products and services

A

Which statement about an emergency change is CORRECT?

A. Emergency changes should be pre-approved and defined with change models

B. Emergency changes can be implemented without authorization from a change authority

C. Emergency changes require expedited handling and may reduce testing

D. Emergency changes will be reviewed at the next scheduled change authority meeting

C

Which is NOT a recommendation of the "continual improvement" practice?

A. External suppliers should be included in improvement initiatives

B. All improvements should be managed as multi-phase projects

C. Continual improvements should be integrated with other practices

D. There should be a small team dedicated to leading continual improvements efforts

B

Which is NOT a recommendation of the "service desk" practice?

A. Service desk should always be a physical team in a single fixed location

B. Service desk can use technologies such as SMS and chat functions

C. Service desk can be highly technical functions depending on the organizations need.

D. Service desk should have a practical understanding of the wider business

A

Which practice has the purpose of maximizing the number of successful changes?

A. Release management

B. Change Enablement

C. Service request management

D. Deployment management

B

Which is the purpose of the "service desk" practice?

A. To capture demand for incident resolution and service request

B. To reduce the likelihood and impact of incidents by identifying actual and potential causes of incidents

C. To maximize the number of successful IT changes by ensuring risks are properly assessed

D. To set clear business-based targets for service performance

A

Which is NOT one of the steps of the "continual improvement" model?

A. What improvement method will we use?

B. Take action

C. How do we keep the momentum going?

D. Where are we now?

A

In which step of the "continual improvement" model do we define a high-level organizational objective of the improvement?

A. Where are we now?

B. What is the vision?

C. How do we get there?

D. How do we keep the momentum going?

B

Which of the steps of the "continual improvement" model has the strongest relationship to the guiding principle "start where you are?"

A. What is the vision?

B. Take action

C. Where are we now?

D. How do we get there?

C

Which of the following are subject to continual improvement?

1. Products

2. Practices

3. Service components

4. The entire Service value system

A. 1, 2, 4 only

B. 2, 3, 4 only

C. 1, 2, 3 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

D

Fill in the missing word(s): The Continual Improvement Register (CIR) is a structured database or document used to track and manage _____________?

A. Improvement opportunities

B. Changes

C. Incidents

D. Service request

A

Fill in the missing word(s): The Service Level Management practice's purpose is to set clear _____________ targets for service performance, so that the delivery of a service can be properly assessed, monitored and managed?

A. Technology-based

B. System-based

C. Service-based

D. Business-based

D

Which of the following reflects ITIL guidance about SLA Requirements?

A. Sets stretch targets to motivate service providers

B. Related to key customer outcomes and customer satisfaction

C. Written in technical detail

D. Specifies system performance reporting

B

Which of the following is true for a "change authority?"

A. A single change authority should be identified for all changes

B. Should allow changes only when there are no risk

C. Different change authorities may be identified for different types of changes

D. Changes in high-velocity organizations should be reviewed by a change advisory board

C

"The addition, modification or removal of anything that could have a direct or indirect effect on services" is the ITIL definition of a?

A. Package

B. Deployment

C. Release

D. Change

D

Which of the following are types of change described in the ITIL guidance?

1. Standard

2. Urgent

3. Emergency

4. Normal

A. 1, 3, 4 only

B. 1, 2, 3 only

C. 1, 2, 4 only

D. 2, 3, 4 only

A

Which of the following practices would be MOST LIKELY to use information from the change schedule?

A. IT asset management

B. Relationship management

C. Monitoring and event management

D. Incident management

D

Which feature would NOT be part of a suitable "incident management" tool?

A. Links to problems, known error and knowledge information.

B. Detailed procedures for resolving complex incidents

C. Automated incident matching

D. Timestamping and tracking

B

Which is NOT a benefit of using swarming as an "incident management" technique?

A. Faster resolution

B. Quicker identification of the right team(s) to work an incident

C. Reduced need for service desk support

D. Maintaining focus on optimizing resources used to respond to an incident

C

Which of the following has the purpose to "capture demand for incident resolution and service request"?

A. Service desk

B. Technical management

C. Service request management

D. Relationship management

A

Which of the following are potential access channels for a service desk practice?

1. Walk-in

2. Email

3. Chatbox

4. Text messaging

A. 2, 3, 4

B. 1, 2, 4

C. 1, 2, 3

D. 1, 2, 3, 4

D

Which are some of the most critical skills a service desk analyst should possess?

1. Empathy and emotional intelligence

2. Effective communication skills

3. Detailed knowledge of infrastructure components

4. Understanding of business priority

A. 1, 2, 3

B. 1, 2, 4

C. 2, 3, 4

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

B

How does categorization of incidents assist "incident management"?

A. It determines how the service provider is perceived

B. It ensures that incidents are resolved as quickly as possible

C. It determines the resource assigned to the incident

D. It helps direct the incident to the correct support area

D

Which practice provides service actions, general information and fulfillment of standard services?

A. Service request management

B. Incident management

C. Service desk

D. Change Enablement

A

"Any component that needs to be managed in order to deliver an IT service" is the ITIL definition of?

A. Output

B. Service

C. IT asset

D. Configuration item

D

How does "service request management" contribute to "obtain and build" activity?

A. By initiating standard changes to fulfill service request

B. By providing service request trends and quality information

C. By acquiring pre-approved service components

D. By collecting user-specific request requirements

C

How does "service request management" contribute to "engage" activity?

A. By acquiring pre-approved service components

B. By providing service request trends and quality information

C. By initiating standard changes to fulfill service request

D. By collecting user-specific request requirements

D

Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence: The purpose of the "release management" practice is to make new and changed __________ available for use?

A. Objectives

B. Services and features

C. Deployments

D. Outcomes

B

Which is the purpose of the "relationship management" practice?

A. To make new and changed services and features available for use

B. Properly assess, monitor and manage the delivery of a service

C. To plan a manage the full lifecycle of all IT assets

D. To establish and nurture the links between the organization and its stakeholders at strategic and tactical levels

D

What is the definition of an IT asset?

A. Any component that needs to be managed in order to deliver an IT service

B. Any financially valuable component that can contribute to delivery of an IT product or service

C. Any change of state that has significance for the management of a configuration item or IT service

D. The ability of an IT service or other configuration item to perform its agreed function when required

B

Which is the purpose of the "information security" practice?

A. Establish and nurture the links between the organization and its stakeholders

B. Ensure that the organizations suppliers and their performance are managed appropriately

C. Protect the information needed by the organization to conduct its business

D. Systematically observe services and service components

C

Which of the following "initiates a service action that has been agreed as a normal part of service delivery"?

A. Incident

B. Problem

C. Change

D. Service request

D

"Any financially valuable component that can contribute to delivery of an IT product or service" is the ITIL definition of?

A. Service

B. Component

C. IT asset

D. Configuration item

C

Which of the following must information security management establish controls to do?

1. Prevention

2. Detection

3. Correction

4. Recovery

A. 1, 2, 4

B. 2, 3, 4

C. 1, 2, 3, 4

D. 1, 2, 3

D

Which of the following is the purpose of supplier management?

A. Ensure that the organizations suppliers and their performance are managed appropriately to support the provision of seamless, quality products and services

B. Reduce the likelihood and impact of incidents

C. Maximize the number of successful changes

D. Set clear business-based targets for service performance, so that the delivery of a service can be properly assessed, monitored and managed

A

Which of these are ITIL Practices?

1. Release management

2. IT Asset management

3. Service Configuration management

4. Deployment management

A. 1, 2, 3

B. 1, 2, 4

C. 1, 2, 3 and 4

D. 2, 3, 4

C