First Biology Exam

Which answer puts the steps (below right) in the correct order to follow the scientific method and
solve a problem?

a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b) 1, 5, 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 4, 3, 5, 2
d) 4, 1, 3, 2, 5

a) 1,2,3,4,5

Knowledge resulting from the scientific method is better because it

a) is testable
b) is variable and unpredictable
c) is self-correcting
d) is unchanging so the facts are always consistent
e) both a and c

Both a and c (is testable and self-correcting)

Which of the following is found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
a) ribosome
b) centriole
c) Golgi apparatus
d) peroxisome
e) lysosome

a) ribosome

An animo acid is to a protein as

a) glycogen is to glucose.
b) a nucleotide is to a nucleic acid.
c) an organic acid is to a plasma membrane.
d) a nucleic acid is to DNA.
e) testosterone is to a steroid hormone.

A nucleotide is to a nucleic acid

Which of the following structures is NOT present in the cell membrane?
a) a double layer of phospholipids
b) transport proteins that form channels through the phospholipid bilayer
c) peripheral proteins on the inner and outer surface
d) a rigid matrix of actin and tubulin fibers
e) carbohydrates attached to peripheral proteins

d) a rigid matrix of actin and tubulin fibers

A cell's interior is considered isotonic to the surrounding fluid when
a) the solute concentration is higher within the cell than outside the cell.
b) the solute concentration is lower within the cell than outside the cell.
c) the solute concentrations are the same within and outside the cell.
d) an equal number of water molecules is present immediately outside the cell as inside the cell.
e) the cell's lipid bilayer does not allow any molecules to pass into or out of the cell.

c) the solute concentrations are the same within and outside the cell.

Which of the following organelles is responsible for degrading waste within the cell?
a) Golgi apparatus
b) lysosome
c) rough endoplasmic reticulum
d) ribosome
e) chloroplast

b) lysosome

To absorb large particles, cells engulf them with their plasma membrane in a process called
a) transcription.
b) translation.
c) replication.
d) phagocytosis.
e) exocytosis

e) exocytosis

The organelle depicted on the right is found in
a) plants only.
b) animals only.
c) bacteria only.
d) plants and animals.
e) plants, animals, and bacteria.

d) plants and animals.

Which statement is NOT part of the modern cell theory?
a) Cells arise from other cells.
b) All living organisms consist of one or more cells.
c) Cellular reactions include both energy-releasing and biosynthetic types.
d) The first cell arrived on Earth from outer space.
e) Cells contain hereditary information that passes from one generation of cells to the next.

d) The first cell arrived on Earth from outer space.

Which of the following is the primary site of protein assembly?
a) the vesicles
b) the Golgi apparatus
c) the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
d) the ribosomes
e) the peroxisome

d) the ribosomes

Which of the following organelles show maternal inheritance?
a) nucleus
b) chloroplasts
c) ribosomes
d) Golgi apparatus
e) none of the above

e) none of the above

Which of the following is an example of potential energy?
a) fire
b) sunlight
c) a bird flapping its wings
d) an unstable chemical bond

d) an unstable chemical bond

In photosynthesis, the energy from the sun excites electrons in molecules of _____________ and a likely fate of this energy is __________________.
a) pigments such as chlorophyll; to raise the energy state of an electron in chlorophyll a
b) ADP; transferred to an electron in another molecule
c) Chlorophyll; to be stored in the plant as potential energy

d) NADH; to power the electron transport chain

c) Chlorophyll; to be stored in the plant as potential energy

Which of the following is the end product of the first Electron Transport Chain in photosynthesis?
a) a proton gradient
b) energized electrons
c) sugar
d) ATP

b) energized electrons

Which answer below is a product of the Krebs cycle before the electron transport chain?
a) NADH
b) FADH2
c) CO2
d) ATP
e) all of the above

e) all of the above

Scientific results:

A. cannot be replicated.
B. Are most accurately shared on social media and
talk shows.
C. are generated only by theories.
D. result from experiments, repeated observations,
models, well-designed surveys...
E. must support a tested hypothesis.

D. result from experiments, repeated observations,
models, well-designed surveys...

Scientific knowledge and understanding
A. is gained from observing something once and
assuming a cause
B. is self-correcting
C. is true in all cases and can be extrapolated beyond
the scope of the study
D. is only useful if it is a theory

B. is self-correcting

An independent variable
A. can be associated with variance in a dependent
variable.
B. is generally less variable than a dependent variable
C. is generally plotted on the y-axis in a line graph
D. can be controlled less well than a dependent
variable
E. is typically more important than a dependent
variable

A. can be associated with variance in a dependent
variable.

Carbon
A. has no vacancies in its outermost shell.
B. can form up to 4 bonds with other atoms.
C. can’t form bonds with other atoms of carbon.
D. can hold 4 electrons in its first electron shell.
E. is the least reactive of all elements.

B. can form up to 4 bonds with other atoms.

Which statement is true about atoms that are more stable?
A. They are more likely to interact with other atoms.
B. They tend not to react or combine with other
atoms.
C. They tend to have several electron vacancies in
their outermost shell.
D. They have a small number of protons.
E. They have fewer electrons than atoms that are less
stable.

B. They tend not to react or combine with other
atoms.

When transporting water up to the top of giant trees, which
feature allows water molecules to pull up adjacent water
molecules to which they have bonded?
A. low density as a solid
B. adhesion
C. ionic bonding
D. cohesion
E. high specific heat

D. cohesion

Choose the best example of a covalent bond from the
choices below.
A. Two water molecules interact due to partial charges
on the oxygen and hydrogen atoms.
B. A magnesium donates electrons and forms bonds
with two chloride ions.
C. A positive sodium ion forms a bond with a negative
chloride ion.
D. A nitrogen atom shares electrons with three
hydrogen atoms.

D. A nitrogen atom shares electrons with three
hydrogen atoms.

Sucrose (table sugar) and lactose (the sugar found in milk)
are examples of:
A. naturally occurring enzymes.
B. artificial macromolecules.
C. monosaccharides.
D. disaccharides.
E. complex carbohydrates.

D. disaccharides.

Which of the following statements about starch is
incorrect?
A. Starch is the primary form of energy storage in
plants.
B. Starch consists of a hundred or more glucose
molecules joined together in a line.
C. Starch tastes sweet because it is made from
glucose.
D. Starch is a polysaccharide.

C. Starch tastes sweet because it is made from
glucose.

Which statement about phospholipids is not correct?
A. They are used as organisms’ primary form of short-
term energy.
B. They are hydrophobic at one end.
C. They are attracted to water at one end.
D. They are a major constituent of cell membranes.
E. They contain hydrophilic head linked to fatty acids.

A. They are used as organisms’ primary form of short-
term energy.

A dietary fatty acid is liquid at room temperature (i.e., it has
a low melting point) and contains carbon=carbon double
bonds. It is most likely from:
A. a plant
B. a cow
C. a pig
D. a chicken
E. a lamb

A. a plant

Which of the following statements about enzymes is not
correct?
12
A. Enzymes can initiate chemical reactions.
B. Enzymes speed up chemical reactions.
C. Enzymes are proteins.
D. Enzymes contain an active site for binding of
particular substrates.
E. Enzymes undergo a permanent change during the
reactions they promote.

E. Enzymes undergo a permanent change during the
reactions they promote.

Which of the following is the most correct statement about
how we get energy from food?
A. Energy is stored in high energy bonds in the food
we eat so breaking them releases energy.
B. More energy is directly released when the C-H
bonds are broken than when O=O bonds are
broken.
C. Sugar is rich with high energy C-H bonds that when
broken release energy to fuel our bodies.
D. When chemical bonds are broken in the food we
eat, it frees atoms and molecules that make new
bonds, which releases energy.

D. When chemical bonds are broken in the food we
eat, it frees atoms and molecules that make new
bonds, which releases energy.

Which of the following is True about proteins?
A. Their structure (shape) is a critical determinant of
their function.
B. They can be bound to carbohydrates to function in
cellular recognition.
C. They can be membrane bound receptors that
function to regulate intracellular processes.
D. They can serve a critical role in transportation and
regulation across membranes.
E. all of the above are true.

E. all of the above are true.

The item in the image is a/an
A. Egg
B. Bacteria
C. Eukaryote
D. Prokaryote
E. Archaebacteria

C. Eukaryote

Active Transport

Energy Required (ATP)

Active Transport, which is the moving of molecules from areas of low concentration to those of high concentration across the membraneis usually coupled with processes that:

a) counteract osmotic stress

b) establish a dynamic equilibrium with no net gain or loss in energy for the cell

c) cost energy

d) gain energy for the cell

e) passively transport molecules

c) cost energy

Which of the following does not meet all the characteristics to be categorized as alive but is classified as alive by some biologists?

a) fungi

b) archaebacteria

c) self-pollinating plants

d) viruses

e) self-replicating crayfish

d) viruses

Which statement best explains the observation that more autism cases exist now than in the past?

a) The vaccine for measles, mumps, and rubella has been established as a significant cause of autism.

b) Doctors are more aware of the condition and have better techniques for diagnosing and reporting it.

c) More parents neglect their children, which is a cause of autism, now than in the past.

d) Autism has been selected for in recent generations by natural selection.

e) Autism is caused by a new mutation and has just shown up in the last few years.

b) Doctors are more aware of the condition and have better techniques for diagnosing and reporting it.

In the laboratory, you see a fuzzy growth on some of the gels in your incubator. What is the name given to this step of the scientific method?

a) hypothesis

b) theory

c) experimentation

d) law

e) observation

e) observation

What type of evidence most increases our confidence in experimental results?

a) Three different scientists do three different studies, investigating different variables and hypotheses.

b) A scientist runs her experiments 10 times, all with the same result.

c) A scientist observes that two variables appear to be linked.

d) Three different scientists do three different studies, all with the same result.

e) A scientist only runs her experiments twice.

d) Three different scientists do three different studies, all with the same result.

Which of these studies has the least to do with legitimate scientific investigation?

a) a study to examine the effect of using seventh-grade reading material on fifth-grade students’ reading comprehension

b) a study to understand what the effect of being a part of a high school championship baseball team has on college academic performance

c) a study to examine the relationship between the number of hours spent studying and student test scores

d) a study to determine whether evolutionary biology should be taught in elementary parochial schools

e) a study to determine whether air quality in a school affects student performance

d) a study to determine whether evolutionary biology should be taught in elementary parochial schools

Which statement is the most reasonable testable prediction for the hypothesis: “All birds can fly”?

a) Examine the list of all known species of birds and determine if any species cannot fly.

b) Locate places in the world where flight would be advantageous and count the number of birds that live there.

c) Take a random sampling of five birds from around the world to verify that they can all fly.

d) Observe all the birds outside your home for a week to see if they all can fly.

e) In a double-blind study, take a random sampling of 100 animals to see if they all can fly.

a) Examine the list of all known species of birds and determine if any species cannot fly.

Thinking scientifically relies on:

a) accepting statements of others as true

b) learning lists of facts

c) intuition

d) applying your preconceptions

e) objective observation and experimentation

e) objective observation and experimentation

The purpose of the experimentation phase of the scientific method is to:

a-make predictive, testable statements about observations.

b-gather evidence to formulate a theory.

c-formulate a null hypothesis.

d-gather evidence to support or reject a hypothesis.

e-gather preliminary data from which a hypothesis can be made.

d-gather evidence to support or reject a hypothesis.

During an experiment to determine if people with more symmetrical body features have a lower incidence of disease, a researcher first measures the length of several bones in the subject’s hands and arms. The device used to measure length does not display a readout of the measurement taken. Instead, a wire connects the measuring device to a computer that records the data. The computer monitor is kept out of sight of the subject and the researcher. Why is such an elaborate device used?

a- so that the identity of the subject will remain anonymous

b-so that the subject will not be injured by the experiment

c-so that the subject will not know if he or she is part of the control group

d-so that the experiment will be repeatable

e-so that the measurements are not biased by the researcher

e-so that the measurements are not biased by the researcher

If you conduct an experiment that rejects your hypothesis, then:

a-your experiment was poorly designed.

b-you should publish your results anyway.

c-your experiment was a failure.

d-you are less likely to get funding for your next experiment.

e-the null hypothesis was a better fit to your data.

e-the null hypothesis was a better fit to your data.

If your hypothesis is “Hair that is shaved grows back coarser and darker,” what is your null hypothesis?

a-There is no difference in the coarseness or color of hair that is shaved relative to hair that is not shaved.

b-Hair that is taken off with a cream depilatory grows back coarser and darker.

c-There is no difference in the coarseness of hair that is shaved relative to hair that is not shaved.

d-There is no difference in the color of hair that is shaved relative to hair that is not shaved.

e-Hair that is shaved grows back finer and lighter.

a-There is no difference in the coarseness or color of hair that is shaved relative to hair that is not shaved.

A relationship that has been established based on a large amount of observational and experimental data is a(n):

a-fact.

b-theory.

c-hypothesis.

d-conjecture.

e-assumption.

b-theory.

________ is the study of living things.

a-Research

b-Science

c-Agriculture

d-Biology

e-Psychology

d-Biology

Which statement about biological literacy is true?

a-Using the process of scientific inquiry to think creatively about real-world issues that have a biological aspect is not a component of biological literacy.

b-Assuming that all bacteria can infect you because your mother told you so is an example of biological literacy.

c-Biological literacy is the ability to make conclusions from stories in the newspaper and information relayed by friends and family.

d-Biological literacy is the ability to integrate ideas about biology into making wise decisions for oneself.

e-Biological literacy is important for issues facing society but not as important for individuals.

d-Biological literacy is the ability to integrate ideas about biology into making wise decisions for oneself.

Which of the following is a way that visual displays of data can potentially mislead readers?

a-presenting the relationship between two variables

b-use of a pie chart to compare data as a proportion of the whole

c-representation of a dependent variable on the y-axis

d-use of ambiguity in labeling

e-use of known sources of data

d-use of ambiguity in labeling

Which of the following qualifies as a randomized, double-blind, controlled experimental study?

A) A total of 50 men (who are 35 years old) are each given a candy bar with real sugar, 50 women (who are 35 years old) are each given a candy bar with artificial sweetener, and 50 men and women (who are 35 years old) are not given a candy bar. The people are then observed for signs of sleepiness. Neither the scientist nor the observer knows what type of candy bar the subjects ate, if any.

B) A total of 50 men and women of various ages are each given a candy bar with real sugar, 50 men and women of various ages are each given a candy bar with artificial sweetener, and 50 men and women of various ages are not given a candy bar. The people are then observed for signs of sleepiness. The subjects know which type of candy they ate, but the observing scientist does not.

C) A total of 50 men and women of various ages are each given a candy bar with real sugar. The people are then observed for signs of sleepiness. The scientist knows which candy bar type the people ate, but the subjects do not know this information.

D) A total of 50 men and women of various ages are each given a candy bar with real sugar, 50 men and women of various ages are each given a candy bar with artificial sweetener, and 50 men and women of various ages are not given a candy bar. The people are then observed for signs of sleepiness. No one (the scientist, the observer, and the subjects) knows what type of candy bar was eaten, if any.

E) A total of 50 men and women of various ages are each given a candy bar with real sugar, 50 men and women of various ages are each given a candy bar with artificial sweetener, and 50 men and women of various ages are not given a candy bar. The people are then observed for signs of sleepiness. The scientist knows what people did or did not eat, but the subjects do not know this information.

D) A total of 50 men and women of various ages are each given a candy bar with real sugar, 50 men and women of various ages are each given a candy bar with artificial sweetener, and 50 men and women of various ages are not given a candy bar. The people are then observed for signs of sleepiness. No one (the scientist, the observer, and the subjects) knows what type of candy bar was eaten, if any.

The number of protons in an element, also called its ________, identifies the element.

A-charge

B-atomic weight

C-atomic number

D-nucleus

E-isotope

C-atomic number

What is missing from this cell of the periodic table?

A- the atomic number

B-the atomic symbol for nitrogen, N

C-the number of protons

D-the atomic weight

E-the atomic mass of the element’s isotopes

B-the atomic symbol for nitrogen, N

How an atom bonds with other atoms is chiefly determined by its:

A-nuclear charge.

B-protons.

C-atomic mass.

D-electrons.

E-neutrons.

D-electrons.

Identify the statement below that correctly describes hydrogen bonds.

A-a bond between hydrogen atoms to form the molecule H2

B-attractions between oppositely charged ions

C-an attraction between a slightly positive atom of one molecule and a slightly negative atom of another molecule

D-attractions between hydrogen and oxygen to form a water molecule

E-any bond with a hydrogen atom

C-an attraction between a slightly positive atom of one molecule and a slightly negative atom of another molecule

The O₂ molecule pictured here shows two pairs of electrons shared between two oxygen atoms. This is an example of:  

A-an ionic bond.

B-a strong double bond.

C-weak bonding between the two atoms.

D-two unstable atoms.

E-polar bonds between the two atoms.

B-a strong double bond.

The tendency of molecules to stick together, called cohesion, is stronger in water than other liquids because the polarity of water allows a(n):

A-hydrogen atom from one water molecule to form a covalent bond with the hydrogen atom of another water molecule.

B-hydrogen atom from one water molecule to form a covalent bond with the oxygen atom of another water molecule.

C-oxygen atom from one water molecule to form a hydrogen bond with the oxygen atom of another water molecule.

D-hydrogen atom from one water molecule to form an ionic bond with the oxygen atom of another water molecule.

E-hydrogen atom from one water molecule to form a hydrogen bond with the oxygen atom of another water molecule.

E-hydrogen atom from one water molecule to form a hydrogen bond with the oxygen atom of another water molecule.

Hydrogen bonding among water molecules gives water all the following important properties, except:

A-lower density as a solid than as a liquid.

B-strong cohesion among the individual water molecules.

C-a transparent color.

D-high heat capacity.

E-the capacity to serve as a solvent to many other molecules.

C-a transparent color.

Which phenomenon is most likely due to the high specific heat capacity of water?

A-Lakes and rivers freeze from the top, not the bottom.

B-A lizard, called the “Jesus lizard,” can run across the surface of liquid water for short distances.

C-Adding salt to snow makes it melt.

D-Ice cubes will float when placed in a glass of water.

E-The temperature of the Santa Monica Bay, off the coast of Los Angeles, fluctuates less than the air temperature throughout the year.

E-The temperature of the Santa Monica Bay, off the coast of Los Angeles, fluctuates less than the air temperature throughout the year.

Pure water and aqueous solutions that are neither acidic nor basic are said to be:

A-buffers.

B-transparent.

C-neutral.

D-alkaline.

E-reactive.

C-neutral.

A carbonated soft drink that has a pH of 3 is ________ times more acidic than water.

30

1,000

10

10,000

3,000

1,000

Which of these is not considered to be a macromolecule?

A-lipids

B-Proteins

C-nucleic acids

D-carbohydrates

E-vitamins

E-vitamins

All of these statements describe ways in which lipids and carbohydrates differ except:

A-lipids have more hydrogen relative to oxygen than carbohydrates have.

B-lipids and carbohydrates have different functions.

C-lipids do not chain together to form larger molecules; carbohydrates do dissolve easily in water.

D-lipids contain significantly fewer carbon-hydrogen bonds than contained in carbohydrates.

E-lipids do not dissolve easily in water; carbohydrates do dissolve easily in water.

D-lipids contain significantly fewer carbon-hydrogen bonds than contained in carbohydrates.

In terms of structural materials, _______  is to plants as _______  is to lobsters and crabs.

A-a monosaccharide; a polysaccharide

B-starch; glycogen

C-glycogen; cellulose

D-cellulose; chitin

E-chitin; starch

D-cellulose; chitin

Why would you expect the energy present in the bonds of glucose to be more readily available than the energy from the sugar lactose?

A-Both glucose and lactose are simple sugars; some people, however, have difficulty breaking down lactose.

B-Glucose has fewer double bonds than lactose, making it easier to break down.

C-It is easier to break down glucose into its component monosaccharides.

D-Lactose is a complex carbohydrate and requires a lot of breaking down before the energy can be accessed.

E-Glucose is a simple sugar, and no additional processing is necessary to access the energy in the carbon-hydrogen bonds.

E-Glucose is a simple sugar, and no additional processing is necessary to access the energy in the carbon-hydrogen bonds.

Why would you expect the energy present in the bonds of glucose to be more readily available than the energy from the sugar lactose?

A-Both glucose and lactose are simple sugars; some people, however, have difficulty breaking down lactose.

B-Glucose has fewer double bonds than lactose, making it easier to break down.

C-It is easier to break down glucose into its component monosaccharides.

D-Lactose is a complex carbohydrate and requires a lot of breaking down before the energy can be accessed.

E-Glucose is a simple sugar, and no additional processing is necessary to access the energy in the carbon-hydrogen bonds.

E-Glucose is a simple sugar, and no additional processing is necessary to access the energy in the carbon-hydrogen bonds.

Dietary fiber is composed of:

A-nucleic acids.

B-proteins.

C-amino acids.

D-fatty acids.

E-carbohydrates.

E-carbohydrates.

Which of the following is a lipid?

-cellulose

-Amino acids

-carbohydrates

-steroids

-nucleic acids

steroids

The ingredient label on a container of shortening indicates “partially hydrogenated vegetable oil.” This means that during processing, the number of carbon-carbon double bonds in the oil was reduced. What is the result of decreasing the number of double bonds?

A-The oil now contains a higher percentage of carbohydrate.

B-The oil is now more likely to be solid at room temperature.

C-The oil now has a lower melting point.

D-More “kinks” are present in the fatty acid chains, reducing the membrane density.

E-The fatty acid is modified from a diglyceride into a triglyceride.

B-The oil is now more likely to be solid at room temperature.

Which lipid is an important component of most cell membranes?

-glucose

-cholesterol

-carboxyls

-testosterone

-estrogen

-cholesterol

Which statement about amino acids is true?

A-They are all polar.

B-They are inorganic molecules possessing both carboxyl and amino groups.

C-They are monomers.

D-They cannot combine to form proteins.

E-They are distinguished from each other by variation in their carboxyl groups.

C-They are monomers.

Dietary proteins:

A-are nutritionally identical because all are broken down into their constituent amino acids in the digestive system.

B-are considered “complete” only if they contain the 12 non-essential amino acids required by humans.

C-can be obtained from animal sources but not plant sources.

D-consist of all 20 amino acids required in the human body.

E-are considered “complete” only if they contain the eight essential amino acids required by humans.

E-are considered “complete” only if they contain the eight essential amino acids required by humans.

The secondary structure of a protein refers to the:

A-zipping of protein to fatty acid chains.

B-linear assembly of amino acids into a chain.

C-twisting of the amino acid chain into a corkscrew-like shape or zigzag folding pattern.

D-configuration of the folded protein when bound to other proteins.

E-three-dimensional folded structure of the protein.

C-twisting of the amino acid chain into a corkscrew-like shape or zigzag folding pattern.

An enzyme that can bind to and break apart molecules of lactose will:

A-also be able to bind fatty acids.

B-only be able to bind lactose.

C-also be able to bind sucrose.

D-also be able to bind starch.

E-also be able to bind amino acids.

B-only be able to bind lactose.

What can happen if an enzyme is altered, even slightly?

A-It will still catalyze reactions, but only at a higher temperature.

B-It will catalyze reactions too quickly, potentially causing illness for the individual.

C-The amount of activator required to “turn on” the enzyme will need to increase.

D-Its active site may change, causing the enzyme to stop functioning.

E-It will continue to catalyze reactions, but at a slower rate.

D-Its active site may change, causing the enzyme to stop functioning.

A partial sequence of a molecule is “AACTGCT.” The molecule is a(n):

A-nucleic acid.

B-protein.

C-triglyceride.

D-polysaccharide.

E-oligosaccharide.

A-nucleic acid.

The Russian-American biochemist Phoebus Levene was the first to determine that nucleotides may contain one of four different nitrogen-containing bases. Levene believed that the nitrogen-containing bases occurred in equal amounts in DNA. What is the actual proportion of these bases?

A-DNA contains equal amounts of adenine and guanine and equal amounts of thymine and cytosine.

B-DNA contains equal amounts of guanine and thymine and equal amounts of adenine and cytosine.

C-DNA contains equal amounts of adenine and thymine and equal amounts of guanine and cytosine.

D-DNA contains twice as much adenine and thymine as guanine and cytosine.

E-DNA contains four times as much guanine and cytosine as adenine and thymine.

C-DNA contains equal amounts of adenine and thymine and equal amounts of guanine and cytosine.

One of the four nucleotide bases in DNA is replaced by a different base in RNA. Which base is it, and what is it replaced by?

A-thymine, replaced by adenine

B-cytosine, replaced by guanine

C-thymine, replaced by uracil

D-cytosine, replaced by uracil

E-uracil, replaced by guanine

C-thymine, replaced by uracil

Diffusion across the cell’s outer membrane:

A- never occurs; all molecules cross the membrane within protein carriers.

B-always results with the molecules moving from areas of low concentration to areas of high concentration.

C-is also called dynamic equilibrium.

D-requires the input of energy.

E-occurs without the input of energy.

E-occurs without the input of energy.

A cell’s interior is considered isotonic to the surrounding fluid when:

A-the cell is no longer expanding.

B-the solute concentrations are the same within and outside the cell.

C-the solute concentration is higher within the cell than outside the cell.

D-there is an equal amount of water molecules immediately outside the cell as inside the cell.

E-the solute concentration is lower within the cell than outside the cell.

B-the solute concentrations are the same within and outside the cell.

Two drugs, called colchicine and cytochalasin, are known to disrupt the cytoskeleton within a eukaryotic cell, such as an amoeba. Which cell function would be most affected by addition of these drugs to an amoeba?

A-the ability of the amoeba to crawl and change shape

B-the ability of the amoeba to produce ATP energy from food particles

C-the ability of the amoeba to produce proteins

D-the ability of enzymes to function inside the amoeba

E-the ability of the amoeba to make new DNA

A-the ability of the amoeba to crawl and change shape

Given that a cell’s structure reflects its function, what would you predict that the function of a cell with a large Golgi apparatus would be?

A-storage of amino acids for later protein synthesis

B-rapid replication of genetic material and coordination of cell division

C-transport of chemical signals

D-movement

E-secretion of digestive enzymes

E-secretion of digestive enzymes

Which statement about prokaryotic cells is true?

A-They have a plasma membrane instead of a rigid cell wall.

B-They have a circular loop of DNA instead of multiple linear DNA molecules.

C-They may have cilia, but they never have flagella.

D-They can be single or multicellular organisms.

E-They lack ribosomes but have a nucleus.

B-They have a circular loop of DNA instead of multiple linear DNA molecules.

A scientist tries to build a eukaryotic cell in her laboratory. She remembers to include most of the organelles but forgets one. Among other abnormalities, her newly created cell cannot synthesize the enzymes needed to detoxify drugs and poisons. Which organelle is missing?

A-the cytoskeleton

B-the mitochondria

C-the nucleus

D-the smooth endoplasmic reticulum

E-the Golgi apparatus

D-the smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Which statement is a part of the modern cell theory?

A-All living organisms consist of two or more cells.

B-Cells are able to synthesize their entire complement of biomolecules.

C-Cells contain a small amount of hereditary information that is unable to offspring.

D-Cellular reactions include both energy-releasing and biosynthetic types.

E-Cells cannot arise from other cells.

B-Cells are able to synthesize their entire complement of biomolecules.

The cell connections represented here are:

A-desmosomes.

B-lysosomes.

C-transport vesicles.

D-tight junctions.

E-gap junctions.

A-desmosomes.

Which structure is present in the cell membrane?

A-a glycogen band between the phospholipid layers

B-endomembrane system for the production and modification of molecules

C-lysosomes to dispose of by-products

D-transport proteins that form channels through the phospholipid bilayer

E-a single layer of phospholipids

D-transport proteins that form channels through the phospholipid bilayer

Which statement about phospholipids is true?

A-A phospholipid contains four negatively charged phosphate groups.

B-A phospholipid consists of a glycerol molecule attached to two fatty acid chains.

C-Phospholipids are a principal component of the cell wall.

D-Phospholipid molecules have hydrophobic heads and hydrophilic tails.

E-In the plasma membrane, phospholipids’ tails extend toward the extra- and intracellular fluid.

B-A phospholipid consists of a glycerol molecule attached to two fatty acid chains.

Mitochondria are thought to have evolved from free-living bacteria that were incorporated into eukaryotic cells by endosymbiosis. Which piece of evidence for this hypothesis is true?

A-New mitochondria are replicated during the cell cycle.

B-Mitochondria can survive and reproduce independently when removed from the host cell.

C-Mitochondria are enclosed by a single membrane instead of a double membrane.

D-On a phylogenetic tree based on molecular data, the mitochondrion appears near its eukaryotic host.

E-Mitochondrial DNA is packaged as a single circular chromosome, similar to that of a bacterium.

B-Mitochondria can survive and reproduce independently when removed from the host cell.

Which component is the most important in determining the fluidity of the cell membrane?

A-cholesterol

B-phospholipids

C-water

D-carbohydrates

E-glycoproteins

A-cholesterol

What might you expect to find in a eukaryotic cell, such as a liver cell, that processes a lot of larger nutrients?

A-a thick cell wall

B-a large vacuole

C-a large number of lysosomes

D-a large amount of unrecycled cellular waste and debris

E-few mitochondria

C-a large number of lysosomes

Osmosis is ______ specialized than diffusion because it involves ______.

A-more; acids

B-more; bases

C-less; all liquids

D-more; water

E-less; solute

D-more; water

The functions of cell vacuoles include storing nutrients, physically supporting the surrounding cell, deterring predators from eating the cell, and managing waste. What additional service do vacuoles provide?

A-producing sugar from sunlight

B-producing flashy pigments

C-producing proteins

D-storing extra DNA

E-degrading waste molecules with enzymes

B-producing flashy pigments

The "fingerprint" found on the outside of cells is the best underlying explanation for why:

A-beta-blocker drugs help to reduce anxiety.

B-mucus accumulates in the lungs in individuals with cystic fibrosis.

C-blood can easily be transferred between any two people.

D-a person can successfully donate his or her heart to another unrelated person.

E-it is difficult to transplant a liver from one person into another.

E-it is difficult to transplant a liver from one person into another.

The rough endoplasmic reticulum:

A-processes and packages proteins, lipids, and other molecules.

B-synthesizes lipids and detoxifies molecules.

C-harvests energy for cellular functions.

D-modifies proteins that will be shipped elsewhere in the organism.

E-performs photosynthesis.

D-modifies proteins that will be shipped elsewhere in the organism.

The diagram shows the action of beta-blockers in reducing anxiety. In this diagram, the green figures represent ________________, the yellow figures represent ________________, and the purple figures represent ________________.

A-adrenaline; beta-receptors; beta-blocker chemicals

B-mucus; beta-blocker chemicals; beta-receptors

C-beta-blocker chemicals; adrenaline; beta-receptors

D-adrenaline; beta-blocker chemicals; beta-receptors

E-beta-blocker chemicals; mucus; beta-receptors

D-adrenaline; beta-blocker chemicals; beta-receptors

Which organelles are enclosed by a double membrane?

A-ribosomes and lysosomes

B-vacuoles and chloroplasts

C-mitochondria and chloroplasts

D-the nucleus and the Golgi apparatus

E-vacuoles and the endoplasmic reticulum

C-mitochondria and chloroplasts

Mammalian cells take in many molecules, including hormones, antibodies, and blood proteins. This process, which is coordinated by proteins that recognize their specific target molecule, is best described as:

A-cohesion.

B-receptor-mediated endocytosis.

C-diffusion.

D-cell absorption.

E-cell inclusion.

B-receptor-mediated endocytosis.

Cell walls:

A-are made entirely from phospholipids.

B-are not completely solid, having many small pores.

C-occur only in prokaryotes.

D-confer less structural support than a plasma membrane.

E-dissolve when a plant dies.

B-are not completely solid, having many small pores.

Cells that are metabolically active and use a lot of energy:

A-include white adipose (fat storage) cells.

B-generally are not found in the human body.

C-include red blood cells.

D-are densely packed with numerous mitochondria.

E-are found in the dermal layer, just under the skin.

D-are densely packed with numerous mitochondria.

The nucleus:

A-provides structural shape and support.

B-directs cellular activity and stores hereditary information.

C-synthesizes lipids and detoxifies molecules.

D-harvests energy for cellular functions.

E-modifies proteins that will be shipped elsewhere in the organism.

B-directs cellular activity and stores hereditary information.

Which if the following is the primary site of protein assembly within eukaryotic cells?

A)the nucleolus

B) the Gigi apparatus

C) smooth er

D) ribosomes

E) peroxisomes

D) ribosomes