I NEED AN 80 PLEASE

The majority of glucose is reabsorbed through the walls of the

• renal duct.

• proximal convoluted tubule.

• glomerular capsule.

• distal convoluted tubule.

proximal convoluted tubule.

Urine flow from the renal pelvis to the urinary bladder is produced by

• peristalsis of the ureters.

• ciliary action in the renal pelvis.

• hydrostatic pressure from the small intestine.

• contraction of the detrusor muscle.

peristalsis of the ureters.

Above the renal threshold for glucose,

• a kidney transplant is necessary.

• the urine has too little glucose.

• blood volume is so great that nephrons cannot keep up.

• hemodialysis is needed.

• more glucose is in the filtrate than active transport can handle.

more glucose is in the filtrate than active transport can handle

The longest part of the male urethra that is encased within a cylinder of erectile tissue in the penis is the _______ urethra.

• prostatic

• spongy

• membranous

spongy

Which choice describes the countercurrent mechanism of the nephron loop?

• Water moves in the descending limb; sodium moves out of the descending limb

• Water moves out of the descending limb; calcium moves out of the ascending limb

• Water moves in the ascending limb; sodium moves out of the ascending limb

• Water moves out of the descending limb; sodium moves out of the ascending limb

Water moves out of the descending limb; sodium moves out of the ascending limb

Mesangial cells help keep the basement membrane clean by

• engulfing macromolecules caught in its basement membrane.

• secreting emulsifying agents that dissolve trapped particles.

• opening larger pores in the membrane so that trapped particles move accross.

• secreting antibodies that attack the molecules caught in the endothelium.

engulfing macromolecules caught in its basement membrane.

How are proteins transported from the tubule lumen into the peritubular capillaries?

• Absorbed directly across the tubule cell membrane

• Attached to carriers to get across the luminal membrane

• Moved by facilitated diffusion across the luminal surface

• Transported by pinocytosis across the luminal membrane and digested into amino acids

Transported by pinocytosis across the luminal membrane and digested into amino acids

To measure GFR, an individual's urine is examined for the concentration of a test substance that they received by injection. How is that test substance treated by the kidney?

• It is filtered and secreted, but not reabsorbed.

• It is neither filtered nor reabsorbed, but it is secreted.

• it is filtered, reabsorbed, and excreted, but it is not secreted.

• It is not filtered, but it is secreted and reabsorbed.

• It is filtered but neither reabsorbed nor secreted.

It is filtered but neither reabsorbed nor secreted.

The main parts of the jutaglomerular apparatus are the

• granular cells and intercalated cells.

• granular cells and macula densa.

• intercalated cells and principal cells.

• principal cells and macula densa.

granular cells and macula densa

Which is not correct regarding the innervation of the kidney?

• Sympathetic stimulation causes vasoconstriction of the renal blood vessels.

• The kidney is served by the renal plexus.

• Sympathetic innervation is from segments T10-12 of the spinal cord.

• Parasympathetic stimulation decreases the rate of filtrate formation.

Parasympathetic stimulation decreases the rate of filtrate formation.

A specific gravity of value ___________ in urine indicates relative hydration (enough water intake).

• about 1.020

• below 1.000

• below 1.020

• above 1.030

below 1.020

Granular cells synthesize and release the enzyme

• angiotensinogen.

• calcitriol.

• renin.

• antidiuretic hormone.

renin

When a kidney is sectioned along a coronal plane, there is an outer renal ___________ and an inner renal ___________.

• cortex; medulla

• medulla; cortex

cortex; medulla

Filtration occurs when

• filtered fluid passes from the nephron tubules to the peritubular capillaries.

• filtered fluid passes from the nephron tubules to the efferent arteriole.

• filtered fluid leaves the afferent arteriole and enters the glomerular capsule.

• filtered fluid leaves the glomerulus and enters the glomerular capsule.

• filtered fluid passes from the peritubular capillaries to the nephron tubules.

filtered fluid leaves the glomerulus and enters the glomerular capsule.

Which layer is not found in the wall of the urinary bladder?

• Muscularis

• Submucosa

• Mucosal

• Adventitia

• No exceptions; all layers are found in the wall of the urinary bladder

No exceptions; all layers are found in the wall of the urinary bladder

The Urinary System - Posterior View

Correctly label the following components of the urinary system.

• Right kidney

• Ureter

• Urinary bladder

• 12th rib

• Urethra

• Left kidney

Label the structures of the kidney.

• Renal pyramid

• Renal column

• Renal pelvis

• Renal papilla

• Renal cortex

• Renal medulla

Nephron Structure

Label the structures of a nephron in the figure.

• Distal convoluted tubule

• Descending limb

• Ascending limb

• Collecting duct

• Proximal convoluted tubule

• Medulla

• Cortex

• Glomerulus

Urinary System Anatomy

Label the parts of the urinary system and surrounding structures.

• Ureters

• Urinary bladder

• Inferior vena cava

• Kidneys

• Renal artery

• Renal vein

• Descending abdominal aorta

• Urethra

urethra

The Female Urinary Bladder and Urethra

Correctly label the following anatomical structures of the female urethra and urinary bladder.

• Urethra

• Ureter

• Internal urethral sphincter

• External urethral sphincter

• Detrusor muscle

• Ureteral openings

How many secondary oocytes ultimately develop from each primary oocyte?

• 1

• 2

• 5

• 4

• 3

1

The process by which double-stranded, homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material is known as

• crossing over, and it occurs in interphase.

• crossing over, and it occurs in mitosis.

• crossing over, and it occurs in meiosis.

• interphase, and it occurs in meiosis.

• interphase, and it occurs in mitosis.

crossing over, and it occurs in meiosis.

The external urethral orifice is found at the ___________ of the penis.

• glans

• crus

• body

• corpus cavernosum

• bulb

glans

Fimbriae

• are extensions of the ovarian ligament.

• assist in the movement of sperm through the female reproductive tract.

• enclose the ovary at the time of ovulation.

• are sloughed off during menstruation.

enclose the ovary at the time of ovulation.

Ovulation is induced by a peak in the secretion of

• inhibin.

• progesterone.

• estrogen.

• ovulin.

• LH.

LH

Which of these structures contains sebaceous glands?

• Prepuce

• Labia minora

• Clitoris

• Vestibular bulb

• Mons pubis

Labia minora

The male homologue to the labia majora is the

• bulbourethral gland.

• scrotum.

• prostate gland.

• testis.

• penis.

scrotum.

In males, the labioscrotal swellings form the

• scrotum and ventral side of the penis.

• scrotum and testes.

• scrotum and root of the penis.

• scrotum and dorsal side of the penis.

• scrotum.

scrotum.

Menarche is

• the first four days of menstruation.

• the stage immediately preceding menopause.

• the final phase of the uterine cycle.

• a female's first menstrual cycle.

• marked by a dramatic decline in androgen secretion.

a female's first menstrual cycle.

The normal site of fertilization is the

• ampulla of the uterine tube.

• uterine part of the uterine tube.

• fundus of the uterus.

• vagina.

• body of the uterus.

ampulla of the uterine tube.

The _________ nervous system facilitates increased blood flow to the penis by facilitating local release of ________.

• parasympathetic, nitric oxide

• parasympathetic, norepinephrine

• sympathetic, norepinephrine

• sympathetic, nitric oxide

• somatic, acetylcholine

parasympathetic, nitric oxide

Inhibin is secreted by

• hypothalamic cells, and it inhibits LH production.

• follicular cells, and it inhibits FSH production.

• the posterior pituitary, and it inhibits ovulation.

• uterine lining cells, and it inhibits development of ovarian follicles.

• the anterior pituitary, and it inhibits GRH production.

follicular cells, and it inhibits FSH production.

The volume of the antrum is largest in a(n) ________ follicle.

• secondary

• antral

• mature

• primordial

• primary

mature

Ovulation typically occurs on day 14 of the ovarian cycle, and the luteal phase occurs on days

• 1-5.

• 15-28.

• 6-14.

• 8-18.

15-28

A cell that contains 23 pairs of chromosomes is

• monoid.

• diploid.

• haploid.

• polyploid.

diploid

Ovarian Cycle

Label the stages of the ovarian cycle in the figure, based on the levels of FSH and LH, and days of the month.

• Ovulation

• Follicular phase

• Luteal phase

Male Reproductive System

Label the following structures of the male reproductive system.

Spermatogenesis: Order of Events

Germ cells in the testes produce diploid cells called __________. Meiosis begins with primary __________. Meiosis I ends with the production of _________ spermatocytes, which are the first haploid cells in the process. Meiosis Il results in the production of 4 haploid _________. Maturation of the sperm occurs in the _________ tubules and epididymis.

• spermatocytes

• seminiferous

• spermatogonia

• spermatids

• secondary

Germ cells in the testes produce diploid cells called spermatogonia. Meiosis begins with primary spermatocytes. Meiosis I ends with the production of secondary spermatocytes, which are the first haploid cells in the process. Meiosis Il results in the production of 4 haploid spermatids. Maturation of the sperm occurs in the seminiferous tubules and epididymis.

Uterine Cycle: Timing of Events

Before or After Ovulation

• Rapidly rising FSH

• Menses

• Progesterone peak

• Rapidly declining gonadotropins

• Proliferative phase of uterine cycle

• Estrogen low

• Rapidly rising LH

• Secretory phase of uterine cycle

BEFORE ovulation: Rapidly rising LH, Rapidly rising FSH, Proliferative phase of uterine cycle, Estrogen low

AFTER ovulation: Rapidly declining gonadotropins, Menses, Progesterone peak, Secretory phase of uterine cycle

Ovarian Cycle

Before or After Ovulation

• Second meiotic division completion

• Corpus luteum

• Mature follicle

• First polar body formation

• Second meiotic division begins

• Primordial follicles

• Second polar body formation

BEFORE ovulation: Primordial follicles, First polar body formation, First meiotic division, Second meiotic division begins, Mature follicle

AFTER ovulation: Corpus luteum, Second polar body formation, Second meiotic division completion

What happens to the zona pellucida once a sperm cell has penetrated it?

• It secretes hCG

• It hardens.

• It generates electrical impulses.

• It disintegrates.

it hardens

A patient is having contractions that are increasing in intensity and frequency, and her cervix is dilated. She is likely experiencing

• true labor.

• menses.

• false labor.

true labor.

What is the most significant cause of hemorrhoids during pregnancy?

• Compression of veins

• Acid reflux

• Edema

• Morning sickness

Compression of veins

Cleavage occurs during the ________ stage.

• pre-embryonic

• neonatal

• embryonic

• fetal

pre-embryonic

Together, the hypoblast and epiblast form the

• trophoblast.

• cytotrophoblast.

• bilateral germinal disc.

• syncytiotrophoblast.

bilateral germinal disc.

The disease osteogenesis imperfecta is caused by a dominant allele. However, not all people with this allele actually suffer from symptoms of the disease. What is this phenomenon called?

• Codominance

• Dominance

• Incomplete dominance

• Incomplete penetrance

• Recession

Incomplete penetrance

Initially, sperm are not capable of fertilizing the oocyte. They must first undergo

• fertilization.

• meiosis II.

• compaction.

• capacitation.

capacitation

After birth, the foramen ovale is closed as a result of

• increasing pressure in the right atrium.

• increasing pressure in the left atrium.

• increased resistance in the pulmonary circuit.

• decreased blood volume in the pulmonary veins.

increasing pressure in the left atrium.

The portion of a blastocyst that will form the embryo is called the

• trophoblast.

• pronucleus.

• chorion.

• embryoblast.

embryoblast

Many pregnancy tests detect human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). If a patient's pregnancy test was positive, the embryo was at least __________ old when she took the test.

• 1 day

• 2 weeks

• 7 days

• 4 weeks

2 weeks

During the embryonic stage, the primary germ layers develop from the

• blastocyst.

• uterus.

• embryonic disc.

• morula.

embryonic disc

The placenta allows

• oxygen and nutrients to diffuse from maternal blood to the embryo.

• carbon dioxide and other wastes to diffuse from the maternal blood to the embryonic blood.

• movement of anesthetics from the maternal blood into the fetus.

• the fetus to enlarge without rupturing the mother's abdomen.

• All of these choices are correct.

oxygen and nutrients to diffuse from maternal blood to the embryo

An increase in blood pressure during the first trimester of pregnancy is due to

• decreased heart rate.

• increased blood volume.

• decreased blood viscosity.

• decreased hematocrit.

increased blood volume

Which allows sperm to penetrate the zona pellucida?

• Electrical impulses

• Their motility

• The acrosomal reaction

• Local hormones

The acrosomal reaction

True Labor Stages

Structures Surrounding Four Week Embryo

Label the structures surrounding a late 4-week-old embryo.

Uterine Changes During Pregnancy

Gastrulation at Week 3

Implantation: 6-8 Days

Correctly label the following structures involved in the different stages of implantation.

Place the regions of the nephron in the correct order for the process of urine formation.

a. Capsular space of glomerulus

b. Nephron loop

c. Collecting duct

d. Distal convoluted tubule

e. Proximal convoluted tubule

• b, d, c, e, a

• a, c, b,e, d

• a, e, b, d, c

• b, e, c, d, a

• e, d, b, a, c

a, e, b, d, c

Which of the following would increase the rate of glomerular filtration?

• a constricted afferent arteriole

• drinking water

• decreased blood pressure

• a dilated efferent arteriole

• increased blood pressure

increased blood pressure

The __________ inside the bladder is formed by imaginary lines connecting the two ureter openings and the urethral opening.

• mucosa

• trigone

• detrusor

• muscularis

trigone

To calculate GFR, the concentration of a marker molecule is measured in both the blood and the urine, and the total volume of urine produced is also measured. Which of the following sets of results indicates the highest GFR?

• High concentration of the marker in the urine, high volume of urine, low concentration of the marker in the blood

• High concentration or the marker in the brood, high volume of urine, low concentration of the marker in the urine

• High concentration of the marker in the blood, low volume of urine, high concentration of the marker in the blood

• High concentration of the marker in the urine, low volume of urine, high concentration of the marker in the blood

High concentration of the marker in the urine, high volume of urine, low concentration of the marker in the blood

The ___________ transfer urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder.

• urethras

• efferent arteries

• ureters

• vas deferens and uterine tubes

ureters

If renal plasma clearance is a test to measure the volume of a substance that can be completely cleared in 1 minute, and if the GFR of urea is 125 mL/min, and renal plasma clearance of urea is 70 mL/min, that means the remainder of the urea is

• filtered

• cleared

• degraded

• reabsorbed

reabsorbed

The proximal convoluted tubule is lined with a

• stratified squamous epithelium with a large surface area.

• stratified squamous epithelium with a tough, durable surface.

• simple squamous endothelium that makes a slick surface.

• cuboidal epithelium with a large surface area

• simple columnar epithelium with a slick smooth surface.

cuboidal epithelium with a large surface area

The normal pH for urine

• ranges between 8.0 and 9.0 for someone with a diet high in protein.

• ranges between 3.0 and 6.0.

• is anyhting below 7.0.

• Is anything above 7.0

• ranges between 4.5 and 8.0.

ranges between 4.5 and 8.0.

The presence of proteins in the plasma tends to

• push tud aross the hitason membrane.

• draw fluid back into the glomerulus.

draw fluid back into the glomerulus.

Generally, a very __________ percent of Na' in the tubular fluid is reabsorbed, and the reabsorption takes place _____________.

• small, only in the nephron loop

• high; only in the nephron loop

• small; along the entire tubule

• high; along the entire tubule

high; along the entire tubule

Podocytes and pedicels are part of the

• collecting duct.

• peritubular capillaries.

• distal convoluted tubule.

• urethra.

• glomerular capsule.

glomerular capsule

Which is not correct regarding the urinary bladder?

• The mucosa has rugae for distension.

• The inferior portion of the bladder is called the apex.

• The peritoneum covers only the superior surface of the bladder

• There are two ureteral operings.

The inferior portion of the bladder is called the apex

The expulsion of urine from the bladder is referred to as

• Incontinence.

• diuresis.

• retention.

• micturition.

micturition

The hormone ANP is released from the heart and causes the urinary system to

• increase urine volume and decrease blood volume.

• decrease urine volume and blood volume.

• decrease urine volume and increase blood volume

• increase urine volume and blood volume

increase urine volume and decrease blood volume

The Male Urinary Bladder and Urethra

• Prostatic urethra

• Internal urethral sphincter

• Prostate gland

• Ureteral openings

• Spongy urethra

• Membranous urethra

• External urethral sphincter

Paramesonephric ducts degenerate when the hormone ___________ is present.

• TSH

• testosterone

• inhibin

• estrogen

• AMH

AMH

What fibromuscular structure is about 10 centimeters long and serves as the birth canal?

• Uterus

• isthmus

• vagina

• Fallopian tube

vagina

When the process of melosis is complete, the result is

• two daughter cells that are diploid.

• two daughter cells that are haploid.

• four daughter cells that are diploid

• four daughter cells that are haploid

four daughter cells that are haploid

The male homologue to the labia majora is the

• scrotum

• prostate gland

• bulbourethral gland

• testis

• penis

scrotum

Which choice best distinguishes between mitosis and meiosis?

• Mitosis produces somatic cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell, whereas meiosis produces sex cells that are genetically different from the parent cell.

• Miosis produces sex cells that are genetically different from the parent cell, whereas meiosis produces somatic cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell.

• Mitosis produces sex cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell, whereas meiosis produces somatic cells that are genetically different from the parent cell.

• Mitosis produces somatic cells that are genetically different from the parent cell, whereas meiosis produces sex cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell.

Mitosis produces somatic cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell, whereas meiosis produces sex cells that are genetically different from the parent cell.

The rete testis

• is a venous network that cools the arterial blood traveling to the testis

• transports seminal fluid to the efferent ductules

• receives sperm from the seminiferous tubules

• is the nerve plexus that supplies the testis

• is the site of spermiogenesis

receives sperm from the seminiferous tubules

Which of the male accessory glands encircles the urethra?

• Urethral gland

• Bulbourethral gland

• Cowper’s gland

• Seminal vesicle

• Prostate gland

Prostate gland

The portion of the uterine wall that includes the basal layer is the

• myometrium.

• serosa.

• perimetrium.

• muscularis.

• endometrium.

endometrium

Ovulation occurs when an oocyte is released from a ruptured ________ follicle.

• primary

• primordial

• mature

• cogonial

• secondary

mature

A secondary oocyte arrests in

• anaphase Il

• metaphase Il.

• prophase I.

• metaphase I.

• prophase II.

metaphase Il.

Which of the following is true?

• Sperm are composed of seminal fuid within a cell membrane.

• Seminal fluid is composed of semen and sperm.

• The three ingredients of ejaculate are sperm, semen, and prostate-specific antigen.

• Semen is composed of seminal fluid and sperm.

Semen is composed of seminal fluid and sperm.

When a woman in her fifth decade of life is not pregnant and has stopped having menstrual cycles for _________, she is said to be in menopause.

• 1 year

• 18 months

• 4 months

• 2 months

• 6 months

1 year

The appearance of the external genitalia determines an individual's

• phenotypic sex.

• genetic sex.

• genotypic sex.

• gender identity.

phenotypic sex

Which is not a uterine function?

• Passogeway for sperm

• Site of implantation

• Protection and support of developing embryo

• Muscle contraction for labor and delivery

• Usual site of fertilization

Usual site of fertilization

Gross Anatomical Structures of the Ovaries

Label the structures surrounding the ovary in the figure.

• broad ligament

• suspensory ligament

• uterine tube

• ovary

• ovarian ligament

Gamete Formation

Spermatogenesis or Oogenesis

• One gamete is produced

• Of the two, this process is much more rapid

• An acrosomal region must be present in mature cells

• The zona pellucida is present around mature cells

• Meiosis is completed only if fertilization occurs

• Polar bodies are formed

• Four gametes are produced that can potentially contribute to a zygote

Ducts of the Male Reproductive System

Nutrients and wastes are exchanged between mother and fetus through the

• amniotic cavity

• yolk sac

• amnion

• placenta

placenta

A patient has weak contractions that are irregularly spaced. She is likely experiencing _________ labor.

• true

• false

false

Which of the following statements about lactation is false?

• High levels of estrogen and progesterone inhibit the effect of prolactin on the mammary glands.

• Other hormones responsible for breast growth during pregnancy include growth hormone, parathyroid hormones, and glucocorticoids.

• Prolectin stimulates milk production.

• Suckling and/or mechanical stimulation of the breasts causes secretion of prolactin releasing factor

• Both colostrum and breast milk contain antibodies.

Other hormones responsible for breast growth during pregnancy include growth hormone, parathyroid hormones, and glucocorticoids.

During pregnancy, the placenta secretes ______________, which helps stimulate a darkening of the areolae, nipples, and linea alba.

• follicle-stimulating hormone

• human chorionic thyrotropin

• relaxin

• melanocyte-stimulating hormone

melanocyte-stimulating hormone

Fertilization usually occurs in the

• uterus.

• uterine tube.

• ovary.

• vagina.

• cervix.

uterine tube

What allows sperm to penetrate the corona radiata?

• The acrosomal reaction

• Local hormones

• Electrical impulses

• Their motility

Their motility

The chorion is the ____________ and the amnion is the _________.

• site where an embryo is implanted into the uterus; outer protective membrane around the embryo

• outermost covering of an embryo and helps form the placenta; a membrane that encircles a developing embryo

• site from which primary germ layers develop: site from which secondary germ layers develop

• part of the blastocyst that is not the inner cell mass, inner cell mass

outermost covering of an embryo and helps form the placenta; a membrane that encircles a developing embryo

Each pronucleus contains a ________ number of chromosomes.

• diploid

• haploid

haploid

After birth, the foramen ovale is closed as a result of

• Increasing pressure in the right atrium.

• Increasing pressure in the left atrium.

• increased resistance in the pulmonary circuit.

• decreased blood volume in the pulmonary veins.

Increasing pressure in the left atrium.