MRCOG part 2

0.0(0)
studied byStudied by 0 people
0.0(0)
full-widthCall Kai
learnLearn
examPractice Test
spaced repetitionSpaced Repetition
heart puzzleMatch
flashcardsFlashcards
GameKnowt Play
Card Sorting

1/117

encourage image

There's no tags or description

Looks like no tags are added yet.

Study Analytics
Name
Mastery
Learn
Test
Matching
Spaced

No study sessions yet.

118 Terms

1
New cards

Risk of postpartum psychosis with hx of bipolar

50%, 1 in 2

2
New cards

Incidence of early onset GBS in the newborn

0.57

3
New cards

Increase in maternal mortality in multiple pregnancy

2.5x

4
New cards

Risk of adverse outcome to baby in low risk pregnancies having a home birth in the UK

9 per 1000

5
New cards

Risk of reversion to breech after successful ECV at 36 weeks

5%

6
New cards

Risk of uterine perforation during ERPC

5 in 1000

7
New cards

Risk of simple hyperplasia without atypia progressing to endometrial cancer

1%

Approx 4% for complex hyperplasia

Overall risk of hyperplasia without atypia → 5%

8
New cards

What is the increased risk of CS in IOL vs SOL

1.5x

9
New cards

Normal Hb in 1st Trimester

>110

10
New cards
What percentage of births in the UK are instrumental deliveries?
10%.
11
New cards
What is the approximate rate of episiotomy in a vacuum-assisted delivery?
50–60%.
12
New cards
What is the approximate rate of episiotomy in a forceps delivery?

>90%.

13
New cards

What percentage of instrumental deliveries without episiotomy result in a significant vulvo-vaginal tear?

17-38%.
14
New cards
The rate of Obstetric Anal Sphincter Injury (OASI) in a vacuum-assisted delivery is _____.
1–4%.
15
New cards
What is the risk of Obstetric Anal Sphincter Injury (OASI) associated with a forceps delivery?
8–12%.
16
New cards
What is the risk of postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) following both vacuum and forceps deliveries?
10–40%.
17
New cards
Cephalhaematoma is a perinatal outcome predominantly associated with vacuum delivery, with an incidence of _____.
1–12%.
18
New cards
What is the incidence of facial or scalp lacerations in both vacuum and forceps deliveries?
10%.
19
New cards
What is the overall incidence of Obstetric Anal Sphincter Injury (OASI) in the UK?
3%.
20
New cards
How does the UK incidence of OASI differ between primiparous and multiparous women?

6% in primiparous women

2% in multiparous women.

21
New cards
By what factor does a ventouse (vacuum) delivery increase the risk of OASI?
It doubles the risk (2X).
22
New cards
By what factor do nulliparity and forceps delivery each increase the risk of OASI?
They each increase the risk by a factor of six (6X).
23
New cards
How is the increased risk of OASI from a forceps delivery (6X) modified by performing an episiotomy?

6x to 1.3x

24
New cards
What percentage of women who sustain an OASI are asymptomatic after one year?
60-80%.
25
New cards
What is the maximum safe dose of lignocaine with adrenaline when used as a local anaesthetic?
7 mg/kg.
26
New cards
What is the maximum safe dose of lignocaine without adrenaline when used as a local anaesthetic?
3 mg/kg.
27
New cards
What is the incidence of cord prolapse?
0.5%.
28
New cards
A breech presentation increases the risk of cord prolapse by a factor of _____.
two (2X).
29
New cards
What is the perinatal mortality rate associated with cord prolapse?
1%.
30
New cards
In maternal collapse, what percentage of normal cardiac output is achieved with CPR?
30%.
31
New cards
From 20 weeks of gestation, aortocaval compression significantly reduces cardiac output by up to _____.
90% (leaving only 10%).
32
New cards

If there is no response to correctly performed CPR, after how many minute should a perimortem CS be commenced and delivery

CS after 4 minutes of collapse

Delivery after 5 minutes of collapse

33
New cards
What is the standard intramuscular dose of adrenaline for treating anaphylaxis in an adult?
500 micrograms (0.5 ml) of 1:1000 adrenaline solution.
34
New cards
What is the intravenous bolus dose of adrenaline used in maternal collapse/anaphylaxis?
50 micrograms (0.5 ml of 1:10,000 solution).
35
New cards
What is the incidence of placental abruption?
0.5%.
36
New cards
What percentage of placental abruption cases occur in pregnancies considered low-risk?
70%.
37
New cards
What is the recurrence risk of placental abruption after one previous abruption?
10%.
38
New cards
After two previous placental abruptions, the recurrence risk increases to _____.
25%.
39
New cards
What is the incidence of vasa praevia?
1 in 1,200 to 1 in 5,000 pregnancies.
40
New cards
Even with urgent caesarean delivery, what is the minimum fetal mortality rate in cases of vasa praevia?
At least 60%.
41
New cards
For an asymptomatic woman with a prenatal diagnosis of vasa praevia, when is a planned caesarean delivery considered reasonable?
At 34–36 weeks of gestation.
42
New cards
Vasa praevia is more common in pregnancies conceived via _____.
In vitro fertilisation (IVF).
43
New cards
What is the incidence of Preterm Prelabour Rupture of Membranes (P-PROM)?
3%.
44
New cards
Following P-PROM, the risk of neonatal infections increases to _____, compared to 0.5% in normal labour.
1%.
45
New cards
What percentage of women with P-PROM will go into labour within 24 hours?
60%.
46
New cards
What is the UK guidance on offering antenatal corticosteroids for gestations between 24+0 and 33+6 weeks?
Offer corticosteroids.
47
New cards
What is the UK guidance on antenatal corticosteroids for gestations between 34+0 and 35+6 weeks?
Consider corticosteroids.
48
New cards
For gestations between 23+0 and 23+6 weeks, what is the UK guidance on antenatal corticosteroids?
Discuss the use of corticosteroids.
49
New cards
What is the incidence of stillbirth (SB) in the UK?
0.5% (5 per 1000 births).
50
New cards
What proportion of stillbirths are classified as unexplained?
50%.
51
New cards
What percentage of stillbirths are associated with the baby being small for gestational age (SGA)?
33%.
52
New cards
Following an intrauterine death, what percentage of women will deliver spontaneously within 3 weeks?
85%.
53
New cards
What is the risk of developing Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) within 4 weeks of an intrauterine death?
10%.
54
New cards
The risk of developing Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) rises to _____ after 4 weeks following an intrauterine death.
30%.
55
New cards
What is the risk of nerve entrapment after one caesarean section using a Pfannenstiel incision?
Less than 1%.
56
New cards
According to the TOG source, what is the overall rate of nerve injuries associated with gynaecological surgery?
3.7%.
57
New cards
In vertical transmission of Hepatitis B, what is the risk if the mother is e-antigen positive?
90%.
58
New cards
In vertical transmission of Hepatitis B, the risk is _____ if the mother is e-antigen negative.
10%.
59
New cards
If an infant is infected with Hepatitis B at birth, what is the likelihood they will become a chronic carrier?
90%.
60
New cards
By what percentage does the combination of vaccination and immunoglobulin reduce the vertical transmission of Hepatitis B?
By more than 90%.
61
New cards
What is the incidence of obstetric cholestasis in multi-ethnic populations?
0.7% of pregnancies.
62
New cards
The incidence of obstetric cholestasis is _____ in women of Indian-Asian or Pakistani-Asian origin.
1.2%–1.5%.
63
New cards
What is the incidence of early miscarriage (before 12 weeks)?
20%.
64
New cards
What is the incidence of late miscarriage (between 12 and 24 weeks)?
1-2%.
65
New cards
Recurrent miscarriage, defined as three or more consecutive miscarriages, affects what percentage of couples?
1%.
66
New cards
What is the approximate risk of a subsequent miscarriage after a woman has had three previous miscarriages?
40%.
67
New cards
Parental genetic factors are responsible for what percentage of recurrent miscarriages?
2%.
68
New cards
What is the risk of miscarriage for a woman under the age of 30?
10%.
69
New cards
The risk of miscarriage for a woman aged 40 is _____.
50%.
70
New cards
For a woman over the age of 45, the risk of miscarriage is _____.
90%.
71
New cards
What is the incidence of ectopic pregnancy?
11 per 1000 pregnancies (1.1%).
72
New cards
In women with fertility-reducing factors, what is the future pregnancy rate after a salpingotomy for an ectopic pregnancy?
75%.
73
New cards
In women with fertility-reducing factors, what is the future pregnancy rate after a salpingectomy for an ectopic pregnancy?
40%.
74
New cards
For women without fertility-reducing factors, what is the future pregnancy rate after either a salpingotomy or salpingectomy?
90% in both groups.
75
New cards
What is the recommended daily dose of folic acid for a pregnant woman with a BMI greater than 30?

5mg (until 12 weeks).

76
New cards
At what gestation should an Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT) be offered to a pregnant woman with a BMI over 30?
Between 24-28 weeks.
77
New cards
A BMI greater than _____ is considered a moderate risk factor for pre-eclampsia, warranting consideration of low-dose aspirin.
35
78
New cards
What is the overall rate of serious risk (to major vessels, bladder, uterus, or bowel) in laparoscopy?
2 per 1000 procedures.
79
New cards
What percentage of bowel injuries that occur during laparoscopy are not diagnosed at the time of surgery?
15%.
80
New cards
What proportion of major complications in laparoscopy are related to the entry technique?
50%.
81
New cards
In a patient with a previous midline incision, what is the risk of umbilical adhesions?
50%.
82
New cards
Following a previous suprapubic incision (e.g., Pfannenstiel), the risk of umbilical adhesions is _____.
25%.
83
New cards
What is the risk of uterine perforation during a surgical evacuation of retained products of conception?
1 in 1000.
84
New cards
What is the rate of serious complications overall for a hysterectomy?
4 per 100 (4%).
85
New cards
The risk of haemorrhage and blood transfusion during a hysterectomy is _____.
2 per 100 (2%).
86
New cards
What is the risk of urinary tract injury during a hysterectomy?
7 per 1000.
87
New cards
What is the prevalence of endometriosis in the general population?
2-10%.
88
New cards
Among women with pelvic pain, what percentage are found to have endometriosis?
90%.
89
New cards
What is the risk of an unsuspected uterine sarcoma during surgery for a presumed benign fibroid in women under 50?
2.5 per 1000.
90
New cards
In post-menopausal women, what is the risk of an unsuspected uterine sarcoma at the time of surgery for a presumed benign fibroid?
6 per 1000.
91
New cards
What is the risk of permanent amenorrhoea following Uterine Artery Embolisation (UAE)?
1.5–7% overall, but it is markedly dependent on the patient’s age.
92
New cards
What percentage of patients who undergo Uterine Artery Embolisation (UAE) require an urgent hysterectomy, usually due to infection?
1%.
93
New cards
Over 20 years, what is the risk of endometrial hyperplasia without atypia progressing to carcinoma?
Less than 5%.
94
New cards
What percentage of cases of endometrial hyperplasia without atypia will spontaneously regress?
Over 80%.
95
New cards
Atypical endometrial hyperplasia (AH) carries a _____ risk of progressing to malignancy over 20 years.
25%.
96
New cards
In women diagnosed with atypical endometrial hyperplasia (AH), what percentage may have a concomitant carcinoma already present?
Up to 40%.
97
New cards
What is the lifetime risk of ovarian cancer for a carrier of the BRCA 1 gene mutation?
40%.
98
New cards
What is the lifetime risk of breast cancer for a carrier of either the BRCA 1 or BRCA 2 gene mutation?
80%.
99
New cards
For a carrier of the BRCA 2 gene mutation, the lifetime risk of ovarian cancer is _____.
20%.
100
New cards
HNPCC (Lynch Syndrome Type II) carries a 12% lifetime risk of ovarian cancer and is also associated with which other gynaecological cancer?
Endometrial cancer.