SBI242 Week 7 - Pharmacology of the Respiratory System

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86 Terms

1
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What is the function of the immune response and inflammation?

To eliminate pathogens “non-self” and repair tissue

2
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Give some examples of what the immune response and inflammation protect from:

All of the above

3
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Give some examples of physical and chemical barriers.

Skin, epithelial cells, tears, mucus

4
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What is an example of a biochemical and cellular response?

Release of histamine and activation of immune cells

5
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What are some effects of vasodilation?

Increased blood flow, warmth, and redness

6
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What is the effect of vascular permeability?

Fluid leakage into tissues

7
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What are the benefits of inflammation?

Elimination of pathogens, removal of debris, and tissue repair

8
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What are the steps in acute inflammation?

Recognition of pathogen, release of mediators (histamines, eicosanoids), activation of phagocytic cells

9
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What occurs during the immune response if inflammation is inadequate?

Activation of lymphocytes, antibodies production to neutralize antigens

10
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What happens during chronic inflammation?

Release of other classes of mediators - cytokines, cellular damage, e.g., rheumatoid arthritis

11
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What vascular effects result from histamine release?

Vasodilation and increased permeability

12
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What chemotactic factor attracts neutrophils?

Neutrophil chemotactic factor

13
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What chemotactic factor attracts eosinophils?

Eosinophil chemotactic factor

14
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What is synthesized by cyclo-oxygenase during mast cell degranulation?

Prostaglandins

15
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What is the result of neutrophils on the inflammatory process?

Phagocytosis and destruction of pathogens

16
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Mediators of Vasodilation and Increased Vascular Permeability:

All of the above

17
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What is the adhesion of WBCs to the endothelial cells and migration out of blood vessels to site of infection called?

Diapedesis

18
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Name activations of cells involved in the removal of pathogens:

All of the above

19
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What is the role of coagulation in the proteolytic enzyme system?

Thrombin (IIa) to activate complement cascade; Fibrin to limit the spread of infection

20
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What is the role of fibrinolysis?

To dissolve blood clots

21
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What is the role of bradykinin in the kinin system?

Vasodilation, Exudation, Stimulates pain response, Increases prostaglandin synthesis

22
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What are the effects of C3a?

Releases histamine, spasmogen

23
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What is the effect of C3b?

Opsonization of pathogens

24
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What are the effects of C5a?

Chemotaxis and inflammation

25
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What is the effect of C5-9 (MAC)?

Cell lysis and destruction

26
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What activates mast cells in tissues?

C3a, C5a, IgE to release pro-inflammatory mediators including histamine, prostaglandins, leukotrienes and PAF

27
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What do neutrophils do?

Neutrophils phagocytose bacteria, lyse and digest pathogens with reactive oxygen species (ROS) and proteases

28
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Give an example of what natural killer cells do.

Attack and destroy pathogens by identifying that they do not express Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) as normal cells do

29
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What is the adaptive humoral immune response?

Production of immunoglobulins (IgEs) by B lymphocytes from bone marrow, stimulated by T Helper cells

30
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What is the adaptive cellular immune response?

Activation of T lymphocytes from Thymus. Further develop into subsets, e.g., cytotoxic, helper cells, natural killer cells

31
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How antibodies assist in opsonization?

By binding to pathogens, marking them for destruction by phagocytic cells

32
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What is hypersensitivity?

An overactive immune response to a harmless antigen

33
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What happens during Type 1 (Anaphylaxis) Hypersensitivity?

Allergens (pollen, dust mites etc) stimulate IgE production, IgE binds to mast cells causing them to degranulate and release pro-inflammatory mediators. Leads to asthma, hay fever, bronchospasm

34
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What happens during Type 2 (Antibody-dependent) Hypersensitivity?

Antibodies bind to cell surface antigens, marking cells for destruction

35
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What happens during Type 3 (Antibody-antigen complex) Hypersensitivity?

Formation of antigen-antibody complexes, deposition in tissues, and complement activation

36
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What happens during Type 4 (Delayed, cell mediated) Hypersensitivity?

Activation of T cells, macrophages, and cytokines, leading to inflammation and tissue damage

37
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What is Autoimmunity?

Response against self-antigens by T and B cells (immune system fails to recognize ‘self’)

38
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What is Immunodeficiency?

Decreased CD4 T-helper cells. Increases susceptibility to infections and increases malignancies

39
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What are the consequences of inflammation?

D) Both B and C

40
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What structures are part of the conducting zone of the respiratory system?

Trachea, bronchi, bronchioles

41
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What structures are part of the respiratory zone of the respiratory system?

Respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveoli

42
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What is the primary role of the conducting zone?

Warming, humidifying, and filtering the air

43
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What occurs in the respiratory zone?

Gas exchange between alveoli and blood

44
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What are the two major types of epithelial cells in the alveoli and what are their functions?

Type I pneumocytes (gas exchange) and Type II pneumocytes (surfactant production)

45
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What three types of work are required for breathing during inspiration?

Elastic forces, tissue viscosity, resistance, gravitational

46
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What does FEV1 stand for?

Forced expiratory volume in 1 second

47
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What does FVC stand for?

Forced vital capacity

48
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What are the principal characteristics of Asthma?

Airway inflammation, airway hyperresponsiveness, and mucus hypersecretion

49
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Name some of the most important mediators released during an acute allergic asthmatic episode.

Histamine, interleukins, prostaglandins, leukotrienes, and nitric oxide

50
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What are some examples of reliever medications for asthma?

Salbutamol or terbutaline (short-acting β2-agonist) and ipratropium bromide (anti-muscarinic antagonist)

51
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What are some examples of symptom controller medications for asthma?

Salmeterol and eformoterol (long-acting β2-agonist drugs)

52
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What are some examples of preventer medications for asthma?

Inhaled corticosteroids (e.g., fluticasone propionate), leukotriene-receptor antagonists (montelukast), and cromones (cromoglycate and nedocromil).

53
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What is the mechanism of action of short-acting beta 2 adrenoceptor agonists (Salbutamol)?

Activation of β2-adrenoceptors in bronchial smooth muscle leads to increased cAMP formation, enhancement of calcium extrusion, and binding of intracellular calcium

54
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What is the mechanism of action of anticholinergics for asthma?

Blocking muscarinic receptors, reducing bronchoconstriction

55
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What are some adverse effects of anticholinergics?

Dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation

56
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Corticosteroids (e.g., inhaled corticosteroids) work by:

Decrease activation of lymphoid cells and eosinophils; decrease production and action of cytokines; inhibit COX enzymes; decrease histamine release; decrease mast cell production

57
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What are some adverse effects of inhaled corticosteroids?

Hoarse voice and oral or oesophageal candida infections

58
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What is the mechanism of action of cromones?

Stabilise mast cells, block chloride channels, suppress activation of sensory nerves, desensitise neuronal reflexes, inhibit cytokine release

59
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What is the mechanism of action of leukotriene-receptor antagonists?

Block receptors for the cysteinyl leukotrienes, inhibit pro-inflammatory cytokines

60
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What is the mechanism of action of monoclonal antibodies in asthma management?

Blocking IgE receptors (e.g., omalizumab) or targeting specific cytokines (e.g., IL-4, IL-5, IL-13)

61
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Name some cells that play a major role in inflammation and lung damage:

Neutrophils, macrophages, and CD8+ T-lymphocytes

62
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What is the major mechanism of airflow limitation in emphysema?

Loss of elastic recoil

63
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Name some COPD management strategies

Cessation of smoking, short-acting bronchodilators, influenza vaccinations

64
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What are the main indications for oxygen therapy?

All of the above

65
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What are the symptoms of oxygen toxicity?

Substernal distress, respiratory distress, nausea, vomiting, restlessness, tremors, twitching, paraesthesias, convulsions, dry cough

66
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What are signs of carbon dioxide over-dosage?

Dyspnoea, breath-holding, markedly increased chest and abdominal movements, nausea and raised systolic blood pressure

67
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The conducting zone of the respiratory system includes which of the following:

The pharynx and larynx

68
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What does FEV1 represent?

The volume of air forcefully exhaled in 1 second

69
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In patients with an obstructive lung disease (asthma, COPD, emphysema), the ratio of
FEV1 to FVC is:

Less than 75%

70
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What are the main pathologies of Asthma?

Hyperinflammatory response, mucus hypersecretion, and smooth muscle
constriction (bronchiospasm)

71
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Which of the following inflammatory mediators are released during an acute asthmatic
attack?

All of the above

72
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An example of an asthma reliever medication is:

Salbutamol

73
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The mechanism of action of salbutamol is to:

Activate β2-adrenoceptors on smooth muscle causing increased extrusion of calcium from the cell resulting in lowered concentration of intra-cellular calcium and relaxation of bronchiole smooth muscle

74
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Parasympathetic stimulation on muscarinic receptors on bronchiole smooth muscle cause an increase in intra-cellular calcium, thus resulting in broncho-constriction. Therefore, anti-cholinergic medications such ipratropium bromide:

Block muscarinic receptors on bronchiole smooth muscle resulting in broncho-dilation

75
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Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect associated with inhaled corticosteroid
use?

Gingivitis hyperplasia

76
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A 50-year-old female is diagnosed with moderate persistent asthma. Her medication
regime should include:

Inhaled short acting beta 2 agonist as required; plus a low dose inhaled corticosteroid; plus a long acting beta 2 agonist

77
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The pathophysiology of emphysema is described as:

Abnormal permanent enlargement of gas-exchange airways accompanied by
destruction of alveolar walls

78
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Which of the following is a sign/symptom of chronic bronchitis?

Peripheral oedema

79
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The management of COPD includes:

Short acting B2 agonists, inhaled glucocorticosteriods and oxygen therapy

80
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Oxygen therapy is indicated in cases of hypoxia or hypoxaemia, coronary conditions,
shock and severe haemorrhage. Normal oxygen saturations are considered to be:

94-98%

81
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The respiratory zone of the respiratory system includes which of the following?

Alveoli

82
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What is the recommended pharmacological management of COPD?

Short acting B2 agonists, inhaled glucocorticosteroids, and oxygen therapy

83
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In the treatment of asthma, ipratropium bromide ________ muscarinic receptors in the bronchioles leading to ________.

inhibits; bronchodilation

84
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Why is carvedilol contraindicated for patients with severe asthma?

Because beta blockers inhibit beta 2 receptors in the bronchiole causing bronchi-constriction

85
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Low levels of circulating TSH in the blood indicate:

Overproduction of thyroid hormone

86
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What is FVC?

The maximum volume of air that can be forcefully exhaled after a maximal inhalation