Pharmacology MCQ Practice

During which phase are animals used in testing?

pre-clinical phase

Which phase of drug evaluation tries informed patients?

Phase II, can be combined with phase I for rare diseases

Which phase of drug evaluation is done after the drug is released on the market?

Phase IV, can lead to drugs being taken off the market if serious long-term side effects are found

Which phase of drug evaluation tests the drug in the clinical market?

Phase III

Which of the following is the definition of absorption?

the movement of drug from site of administration into blood supply

What is the bioavailability of a drug administered IV?

100% (direct)

How do PK profiles help you choose between drugs?

Different drugs can be needed depending on the urgency of the indication, drug can have distinct PK depending on route of administration

How do PK profiles help you choose how frequently to administer drug?

We can see the time it takes to get to the critical concentration

What is the definition of drug distribution in PK?

the movement of drugs throughout the body (from plasma to tissue)

What is the major organ involved in drug metabolism?

liver

What is the definition of metabolism

the enzymatic alteration of drug structure (conversion/modification/biotransformation)

Which of the following organs is involved in excretion

kidney

what is excretion

removal of drug from the body

what is the time it takes for Cmax to be reduced by half

half-life

If we gave a drug of half-life 6, after 12 hours, what’s the concentration?

25%, half after half amount of time, quarter after same amount of time after

which of the following is first-order kinetics?

constant fraction of drug being removed per unit time

which of the following is zero-order kinetics?

constant amount of drug removed per unit time

Which drug is more potent? Which drug is more effective?

green, both same effectiveness

Which of the following is an agonist?

one that has affinity and intrinsic activity, stimulates a response, binds and activates

which of the following is an antagonist?

has affinity but no intrinsic ability, prevents agonist action

How many domains do nuclear receptors have?

none, they’re intracellular

what are the specialized domains of GPCR?

G-protein

what are the specialized domains of LGIC?

channel pores

what are the specialized domains of KLR

enzymatic/catalytic domain, usually with phosphorylation

how many subunits and transmembrane receptors do LGIC have?

4-5, 4

how many subunits and transmembrane receptors do GPCR have?

7, 1

how many subunits and transmembrane receptors do KLR have?

1,1

how many subunits and transmembrane receptors do NR have?

0,1

True or false: G-protein bound by GTP is inactive

false, GDP is inactive

True or false: G-protein bound by GDP is inactive

true, GDP is inactive

Pharmacokinetics is best defined as which of the following?

I. the action of drugs on the body

II. The interaction of a drug with its receptor

III. The process of drug absorption

IV. The action of body on drugs

V. The duration of action of a drug

the action of body on drugs

Which of the following is the major site of drug metabolism?

I. Kidney

II. Liver

III. Brain

IV. Lung

V. Skin

Liver

What is the removal of a drug referred to as?

excretion

Which effect refers to the process occurs when an oral medication is processed through the liver before reaching the tissues?

first-pass effect

what is the amount of time it takes for a drug level to decrease to one-half its peak level in the blood?

half-life

drug excretion primarily occurs through which organ?

the kidney

60 mg of drug Z was administered and 6 mg reached the plasma. What is the bioavailability of drug Z?

10%

T/F: coronary flow is blood supply to heart muscle

true

T/F: nitrates stimulate both arterial and venous SMC contraction and contract coronary arteries

false, only vascular

T/F: statins are administered orally and decrease hepatic cholesterol synthesis

true

Which of the following is true about aspirin

irreversible cox-1 inhibitor

which is true about statin MoA

HMG CoA reductase inhibitors

T/F: thrombin cleaves plasminogen to plasmin

false, fibrinogen to fibrin

T/F thrombus is a solid mass consisting of only platelets

False, also have white/red blood cells

T/F: coagulation cascade can be activated by contact with damaged tissue or tissue factor release

true

T/F: natriuresis is exceptionally salty urine

true

Which is false about loop diuretics

Increase aldosterone production in collecting duct

Which is true about warfarin

Warfarin is a vit k antagonist

What’s true about statins

HMG CoA reductase inhibitors

What is false about CCB

Increase intracellular ca2+

What is false abt beta blockers

Exert effect by blocking sodium movement

Where do thiazide diuretics work

Distal convoluted tubule

Which receptor is found on the presynaptic terminal

Alpha 2

Which one of the following is a class of receptors targeted for heart failure treatment

Beta1

A medication that non-selectively blocks both beta1 and beta2 adrenergic receptors is prescribed to a patient. Which of the following is a potential side effect

Increased bronchial constriction

What are cholinergic drugs

Drugs that act on the same pathway as acetylcholine (often called parasympathomimetic drugs), not limited to a certain site of action, associated with undesirable systemic effects

Which ONE of the following is not a class of anti-depressant drug?

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

Which ONE of the following is TRUE regarding opioid drugs?

are associated with withdrawal symptoms

Which of the following is not a feature of a neurotransmitter synapse?

Nuclear Receptor

Which ONE of the following is FALSE regarding excitatory cholinergic neurotransmission in the CNS?

A localised hyperpolarisation occurs in the post-synaptic neuron

Which ONE of the following is FALSE regarding Inhibitory GABA neurotransmission in the CNS?

GABA agonists will decrease receptor activation

If a patient is taking MAO inhibitors and ingests tyramine (red wine, aged cheese),which of the following acute responses is most likely?

Stimulation of NA release

Which ONE of the following statements is TRUE regarding testosterone?

Is converted to dihydrotestosterone (DHT) by 5α-reductase

Which one of the following hormones is not produced by the adrenal gland

estrogen

In the diagnosis of Addison’s disease (primary adrenal insufficiency), which ONE of the following is the expected response to corticotropin?

High Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

Which one of the following laboratory results would be expected in hypothyroidism

Low T3-Low T4- High TSH

Which gland is primarily responsible for regulating metabolism through hormone secretion

thyroid

Corticosteroids are often used in the management of which ONE of the following

asthma

Which ONE of the following is NOT a mechanism of HIV/AIDS therapy

promotion of reverse transcriptase activity

Which ONE of the following mechanisms is a common target for antibacterial chemotherapeutic agents?

Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

Which ONE of the following drug types does NOT inhibit cell cycle progression?

Selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs)

Which ONE of the following is a FALSE statement about targeted therapies?

They are never targeted to the PD-1 molecule

Which ONE of the following statements about angiotensin II receptor antagonists is TRUE?

they selectively block angiotensin II AT1 receptors

Which ONE of the following is the most appropriate treatment for anaphylaxis?

adrenaline/epinephrine

Which ONE of the following statements regarding aspirin is TRUE?

Aspirin inhibits cyclooxygernase-1 (COX-1)

Which ONE of the following molecules is the target of an immune

checkpoint inhibitor monoclonal antibody?

B. Programmed Cell Death Ligand 1 (PD-L1), which is located on the surface of many

cancer cell-types

Imatinib is a groundbreaking small-molecule (tyrosine kinase) inhibitor used primarily in

the treatment of Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML).

Which ONE of the following is the primary molecular target of Imatinib, which drives the

proliferation of CML cells?

B. BCR-ABL fusion protein (a constitutively active tyrosine kinase), resulting from the

Philadelphia chromosome translocation (9;22)

Trastuzumab (herceptin) is useful in treating BCa because of its ability to bind

Human epidermal growth factor receptor 2

aromatase inhibitors such as anastrozole are used in treating advanced BCa because of their ability to

block estrogen receptors

which one is NOT a mechanism by which antimetabolites inhibit DNA synthesis

stimulate dihydrofolate reductase

which of the following is true

oncogene function is amplified in cancer

which is not a hallmark of cancer cells

promotion of apoptosis

Which ONE of the following is NOT a division of the central nervous

system?

a) Cranial Nerves

b) Autonomic Nervous System

c) Brain

d) Spinal Cord

e) None of the above

cranial nerves

Which ONE of the following is NOT a feature of a neurotransmitter

synapse?

a) Post-synaptic neuron

b) Neurotransmitter

c) Pre-synaptic neuron

d) Kinase-linked receptor

e) Inactivating enzymes

kinase-linked receptor

Which one of the following is FALSE for pathology in Parkinsons

disease?

a) Dopamine levels are reduced

b) Anticholinergic drugs can provide relief

c) Dopamine precursor therapy is effective for 2-5 years

d) Acetylcholine levels are reduced

e) Cause can be a blow to the head

d) Acetylcholine levels are reduced

Which ONE of the following is NOT a treatment strategy for

Parkinson’s disease?

a) Dopamine precursor

b) Cholinergic receptor antagonists

c) Dopamine receptor agonists

d) Inhibition of catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT)

e) Activation of dopa-decarboxylase

e) Activation of dopa-decarboxylase

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of action for drugs used

in Parkinsons disease?

a) Metabolise dopamine

b) Activate dopamine receptors

c) Reduces dopamine precursor metabolism in gastrointestinal tract

d) Block acetylcholine receptors

e) Increase transport of dopamine precursors into central nervous

system

a) Metabolise dopamine

Which ONE of the following is FALSE regarding opioid drugs?

a) Represents a class of analgesic drugs

b) Reduce synaptic neurotransmitter release at the presynaptic

terminal

c) Hyperpolarise the postsynaptic terminal

d) Act as GABA receptor agonists

e) Are associated with withdrawal symptom

d) Act as GABA receptor agonists

1. Which ONE of the following is not a class of anti-depressant drug?

a) Tricyclic Anti-depressants

b) Selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors

c) COMT inhibitors

d) Monoamine oxidase inhibitors

e) Serotonin-Noradrenaline re-uptake inhibitors

COMT inhibitors

Which of the following is not a feature of MAO-i?

a) used as anti-depressants

b) reduce re-uptake of serotonin (5-HT) and NA

c) contraindicated during pregnancy

d) metabolized in the liver

e) increase synaptic levels of NA

c) contraindicated during pregnancy

Which ONE of the following types of signalling involves hormones

being

released into the bloodstream to affect distant target cells?

a) Autocrine signalling

b) Synaptic signalling

c) Juxtacrine signalling

d) Endocrine signalling

e) Paracrine signalling

d) Endocrine signalling

Which ONE of the following hormones is secreted by the anterior pituitary

gland?

a) Anti-diuretic hormone/vasopressin (ADH/AVP)

b) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

c) Testosterone

d) Calcitonin

e) Adrenaline

b) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

Which one of the following statements regarding human growth hormone is

CORRECT?

a) It is synthesized in the hypothalamus

b) It stimulates production of somatomedins (i.e. IGF-1) by the liver

c) Its release is stimulated by somatostatin

d) It causes a decrease in lipolysis

e) It is a steroid hormon

b) It stimulates production of somatomedins (i.e. IGF-1) by the liver

Drugs that mimic ACTH (Adrenocorticotropic Hormone) are used in the

diagnosis of Addison’s disease for the measurement of which ONE of

the following?

a) The measurement of blood glucose levels

b) The measurement of thyroid function

c) The measurement of adrenal gland function

d) The measurement of insulin sensitivity

e) The measurement of serum K⁺ concentration

The measurement of adrenal gland function

Gonadotrophin releasing hormone (GnRH) stimulates the release of which hormone from

the anterior pituitary?

a) Adrenocorticotrophic hormone(ACTH)

b) Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)

c) Luteinising hormone(LH)

d) Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)

e) Growth Hormone

c) Luteinising hormone(LH)

Which one of the following classes of drug is routinely used in the treatment of prostate

cancer?

a) Androgen receptor antagonist

b) Anabolic androgens

c) 5-alpha reductase inhibitor

d) Aromatase inhibitor

e) Dihydrotestosterone

Androgen receptor antagonist

The estrogen-progesterone combined pill primarily exerts its contraceptive

effect by which ONE of the following mechanisms?

a) Increasing the secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)

b) Stimulating the release of luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone

(FSH)

c) Providing negative feedback to suppress the release of GnRH, LH, and FSH

d) Enhancing the production of androgens in the ovaries

e) Promoting the secretion of prolacti

Providing negative feedback to suppress the release of GnRH, LH, and FSH

Which ONE of the following drug classes is

NOT used in the treatment of hypertension?

a) diuretics

b) β blockers

c) ACE inhibitors

d) α receptor agonists

e) calcium (Ca++) channel blockers

d) α receptor agonists

Thiazide diuretics mediate their action in which

ONE of the following regions of the nephron?

a) Glomerulus

b) Proximal tubule

c) Loop of Henle

d) Distal convoluted tubule

e) Collecting duct

d) Distal convoluted tubule

Regarding warfarin which ONE of the following

statements is TRUE ?

(a) Warfarin induces Vitamin K reductase

(b) Warfarin is an antithrombin III inhibitor

(c) Warfarin is a Vitamin K agonist

(d) Warfarin is a Vitamin K reductase inhibitor

(e) Warfarin is a cyclooxygenase-1 inhibitor

(d) Warfarin is a Vitamin K reductase inhibitor.