BIO 1201 EXAM 3 LSU

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124 Terms

1
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True or False: The purpose of mitosis is to insure that daughter cells have identical genetic information at the mother cell.

true

2
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How many centromeres are there per chromosome?

1

3
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How many centrosomes per chromosome consist of 2 sister chromatids?

1

4
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When is DNA replicated?

S phase

5
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When are sister chromatids separated?

Anaphase I

6
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If the DNA content in G2 is X, what is the DNA content of each daughter cell at Telophase?

0.5X

7
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If the DNA content in G1 is X, what is the DNA content of each of the daughter cells at Telophase?

X

8
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DNA replication checkpoint occurs where?

G2

9
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We inherit our mitochondria from our...

our mother

10
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In mitosis when do homologous chromosome pairs separate?

in mitosis, homologous chromosomes do not separate

11
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In meiosis when do homologous chromosome pairs separate?

Anaphase I

12
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At G2, the amount of DNA is X. At Telophase II the amount of DNA in each of the daughter cells is...

0.25X

13
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At G1, the amount of DNA is X. At Telophase II the amount of DNA in each of the daughter cells is...

0.5X

14
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At G2 there are 40 chromatids, what is the diploid chromosome number?

20

15
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At G2 there are 40 chromatids, at Telophase II each daughter cells has how many chromosomes?

10

16
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At G2, there are 40 centrosomes, at Telophase II each daughter cell has how many chromosomes?

20

17
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Why don't we talk about Gossian genetics?

he was not quantitative with his work

18
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What is the alternative form of a gene?

allele

19
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How many different alleles can a diploid individual have at a single gene locus if there are 4 alleles in the population?

2 alleles

20
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True or False: Recessive alleles are not expressed because they code for an inactive or defective enzyme.

true

21
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What is an example of a genotype?

PP, Pp, or pp

22
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In genetics, what determines what?

genotype determines phenotype

23
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An individual with 2 Barr Bodies has how many chromosomes?

3: 2 are inactive, 1 is active

24
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X chromosome inactivation happens how?

random and all but one

25
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Calico and tortoiseshell cats are examples of...

X chromosome inactivation

26
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Could an Rh+ man be the father of an Rh- child?

yes

27
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If both parents are carriers for sickle cell anemia, what is the percent of their children that will have the disease?

25%

28
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Why is the sickle allele maintained in populations, particularly in Africa and the Mediterranean Sea area?

Heterozygotes are immune to Malaria

29
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Does testing newborns for diseases save money?

yes

30
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How much does it cost to test your child in the state of LA?

$30

31
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True or False: In an autosomal recessive trait, if two affected individuals have offspring then all of their children will have the trait.

true

32
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True or False: In mitosis it does not matter if you have unpaired chromosomes.

true

33
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How many barr bodies are there in the nucleus of a Turner's female cell?

0

34
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Turner's female, XO, 45 is n example of...

aneuploidy

35
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How many barr bodies in the preceding Klinefelters male (XXXXY)?

3

36
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A Klinefelters male, XXY 47, is an example of...

aneuploidy

37
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True or False: XXX females are usually normal because the other 2 X's are inactivated.

true

38
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An XXX female has how many barr bodies?

2

39
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What do males inherit from their mothers?

X chromosomes and mitochondria

40
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True or False: Initially protein was thought to be genetic material because it was thought to be more complex than nucleic acids.

true

41
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Which takes more energy to break?

G-C, 3 hydrogen bonds

42
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True or False: A double strand of DNA has a uniform width.

True

43
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DNA replication is...

semi-conservative

44
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The 5' end of the DNA strand has a...

phosphate group

45
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The 3' end of the DNA strand has a...

hydroxyl group

46
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Human DNA does not incorporate AZT. Why?

human DNA polymerase has a proof-reading ability

47
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True or False: The double helix is antiparallel this refers to the directionality of the strands.

true

48
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The base pairing between strands is stabilized by...

hydrogen bonds

49
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"A" pairs with what base?

T

50
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The enzyme that inserts the RNA primer in DNA synthesis is...

primase

51
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DNA polymerase works 5' to 3'?

adds to the 3' hydroxyl group

52
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True or False: Both the leading and lagging strands are synthesized 5' to 3'.

true

53
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What enzyme stiches together Okazaki fragments?

ligase

54
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True or False: New monomers are added to the free 5' phosphate in the growing DNA chain.

false

55
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True or False: The central dogma has no exceptions.

false

56
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The anti-codon base pairs to the mRNA are...

anti-parallel

57
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DNA template: 5' ATGC 3', RNA made:

3'UACG5'

58
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The central dogma does what?

DNA is transcribed into mRNA which is translated into proteins

59
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What transfers the genetic message from the nucleus to the cytoplasm?

messenger RNA

60
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In contrast to DNA, RNA has a

2' OH group

61
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RNA base not found in DNA...

uracil

62
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What is the expressed part of the pre-mRNA?

exon

63
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True or False: "Expressed part" means the sequence that is translated into protein.

true

64
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tRNA is

an adapter molecule recognizing an amino acid and a codon

65
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The anticodon and codon base pair are...

anti-parallel

66
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True or False: Introns are removed for prokaryotic mRNA.

false; processing an mRNA only occurs in eukaryotes

67
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What is translation?

synthesis of protein

68
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Features of tRNA

anti-codon, amino acid binding cite, at least one tRNA for each amino acid

69
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Which is the first tRNA to come onto the ribosomes for polypeptide synthesis?

MET-tRNA; this protein starts translation

70
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What is a mutation?

change in DNA

71
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If a somatic cell is just about to divide, it has ___ chromatids.

92

72
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You would know a dividing cell was a plant cell rather than an animal cell if you saw that _____.

it had formed a cell plate

73
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The centromere is a region in which _____.

sister chromatids are attached to one another in prophase

74
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At which point in the cell cycle do centrosomes begin to move apart to two poles of the cell in a dividing human skin cell?

prophase

75
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Sister chromatids _____.

have matching copies of the chromosome's DNA, are created when DNA is replicated, are attached at the centromere prior to division, are separated during mitosis

76
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A biochemist measured the amount of DNA in cells growing in the laboratory and found that the quantity of DNA in the cells doubled _____.

between the G1 and G2 phases

77
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A cell entering the cell cycle with 32 chromosomes will produce two daughter cells, each with _____.

32 chromosomes

78
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If a cell contains 60 chromatids at the start of mitosis, how many chromosomes will be found in each daughter cell at the completion of the cell cycle?

30

79
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A cell biologist carefully measured the quantity of DNA in grasshopper cells growing in cell culture. Cells examined during the G2 phase of the cell cycle contained 200 units of DNA. What would be the amount of DNA at G1 of the cell cycle in one of the grasshopper daughter cells?

100 units

80
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During anaphase of mitosis _____.

the centromeres divide, a spindle made of microtubules is present, the centrioles are at opposite poles, identical chromatids move to opposite poles

81
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A human somatic cell contains _____.

44 autosomes, 2 sex chromosomes

82
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What is the function of meiosis?

to make cells with haploid (half that of the parents) number of chromosomes

83
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One difference between meiosis I and meiosis II is that _____.

crossing over occurs in meiosis I, but not in meiosis II

84
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If there are 20 chromatids in a cell in G2, how many centromeres are there?

10

85
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In sexually reproducing species, the chromosome number remains stable over time because _____ and _____ always alternate.

two diploid cells ... four haploid cells

86
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Humans have 46 chromosomes. That number of (human) chromosomes will be found in _____.

liver cells

87
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In a diploid cell containing 10 chromosomes, meiosis results in the formation of daughter cells containing _____ chromosomes.

5

88
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Which one of the following occurs in meiosis, but not mitosis?

homologous chromosomes separate

89
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Crossing over is _____.

the exchange of homologous portions of non-sister chromatids

90
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Which of the following is (are) true for alleles?

They can be identical or different for any given gene in a somatic cell. They can be dominant or recessive. They can represent alternative forms of a gene.

91
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All the offspring of a cross between a black-eyed MendAlien and an orange-eyed MendAlien have black eyes. This means that the allele for black eyes is ________ the allele for orange eyes.

dominant to

92
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A plant with purple flowers is allowed to self-pollinate. Generation after generation, it produces purple flowers. This is an example of

true-breeding

93
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Pea plants were particularly well suited for use in Mendel's breeding experiments for all of the following reasons except that

peas have an unusually long generation time

94
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A cross between homozygous purple-flowered and homozygous white-flowered pea plants results in offspring with purple flowers. This demonstrates

dominance

95
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In cattle, roan coat color (mixed red and white hairs) occurs in the heterozygous (Rr) offspring of red (RR) and white (rr) homozygotes. Which of the following crosses would produce offspring in the ratio of 1 red:2 roan:1 white?

roan x roan

96
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What is the expected phenotypic ratio of a cross between two orange-eyed MendAliens?

0 black-eyed: 1 orange-eyed

97
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All the offspring of a cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant have pink flowers. This means that the allele for red flowers is ________ to the allele for white flowers.

incomplete dominant

98
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A genetic defect in humans results in the absence of sweat glands in the skin. Some men have this defect all over their bodies, but in women it is usually expressed in a peculiar way: A woman with this defect typically has small patches of skin with sweat glands and other patches without sweat glands. In women, the pattern of sweat-gland distribution can best be explained by _____.

X chromosome inactivation

99
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A person with two X chromosomes and one Y chromosome would appear to be _____.

male

100
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Hemophilia is a sex-linked disorder. The daughter of a father with hemophilia and a carrier mother has a _____ probability of having hemophilia.

50%