Private Pilot FAA Written

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245 Terms

1
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With respect to the certification of aircraft, which are

- categories of aircraft: normal, utility, acrobatic

- class of aircraft: airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon

2
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With respect to the certification of airmen, which are

- categories of aircraft: airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air

- classes of aircraft: single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea

- types of cert: student pilot, recreational, PPL, commercial, airline transport pilot

- ratings: IFR, MEI, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air

3
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medical exam for PPL

3rd class valid

- <40yo: 60m

- >=40yo: 24m

4
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BasicMed Rule

- max 6 seats (include pilot)

- <18k ft MSL

- max 250 kts

- not for hire/compensated

5
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How to increase lift?

- increase speed

- increase wing's camper (shape or flap)

- increase angle of attack

note: Bernoulli and 3rd law of Newton

6
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chord line

- An imaginary straight line from the leading edge to the trailing edge of an airfoil.

- flap down will increase angle of attack

<p>- An imaginary straight line from the leading edge to the trailing edge of an airfoil.</p><p>- flap down will increase angle of attack</p>
7
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Angle of Attack

The angle formed by the wing chord line and the relative wind.

<p>The angle formed by the wing chord line and the relative wind.</p>
8
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parasite drag

drag that does not contribute to lift generation; drag caused by landing gear struts, cooling intakes, antennas, rivet heads, etc.

<p>drag that does not contribute to lift generation; drag caused by landing gear struts, cooling intakes, antennas, rivet heads, etc.</p>
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Induced Drag

Generated by the airflow circulation around the wing as it creates lift.

<p>Generated by the airflow circulation around the wing as it creates lift.</p>
10
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Drag and Speed Relationship

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L/D max

The maximum ratio between total lift and total drag. This point provides the best glide speed. Any deviation from the best glide speed increase drag and reduces the distance you can glide

12
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Critical angle of attack

The angle of attack at which an airfoil stalls (loses lift) regardless of the aircraft's airspeed, attitude, or weight.

<p>The angle of attack at which an airfoil stalls (loses lift) regardless of the aircraft's airspeed, attitude, or weight.</p>
13
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Stall Recovery Procedure

1. Lower the angle of attack (pitch

down)

2. Add full power and raise the nose after the stall is "broken"

3. Establish a full power climb

4. Flaps up incrementally (if applicable)

<p>1. Lower the angle of attack (pitch</p><p>down)</p><p>2. Add full power and raise the nose after the stall is "broken"</p><p>3. Establish a full power climb</p><p>4. Flaps up incrementally (if applicable)</p>
14
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center of pressure (lift)

The point along the chord line of a wing at which all the aerodynamic forces are considered to be concentrated

<p>The point along the chord line of a wing at which all the aerodynamic forces are considered to be concentrated</p>
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center of gravity (CG)

The center of gravity of the aircraft depending on weight and balance of the loads

<p>The center of gravity of the aircraft depending on weight and balance of the loads</p>
16
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Aeronautical Sectional Chart

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17
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Gyroscopic Precession

When a force is applied to one side of a spinning object, the opposite happens to the other side.

<p>When a force is applied to one side of a spinning object, the opposite happens to the other side.</p>
18
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Spiraling Slipstream

The slipstream of a propeller-driven airplane rotates around the airplane. This slipstream strikes the left side of the vertical fin, causing the aircraft to yaw slightly. Rudder offset is sometimes used by aircraft designers to counteract this tendency.

<p>The slipstream of a propeller-driven airplane rotates around the airplane. This slipstream strikes the left side of the vertical fin, causing the aircraft to yaw slightly. Rudder offset is sometimes used by aircraft designers to counteract this tendency.</p>
19
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Adverse Yaw

Yawing tendency toward the outside of a turn.

<p>Yawing tendency toward the outside of a turn.</p>
20
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overbanking tendency

when entering a turn, the outside wing travel faster than inside wing, it produces more lift than inside wing, causes overbanking tendency

<p>when entering a turn, the outside wing travel faster than inside wing, it produces more lift than inside wing, causes overbanking tendency</p>
21
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constant bank angle

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22
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constant bank speed

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23
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maneuver speed (Va)

stall speed increase during maneuver

<p>stall speed increase during maneuver</p>
24
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Overtaking

Head-on

Converging

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25
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right of way

first to last

- mayday

- balloon

- glider

- aircraft refueling

- airship

- rotorcraft/aircraft

26
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taxi aircraft

- head wind: turning into

- tail wind: diving away

27
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traffic pattern

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28
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Wind indicator

Provides winds direction and velocity

<p>Provides winds direction and velocity</p>
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runway indicators

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Hand signals

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31
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airport signs and markings

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32
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ATC light signals

- signals will come from control tower

<p>- signals will come from control tower</p>
33
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Glide path

Predetermined imaginary path to the landing strip in the horizontal plane

<p>Predetermined imaginary path to the landing strip in the horizontal plane</p>
34
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Each recreational or private pilot is required to have a flight review at least once

Every 24 calendar months.

35
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Single-Pilot Resource Management (SRM)

The ability for a pilot to manage all resources effectively to ensure the outcome of the flight is successful.

36
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Crew Resource Management (CRM)

Required more than one pilot to manage all resources effectively to ensure the outcome of the flight is successful.

37
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Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)

Systematic mental approach to consistently determine the best course of action in a given situation.

- recognize the change

- define problem

- chose a course of action (among pos. options)

- implement your decision

- evaluating the outcome (as expected or NOT)

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I'M SAFE checklist

- Illness: Am I healthy?

- Medication: Am I still under the influence of medications?

- Stress: Am I stressed or under pressure?

- Alcohol: at least 8hr since last drink

- Fatigue: Am I tired? Have I slept enough?

- Eating/Emotion: Have I eaten and drunk enough before the flight?

39
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Hazardous Attitudes

Anti-authority: follow the rules

Impulsivity: think first not so fast

Invulnerability: it could happen to me

Macho: Taking chances is foolish

Resignation: I can make a difference and I am not helpless

40
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self-critique

to be able to identify strengths and weaknesses in your drawing

41
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learner-centered grading

During flight lessons, both you and your instructor should evaluate your performance and resolve any differences in your assessments before creating a plan for improvement

42
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Risk Management

PAVE

- Pilot: I'M SAFE

- Aircraft: AV1ATE + ARROW

- Environment: NW KRAFT (pre-flight)

- External pressures: purpose of flight and pressure to maintain schedule

43
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5Ps

Pilot

Passengers

Plane

Programming

Plan

44
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Passenger Briefing

SAFETY

- safety belts

- air vents

- fire extinguisher

- emergency: doors/emergency equipment.

- talking/traffic

- questions???

45
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If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only

30 days after the date of the move

46
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The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft?

Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds.

47
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How should the 500-pound weight be shifted to balance the plank on the fulcrum?

1 inch to the left

48
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A parachute composed of nylon, rayon, or other synthetic fibers must have been packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding

180 days

49
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An approved parachute constructed of natural fibers may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding

60 days

50
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If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft's operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately-rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated

with passengers aboard

51
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When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested?

During the first 5 minutes after the hour.

52
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A 100-hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?

3402.5 hours

53
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Annual Inspection

check up on the entire plane and engine. 12 months

54
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24months inspections

- transponder

- altimeter and static system on IFR aircrafts

55
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Airworthiness Directives

- aka. recalls

- medium the FAA uses to notify unsafe aircrafts because of deign defects, maintenance, or other causes

56
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Aircraft Transponder

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57
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Transponder Phraseology

- 7500: hijacking

- 7600: communication failure

- 7700: MAY-DAY

<p>- 7500: hijacking</p><p>- 7600: communication failure</p><p>- 7700: MAY-DAY</p>
58
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Flight Plan

A predetermined plan to be followed during flight based on the latest information available on the route. It is submitted to ATC prior to takeoff

59
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100 hour inspections

rental aircraft that are used for

- flight instruction

- hire

60
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complex aircraft

An aircraft with

- retractable landing gear

- flaps

- controllable pitch propeller

61
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high performance aircraft

- engine >200 horse power

62
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FADEC

Full Authority Digital Engine Control System

63
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What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance?

14 CFR Part 43.3.

64
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Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?

An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

65
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Slipping turn

An uncoordinated turn in which the aircraft is banked too much for the rate of turn, so the horizontal lift component is greater than the centrifugal force, pulling the aircraft toward the inside of the turn.

66
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Skidding turn

An uncoordinated turn in which the rate of turn is too great for the angle of bank, pulling the aircraft to the outside of the turn.

67
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Coordinated Turn

Centrifugal force and gravity react equally on the slip indicator ball, and the ball remains in the lowest part of the glass

68
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Magnetic Dip (Magnetic Inclination)

- turn toward N/S: UNOS

- turn away from N/S: NOSE

- travel toward E/W: ANDS

69
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Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas?

An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.

70
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Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure?

500 feet

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Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?

An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

72
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Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft?

Flight over a densely populated area

73
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When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is

200 knots

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VFR Flyway

- Designed to assist pilots in planning flights under and around busy Class B airspace without actually entering Class B airspace.

<p>- Designed to assist pilots in planning flights under and around busy Class B airspace without actually entering Class B airspace.</p>
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VFR Corridor

- Airspace through Class B airspace with vertical / horizontal boundaries

- ATC clearance NOT required

<p>- Airspace through Class B airspace with vertical / horizontal boundaries</p><p>- ATC clearance NOT required</p>
76
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SVFR

Special Visual Flight Rules

<p>Special Visual Flight Rules</p>
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special use airspaces

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TRSA

- Terminal Radar Service Area.

- Voluntary system that separates traffic to and from the primary airport.

- Provides radar services to Class D.

- gray solid ring

<p>- Terminal Radar Service Area.</p><p>- Voluntary system that separates traffic to and from the primary airport.</p><p>- Provides radar services to Class D.</p><p>- gray solid ring</p>
79
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Temporary Flight Restrictions (TFR)

1. are imposed by FAA to protect persons or property on the surface or in the air from a specific hazard

2. FAA will issue a NOTAM designating the area in which a TFR applies

3. for rescue/relief aircraft operation, the restricted airspace is limited to 2,000ft AGL within a 3 nm radius.

- information can be found at:

++ 1-800-WXbrief

++ FTC NOTAM

<p>1. are imposed by FAA to protect persons or property on the surface or in the air from a specific hazard</p><p>2. FAA will issue a NOTAM designating the area in which a TFR applies</p><p>3. for rescue/relief aircraft operation, the restricted airspace is limited to 2,000ft AGL within a 3 nm radius.</p><p>- information can be found at:</p><p>++ 1-800-WXbrief</p><p>++ FTC NOTAM</p>
80
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Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?

250 knots

81
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Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is

200 knots

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Airspaces summary

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83
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Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out is mandated for aircraft operations in

Class A, B, and C airspace.

84
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When is Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out equipment required?

In Class E airspace above 10,000 ft. MSL, except at and below 2,500 ft. AGL.

85
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What type of ADS-B equipment is required in Class A airspace?

ADS-B Out that operates on the frequency 1090 MHz.

86
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Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found if the aircraft has an Experimental or Special light-sport airworthiness certificate?

Attached to the Airworthiness Certificate.

87
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Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found?

The current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.

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Vs0

- lower limit of white arc

- Stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration.

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Vs1

- lower limit of green arc

- Stall Speed in Clean Configuration : 48 KIAS

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Vfe

- upper limit of white arc

- Maximum flap fully extended speed

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Vno

- upper limit of green arc

- Maximum structural cruising speed

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Vne

- red line

- Never exceed speed

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Indicated Airspeed (IAS)

Airspeed read directly from the airspeed indicator

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Calibrated Airspeed (CAS)

Indicated airspeed corrector for installation and instrument errors.

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True Airspeed (TAS)

Actual speed through the air. EAS corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure

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Ground Speed (GS)

True Airspeed corrected for winds; actual speed of airplane over the ground.

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Pitot tube blockage

The only instrument affected is the airspeed indicator.

■ Ram air inlet clogged and drain hole open? Airspeed drops to zero.

■ Both air inlet and drain hole are clogged? The airspeed indicator will act as an altimeter (increase when climb and decrease when descending), and will no longer be reliable.

■ When suspecting a pitot blockage, consider the use of pitot heat to melt ice that may have formed in or on the pitot tube.

98
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Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?

The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation.

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At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92 when climbing to cruising flight level?

18,000 feet MSL.

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Unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen, no person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of

15,000 feet MSL.