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Which of the following processes characterizes the level of disease prevention known as tertiary prevention?

a) Prevention of disease progression and additional disease complications after overt clinical disease occurs.

b) Prevention of clinical illness through early and asymptomatic detection and remediation of certain disease conditions

. c) Prevention of illness through appropriate individual and group behavior modification designed to minimize infection risk.

d) Prevention of disease before its biological onset.

✅ Correct Answer: a) Prevention of disease progression and additional disease complications after overt clinical disease occurs.

👉 Explanation: Tertiary prevention focuses on reducing the impact of an existing disease by preventing complications and worsening conditions. ❌ Wrong Answers:

b) This describes secondary prevention, which aims to detect disease early to prevent progression.

c) This describes primary prevention, which focuses on stopping diseases before they start.

d) This refers to primordial prevention, which focuses on stopping risk factors from developing in the first place.

A technique used by trait theorists to identify and describe human personality traits is:

a) Humanistic analysis.

b) Psychoanalytic analysis.

c) Factor analysis.

d) Behavioral analysis.

✅ Correct Answer: c) Factor analysis.

👉 Explanation: Factor analysis is a statistical technique used in psychology to identify underlying relationships between personality traits and helps categorize them into broader factors.

❌ Wrong Answers:

a) Humanistic analysis focuses on personal growth, not on identifying traits.

b) Psychoanalytic analysis examines unconscious motives and conflicts rather than traits.

d) Behavioral analysis studies observable behaviors rather than the structure of personality.

The impact of a child's severe cognitive problems may produce a ripple effect, causing instability in the family and resulting in:

a) Role conflict.

b) Role discontinuity.

c) Role dissonance.

d) Role ambiguity.

✅ Correct Answer: a) Role conflict.

👉 Explanation: Role conflict occurs when individuals face incompatible demands from different roles, such as parents struggling to balance caregiving and other responsibilities due to a child's cognitive issues.

❌ Wrong Answers:

b) Role discontinuity occurs when there is a break in expected roles over time.

c) Role dissonance refers to discomfort from conflicting expectations, not instability.

d) Role ambiguity happens when individuals lack clarity in role expectations.

The diagnosis of Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) requires the presence of symptoms for at least:

a) Two weeks.

b) One year.

c) Two years.

d) Six months.

✅ Correct Answer: d) Six months.

👉 Explanation: GAD is diagnosed when excessive worry and anxiety persist for six months and significantly interfere with daily functioning.

❌ Wrong Answers:

a) Two weeks is used for diagnosing major depressive disorder.

b) One year is not the criterion for initial GAD diagnosis.

c) Two years is too long for initial diagnosis and refers to chronic conditions.

Which of the following correctly represents the sequence of the cycle of domestic violence?

a) Calm → Incident → Reconciliation → Tension Building.

b) Tension Building → Incident → Reconciliation → Calm.

c) Reconciliation → Calm → Incident → Tension Building.

d) Incident → Reconciliation → Calm → Tension Building.

✅ Correct Answer: b) Tension Building → Incident → Reconciliation → Calm.

👉 Explanation: This cycle includes Tension Building (increased stress) → Incident (violence occurs) → Reconciliation (apologies) → Calm (a peaceful phase).

❌ Wrong Answers:

a) mixes stages incorrectly,

c) is not the correct order,

d) also misrepresents the flow of the cycle.

Population aging/demographic transition occurs as a result of:

a) Decreasing life expectancy.

b) Increasing fertility.

c) Increasing mortality.

d) Increasing migration.

✅ Correct Answer: d) Increasing migration.

👉 Explanation: Population aging occurs with declining birth rates and increased life expectancy, often influenced by migration.

❌ Wrong Answers:

a) Decreasing life expectancy would reduce aging,

b) Increasing fertility results in a younger population,

c) Increasing mortality would also lower aging.

Simone is obese. What is the best first step for her to change her behavior?

a) Finding a support system.

b) Think about the cost and benefits to be derived from changing.

c) Begin an exercise program.

d) Consult a dietitian.

✅ Correct Answer: b) Think about the cost and benefits to be derived from changing.

👉 Explanation: Awareness and evaluation of the need to change is the first step in the Transtheoretical Model of Behavior Change.

❌ Wrong Answers:

a) is helpful later;

c) and

d) are actions that come after deciding to change.

All of the following are considered to be categories of theories of emotions EXCEPT:

a) Cognitive.

b) Physiological.

c) Neurological.

d) Transcendent.

✅ Correct Answer: d) Transcendent.

👉 Explanation: There is no widely recognized transcendent theory of emotions.

❌ Wrong Answers:

3. Cognitive Theories → Emotions arise from thoughts and interpretations of events. (e.g., Lazarus' Cognitive Appraisal Theory, Schachter-Singer Two-Factor Theory)

1. Physiological Theories → Emotions result from bodily responses. (e.g., James-Lange Theory, Cannon-Bard Theory)

2. Neurological Theories → Emotions are caused by brain activity and neural pathways. (e.g., LeDoux’s Dual Pathway Theory, Papez Circuit)

Name the approach where dental professionals collaborate to reduce common health risks.

a) Specific health intervention approach.

b) Common risk factor approach.

c) Individual health risk approach.

d) Community health assessment approach.

✅ Correct Answer: b) Common risk factor approach. 👉 Explanation: This approach assesses shared risk factors contributing to oral and overall health.

❌ Wrong Answers:

a) is limited in scope;

c) focuses on individual factors;

d) does not specifically address shared health risks.

The Extraversion and Introversion personality attitude was proposed by:

a) Carl Jung.

b) Karen Horney.

c) Alfred Adler.

d) Erik Erikson.

✅ Correct Answer: a) Carl Jung. 👉

Explanation: Jung introduced the concepts of Extraversion and Introversion in his personality theory. ❌ Wrong Answers:

• Karen Horney → Focused on neurotic needs and social relationships in personality development.

• Alfred Adler → Developed Individual Psychology, emphasizing inferiority complex and striving for superiority.

• Erik Erikson → Created the Psychosocial Stages of Development, describing personality growth across a lifespan.

What is the best recommendation for ensuring the oral health of Deborah's elderly father who drinks sweetened chamomile tea?

a) Use honey to sweeten the tea.

b) Ensure adequate oral hygiene and habits.

c) Drinking sweetened green tea.

d) Using a dental sealant.

✅ Correct Answer: b) Ensure adequate oral hygiene and habits.

👉 Explanation: Proper hygiene is crucial for maintaining oral health.

❌ Wrong Answers:

a) using honey still involves sugar;

c) sweetened green tea doesn't prevent dental issues;

d) is not typically applicable for adults.

The Psychodynamic Theory of Personality:

a) Highlights the importance of social learning.

b) Emphasizes the influence of the unconscious mind and childhood experiences on personality.

c) Has five major dimensions of personality.

d) Focuses on psychological growth, free will, and personal awareness.

✅ Correct Answer: b) Emphasizes the influence of the unconscious mind and childhood experiences on personality. 👉

Explanation: The Psychodynamic Theory of Personality, primarily developed by Sigmund Freud, focuses on:

• The unconscious mind → Hidden desires, fears, and motivations shape behavior.

• Childhood experiences → Early experiences, especially during the psychosexual stages, influence personality.

• Psychic structures → Id (instincts), Ego (reality), and Superego (morality) control personality.

❌ Wrong Answers:

• a) Highlights the importance of social learning → This refers to Social Learning Theory (Albert Bandura), not Psychodynamic Theory.

• c) Has five major dimensions of personality → This refers to the Big Five Personality Traits (OCEAN model), not psychodynamic theory.

• d) Focuses on psychological growth, free will, and personal awareness → This aligns with Humanistic Psychology (Carl Rogers & Abraham Maslow), not Freud’s Psychodynamic Theory.

Social health may include:

a) Maintenance of normal body weight.

b) Role fulfillment.

c) An exercise regime.

d) The subjective feeling of well-being.

✅ Correct Answer: b) Role fulfillment.

👉 Explanation: Social health involves maintaining relationships and fulfilling roles effectively.

❌ Wrong Answers:

a) refers to physical health;

c) pertains to physical activity;

d) relates to emotional health.

Which of the following is an example of healthy lifestyle promotion in children?

a) Enhancing immunity.

b) Injury prevention.

c) Antenatal screening.

d) Having well-born children.

✅ Correct Answer: b) Injury prevention.

👉 Explanation: Injury prevention is key to promoting healthy lifestyles in children.

❌ Wrong Answers:

a) relates to general health measures;

c) is focused on mothers;

d) is not a specific health promotion strategy.

Which process allows the subsequent loss of minerals to be replaced by minerals in saliva and fluoride?

a) Remineralization.

b) A sealant.

c) Demineralization.

d) Antimicrobials.

✅ Correct Answer: a) Remineralization. 👉 Explanation: This process restores lost minerals to tooth enamel.

❌ Wrong Answers:

b) is for preventing decay, not restoring minerals;

c) refers to mineral loss;

d) helps fight bacteria, not restore minerals.

Which of the following is a trauma-related psychiatric condition?

a) Schizophrenia.

b) Schizoaffective Disorder.

c) Attachment Disorder.

d) Bipolar Disorder.

✅ Correct Answer: c) Attachment Disorder.

👉 Explanation: This condition occurs in children exposed to trauma, impacting their ability to form healthy relationships.

❌ Wrong Answers:

a) and b) are psychotic disorders;

d) is a mood disorder.

Improving sanitation in a community is an example of:

a) Tertiary prevention.

b) Secondary prevention.

c) Primary prevention.

d) Primordial prevention.

✅ Correct Answer: c) Primary prevention.

👉 Explanation: This involves preventing diseases before they occur through environmental improvements.

❌ Wrong Answers:

a) pertains to managing existing diseases;

b) involves early detection;

d) targets risk factors before they develop.

A man wrongly believes that road signs are placed to intimidate him. What is he experiencing?

a) Homicidal ideas.

b) Tangential thoughts.

c) Referential delusions.

d) Auditory hallucinations.

✅ Correct Answer: c) Referential delusions.

👉 Explanation: Involves misinterpreting neutral events as being personally directed.

❌ Wrong Answers:

a) refers to thoughts of killing;

b) involves speech disorganization;

d) pertains to hearing voices.

Health promotion aims to address:

a) Behavioral factors affecting health.

b) Accessible and acceptable health services.

c) Environmental factors affecting health.

d) The various health determinants.

✅ Correct Answer: d) The various health determinants.

👉 Explanation: Health promotion targets multiple factors influencing health outcomes.

❌ Wrong Answers:

a) and b) focus on specific areas,

c) is only one aspect of health.

Based on psychoanalytic theory, the Superego operates on the:

a) Pleasure principle.

b) Classical principle.

c) Reality principle.

d) Morality principle.

✅ Correct Answer: d) Morality principle.

👉 Explanation: The Superego represents moral standards in Freud's theory.

❌ Wrong Answers:

a) corresponds to the Id;

b) is not a valid concept;

c) refers to the Ego.

Which of these is a modifiable health determinant?

a) Ethnicity.

b) Age.

c) Exercise habits.

d) Genetic makeup.

✅ Correct Answer: c) Exercise habits.

👉 Explanation: These habits can be changed, making them a modifiable determinant.

❌ Wrong Answers:

a), b), and d) are not modifiable.

Possible consequence of repeated exposure to domestic violence in children?

a) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

b) Neuropathic pain.

c) Extra-pyramidal side effects.

d) Disrupted neurodevelopment.

✅ Correct Answer: d) Disrupted neurodevelopment. 👉 Explanation: Exposure to violence affects brain development, leading to cognitive and behavioral issues.

❌ Wrong Answers:

a) refers to a medication condition;

b) is a physical condition;

c) relates to medication side effects.

Pre-operational thinking is characteristic of which age group?

a) Infancy.

b) Toddler years.

c) Preschool years.

d) Early school years.

✅ Correct Answer: c) Preschool years.

👉 Explanation: Pre-operational stage (ages 2-7) is characterized by symbolic thinking as per Piaget.

❌ Wrong Answers:

a) and b) correspond to earlier stages;

d) pertains to later developments.

The primary goal of wellness is the ability to achieve:

a) Freedom from disease.

b) Greater control over lifestyle decisions.

c) A multicultural view of health.

d) The highest possible quality of life.

✅ Correct Answer: d) The highest possible quality of life.

👉 Explanation: Wellness includes overall wellbeing, beyond mere absence of disease.

❌ Wrong Answers:

a) is narrowly focused on health;

b) is a means, not an end;

c) represents only one aspect of wellness.

A man with an eight-year history of crack cocaine use plans to quit before his 30th birthday. Based on the Transtheoretical Model of Behavior Change, he is in the stage of:

a) Contemplation.

b) Action.

c) Preparation.

d) Precontemplation.

✅ Correct Answer: c) Preparation.

👉 Explanation: In this stage, individuals plan to make a change soon.

❌ Wrong Answers:

a) is just thinking about it;

b) means taking action, which he hasn't started;

d) refers to being unaware.

Which of the following is correct in relation to the psychological consequences of violence against women?

a) Talking about suicide can help her feel understood.

b) A majority of women will develop PTSD.

c) Difficulty functioning is a criterion for a mild disorder.

d) Long-term treatment with benzodiazepines is recommended.

✅ Correct Answer: a) Talking about suicide can help her feel understood.

👉 Explanation: Open discussions can encourage understanding and support.

❌ Wrong Answers:

b) Not all women develop PTSD;

c) significant impairments are common for moderate to severe disorders;

d) long-term benzodiazepine use poses addiction risks.

To enable patients to take actions that promote good health, healthcare providers should do less of which of the following?

a) Work closely with family and health team.

b) Be aware of and refer patients to social services.

c) Provide handouts containing health information.

d) Drive fear into patients in order to engender compliance with treatment for related illnesses.

✅ Correct Answer: d) Drive fear into patients in order to engender compliance.

👉 Explanation: Fear can hinder positive health behavior changes.

❌ Wrong Answers:

a), b), and c) are supportive practices that encourage positive health outcomes.

Which of the following is a theory of stress?

a) Wilmot.

b) Cattell.

c) Lazarus.

d) Apache.

✅ Correct Answer: c) Lazarus.

👉 Explanation: Richard Lazarus developed the Cognitive Appraisal Theory of Stress, focusing on how individuals evaluate stressors.

❌ Wrong Answers:

a) and d) are not recognized theories; b) relates to personality theory.

Which of the following is NOT involved in the cycle of domestic violence? a) Tension building b) Acute battering c) Cordoning off children d) Honeymoon phase

✅ Correct Answer: c) Cordoning off children 👉 Explanation: The cycle of domestic violence consists of tension building, acute battering, and the honeymoon phase. "Cordoning off children" is not a recognized stage in this cycle. ❌ Wrong answers: a) Tension building: This is the first phase where stress and conflict escalate. b) Acute battering: The phase where physical violence occurs. d) Honeymoon phase: After abuse, the abuser may apologize and try to make amends.

According to the WHO, which of the following is NOT a type of health? a) Mental b) Financial c) Physical d) Social

✅ Correct Answer: b) Financial 👉 Explanation: WHO defines health as a state of physical, mental, and social well-being. Financial health is important but not an official category. ❌ Wrong answers: a) Mental: Includes emotional and psychological well-being. c) Physical: Refers to overall bodily health. d) Social: Involves relationships and social support.

Health promotion aimed at smoking would target which aspect of the epidemiologic triad? a) Host and environment b) Agent and vector c) Agent and environment d) All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: a) Host and environment 👉 Explanation: The host (smoker) and environment (peer influence, laws) are the main targets of smoking health campaigns. ❌ Wrong answers: b) Agent and vector: A vector is something that transmits disease, but smoking isn’t caused by a vector. c) Agent and environment: Nicotine (agent) plays a role, but the environment and host are more targeted. d) All of the above: Incorrect because smoking does not involve a vector.

What is the condition called when a person has a fear of heights? a) Agoraphobia b) Psychotic phobia c) Specific phobia d) Anxiety disorder

✅ Correct Answer: c) Specific phobia 👉 Explanation: Acrophobia (fear of heights) is a specific phobia, which is an intense irrational fear of a particular situation. ❌ Wrong answers: a) Agoraphobia: Fear of open or crowded spaces, not heights. b) Psychotic phobia: No such term; phobias are anxiety-related, not psychotic. d) Anxiety disorder: Phobias fall under anxiety disorders, but "specific phobia" is the most precise answer.

A 200-pound 11-year-old girl is NOT likely to experience which of the following more than her peers? a) Hypertension b) Diabetes c) Poor self-esteem d) Learning disability

✅ Correct Answer: d) Learning disability 👉 Explanation: Obesity is linked to hypertension, diabetes, and poor self-esteem, but it does not directly cause learning disabilities. ❌ Wrong answers: a) Hypertension: Obesity increases blood pressure risk. b) Diabetes: Obesity is a major risk factor for Type 2 diabetes. c) Poor self-esteem: Obese children often face bullying and low self-worth.

At what age does self-concept/self-esteem begin to develop? a) Less than 1 year b) 2-5 years c) 6-9 years d) 10-12 years

✅ Correct Answer: b) 2-5 years 👉 Explanation: Around this age, children start recognizing themselves and developing a sense of self-worth. ❌ Wrong answers: a) Less than 1 year: Infants lack self-awareness. c) 6-9 years: Self-esteem is already well developed by this stage. d) 10-12 years: This is more about identity formation.

What is the meaning of empathy? a) Showing sympathy toward the patient b) Understanding from the patient’s point of view c) Feeling sorry for the patient

✅ Correct Answer: b) Understanding from the patient’s point of view 👉 Explanation: Empathy means putting yourself in someone else's shoes emotionally and intellectually. ❌ Wrong answers: a) Sympathy: Feeling sorry for someone but not necessarily understanding them. c) Feeling sorry: Sympathy, not empathy.

A 27-year-old man with a head injury has shallow and irregular respiration. What should you do? a) Intubate, clear airway, and attach oxygen b) Suction airway and give oxygen c) Open and suction airway, then give positive pressure ventilation d) Perform tracheostomy

✅ Correct Answer: c) Open and suction airway, then give positive pressure ventilation 👉 Explanation: This ensures oxygenation and ventilation while preventing aspiration in head injury cases. ❌ Wrong answers: a) Intubate immediately: Not first-line before trying ventilation. b) Suction and give oxygen: Doesn’t ensure proper breathing support. d) Tracheostomy: Not an immediate intervention for trauma cases.

A 27-year-old man with a head injury has dilated pupils reacting sluggishly to light. What nerve is likely damaged? a) Abducens nerve b) Trochlear nerve c) Oculomotor nerve d) Optic nerve

✅ Correct Answer: c) Oculomotor nerve 👉 Explanation: The oculomotor nerve (CN III) controls pupil constriction. Damage leads to dilated pupils with sluggish reaction. ❌ Wrong answers: a) Abducens nerve: Controls lateral eye movement, not pupil response. b) Trochlear nerve: Controls superior oblique muscle, not pupils. d) Optic nerve: Affects vision but not pupil constriction.

What Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score indicates death? a) 0 b) 5 c) 7 d) 8

✅ Correct Answer: a) 0 👉 Explanation: The GCS ranges from 3 to 15, but a person who has died would have a score of 0 (no response). ❌ Wrong answers: b) 5: Indicates severe brain injury but not death. c) 7: Severe brain injury. d) 8: Borderline for intubation but not necessarily fatal.

Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) is classified as which of the following? a) Psychotic disorder b) Anxiety disorder c) Psychotic mood disorder d) Non-psychotic mood disorder

✅ Correct Answer: d) Non-psychotic mood disorder 👉 Explanation: MDD is a mood disorder characterized by persistent sadness and loss of interest. It is not inherently psychotic, though severe cases may include psychotic features. ❌ Wrong answers: a) Psychotic disorder: MDD is primarily a mood disorder, not a psychotic disorder like schizophrenia. b) Anxiety disorder: While MDD can co-exist with anxiety, it is not classified as an anxiety disorder. c) Psychotic mood disorder: Only if psychotic features are present, which is not always the case.

When sharing information with a patient, what should a doctor do? a) Use medical terms so the patient can learn them b) Repeat the issue at least three times c) ??? d) Use simple language so that the patient can understand

✅ Correct Answer: d) Use simple language so that the patient can understand 👉 Explanation: Effective communication in medicine ensures that the patient comprehends their condition and treatment. ❌ Wrong answers: a) Use medical terms: Patients may not understand complex terminology. b) Repeat three times: Repetition helps, but clarity is more important.

Which of the following is NOT a social factor influencing health? a) Governance, social policy b) Availability and accessibility to health services c) Individual lifestyle, risks, and habits d) Good sanitation, housing, and working conditions e) Education

✅ Correct Answer: c) Individual lifestyle, risks, and habits 👉 Explanation: Social factors include policy, services, and environment. Personal choices are considered behavioral factors, not social. ❌ Wrong answers: a) Governance & policy: Affects health through regulations and laws. b) Health services: Accessibility impacts public health. d) Sanitation, housing, work: Environmental factors are social determinants. e) Education: Influences health literacy and decision-making.

The least likely cause of soft tissue injury is due to: a) Physical b) Chemical c) Thermal d) Radiation

✅ Correct Answer: d) Radiation 👉 Explanation: Radiation can damage tissues but is not a common cause of soft tissue injury compared to physical, chemical, or thermal trauma. ❌ Wrong answers: a) Physical: Direct trauma (bruises, cuts). b) Chemical: Burns from acids, bases. c) Thermal: Heat or cold injuries.

The Hippocratic Oath does NOT mention: a) Fees b) Treating the sick c) ??? d) ???

✅ Correct Answer: a) Fees 👉 Explanation: The Hippocratic Oath focuses on ethics, confidentiality, and patient care, but does not mention fees or financial aspects. ❌ Wrong answers: b) Treating the sick: The oath emphasizes care for all.

In identifying child labor, which of the following is a worst form of child labor? a) Working with dangerous machines b) Long hours of work c) Child trafficking/sale d) Night work

✅ Correct Answer: c) Child trafficking/sale 👉 Explanation: The worst forms of child labor involve exploitation, trafficking, slavery, and hazardous work. ❌ Wrong answers: a) Dangerous machines: Risky but not necessarily the "worst form". b) Long hours: Harmful but does not qualify as the worst form. d) Night work: Dangerous but not in the same category as trafficking.

What is the maximum number of chunks of information that can be held in working memory? a) Four b) Six c) Seven d) Ten

✅ Correct Answer: c) Seven 👉 Explanation: According to Miller’s "Magic Number 7 ± 2", working memory typically holds 5 to 9 chunks of information. ❌ Wrong answers: a) Four: Too low. b) Six: Possible but not the maximum. d) Ten: Too high.

Remembering your high school graduation is what type of memory? a) Episodic b) Implicit c) Semantic

✅ Correct Answer: a) Episodic 👉 Explanation: Episodic memory stores personal events and experiences, like a graduation. ❌ Wrong answers: b) Implicit: Unconscious memories (skills, habits). c) Semantic: General knowledge (facts, meanings).

Psychologists who believe in human growth and inherent goodness are? a) Humanists b) Psychoanalysts c) Radical behaviorists d) Social theorists

✅ Correct Answer: a) Humanists 👉 Explanation: Humanists (e.g., Maslow, Rogers) focus on personal growth and self-actualization. ❌ Wrong answers: b) Psychoanalysts: Focus on unconscious drives (Freud). c) Radical behaviorists: Focus on learned behaviors (Skinner). d) Social theorists: Emphasize society’s influence.

Which theory states that physiological arousal and emotion occur simultaneously? a) James-Lange b) Cannon-Bard c) Facial feedback hypothesis d) Two-factor theory

✅ Correct Answer: b) Cannon-Bard 👉 Explanation: The Cannon-Bard theory suggests that emotions and physiological responses occur at the same time, unlike the James-Lange theory, which states arousal causes emotion. ❌ Wrong answers: a) James-Lange: Says arousal leads to emotion (e.g., "I feel fear because my heart is pounding"). c) Facial feedback hypothesis: Suggests expressions influence emotions. d) Two-factor theory: Says emotion depends on arousal + cognitive interpretation

Primary prevention: What is the main goal of primary prevention?

a) (Blank) b) (Blank) c) Uses strategies to prevent onset of disease d) (Blank)

✅ Correct Answer: c) Uses strategies to prevent onset of disease 👉 Explanation: Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs, such as through vaccination, health education, and lifestyle modification. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) (Blank) – No information provided. b) (Blank) – No information provided. d) (Blank) – No information provided.

The focus of Dental Public Health is at:

a) Administrative level b) Individual level c) Community level d) Ministerial level

✅ Correct Answer: c) Community level 👉 Explanation: Dental public health works at a community level to promote oral health through education, policy-making, and public health initiatives. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Administrative level – While administration plays a role, the focus is on population-wide dental health, not just policy-making. b) Individual level – This is more of a clinical approach, not public health. d) Ministerial level – Governments may support policies, but they do not execute public health interventions directly.

The Health Provider puts a seed in ____ in people to reap the desired behavior change.

a) Wrong information b) Right information c) Health Education d) Organizational information

✅ Correct Answer: c) Health Education 👉 Explanation: Health education informs and empowers people to adopt healthier behaviors, leading to long-term changes in public health. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Wrong information – Misinformation leads to poor health outcomes rather than desired change. b) Right information – While important, information alone does not guarantee behavior change; it must be structured into education. d) Organizational information – Organizations provide structure but do not directly cause individual behavioral change.

Which of the following is not a non-modifiable factor?

a) Health b) Genetics c) Age d) Gender

✅ Correct Answer: a) Health 👉 Explanation: Health can be influenced by lifestyle, medical care, and socioeconomic factors, making it modifiable. ❌ Wrong Answers: b) Genetics – Genetic traits cannot be changed and are non-modifiable. c) Age – Aging is inevitable and beyond control. d) Gender – Biological sex cannot be altered naturally.

Which of the health determinants could be considered environmental factors?

a) Age b) Family size and composition c) Physiological state d) Promiscuous sexual activity

✅ Correct Answer: d) Promiscuous sexual activity 👉 Explanation: Environmental factors include behaviors influenced by the surroundings, such as high-risk sexual activity in certain cultures or environments. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Age – Age is a non-modifiable individual factor, not environmental. b) Family size and composition – This is socioeconomic rather than environmental. c) Physiological state – This refers to health conditions, not environmental factors.

What is violence?

a) Accidental physical use b) Inducing fear on an average person c) Limited damage to a person d) No psychological effect

✅ Correct Answer: b) Inducing fear on an average person 👉 Explanation: Violence includes physical, emotional, and psychological harm, often causing fear and intimidation. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Accidental physical use – Violence is intentional, not accidental. c) Limited damage to a person – Violence can cause extensive harm, not just minor damage. d) No psychological effect – Violence often has severe psychological consequences.

This person is quiet, takes their time when completing tasks, and is not competitive and non-aggressive. What type of personality does she have?

a) Type A b) Type B c) Type C d) Type D

✅ Correct Answer: b) Type B 👉 Explanation: Type B personalities are relaxed, patient, and non-competitive, opposite to the highly driven and competitive Type A. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Type A – Type A people are ambitious, high-strung, and aggressive. c) Type C – Type C individuals tend to suppress emotions and may be prone to stress-related illnesses. d) Type D – Type D personalities are pessimistic and socially withdrawn.

Inability to prepare meals or get dressed properly may be considered an example of impaired:

a) Goal-directed activity b) Executive function c) Mood regulation d) Thought process

✅ Correct Answer: b) Executive function 👉 Explanation: Executive function controls planning, organization, and task execution, all needed for daily living activities. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Goal-directed activity – This is a general term and does not specifically address cognitive impairment. c) Mood regulation – Mood disorders affect emotions, not practical daily tasks. d) Thought process – While impaired thinking can occur, executive function is directly tied to the issue described.

Cultural reason for violence against women:

a) Domestic violence not taken seriously b) Limited organization of women politically c) Gender-specific socialization d) Limited access to cash and credit

✅ Correct Answer: c) Gender-specific socialization 👉 Explanation: Cultural norms that enforce traditional gender roles can contribute to violence against women. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Domestic violence not taken seriously – This is a legal and social issue, not directly a cultural reason. b) Limited organization of women politically – This affects advocacy but does not directly cause violence. d) Limited access to cash and credit – This is an economic factor, not a cultural one.

Affect is defined as:

a) Coexistence of unequal attitudes b) Feeling tone experienced by an individual c) Observed emotional expression d) State of being elated beyond normal

✅ Correct Answer: b) Feeling tone experienced by an individual 👉 Explanation: Affect refers to how a person experiences emotions, separate from behavior. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Coexistence of unequal attitudes – This describes cognitive dissonance, not affect. c) Observed emotional expression – This refers to mood or outward expression, not internal affect. d) State of being elated beyond normal – This describes mania or hypomania, not affect in general.

Which stage in cognitive development does a child learn conservation?

a) Formal operational b) Concrete operational c) Preoperational d) Sensorimotor

✅ Correct Answer: b) Concrete operational 👉 Explanation: Piaget’s concrete operational stage (ages 7-11) is when children understand conservation—that quantity remains the same despite changes in shape or container. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Formal operational – This stage (ages 12+) deals with abstract reasoning, not conservation. c) Preoperational – This stage (ages 2-7) is before conservation is understood. d) Sensorimotor – This stage (ages 0-2) is focused on sensory exploration, not logical reasoning.

The main goal of therapy for someone experiencing acute stress disorder is:

a) Focus on cognitive restructuring b) Provide psychoeducation c) Encourage avoidance d) Discuss the traumatic event repeatedly

✅ Correct Answer: b) Provide psychoeducation 👉 Explanation: Psychoeducation helps individuals understand their symptoms and responses, aiding their recovery from acute stress disorder. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Focus on cognitive restructuring – This is more applicable for cognitive behavioral therapy focused on long-term issues. c) Encourage avoidance – Avoiding the trauma can heighten symptoms rather than help recovery. d) Discuss the traumatic event repeatedly – This may lead to re-traumatization instead of healing.

Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy?

a) Chronic disease management b) Cancer screening c) Vaccination programs d) Rehab services

✅ Correct Answer: c) Vaccination programs 👉 Explanation: Vaccination programs are designed to prevent disease before it occurs, making them a primary prevention strategy. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Chronic disease management – This is part of tertiary prevention. b) Cancer screening – This is an example of secondary prevention. d) Rehab services – These are aimed at individuals with existing conditions, thus part of tertiary prevention.

What is the focus of the social model of health?

a) Biological factors b) Individual behaviors c) Social determinants of health d) Healthcare services

✅ Correct Answer: c) Social determinants of health 👉 Explanation: The social model of health focuses on how social, economic, and environmental factors influence health outcomes. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Biological factors – This ignores the broader context of health. b) Individual behaviors – This is merely one part of the equation, not the main focus. d) Healthcare services – Access and quality of healthcare matter, but the social model emphasizes social factors.

What is the best approach to reduce health disparities?

a) Focus on individual responsibility b) Address socio-economic barriers c) Increase healthcare cost d) Limit access to healthcare

✅ Correct Answer: b) Address socio-economic barriers 👉 Explanation: Tackling socio-economic barriers (like education and income) is crucial for reducing health disparities. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Focus on individual responsibility – This overlooks systemic issues affecting health. c) Increase healthcare cost – This would worsen access, not improve it. d) Limit access to healthcare – A detrimental approach that would increase disparities.

According to Piaget, at what stage do children develop the ability to think abstractly?

a) Sensorimotor b) Concrete operational c) Formal operational d) Preoperational

✅ Correct Answer: c) Formal operational 👉 Explanation: The formal operational stage (around age 12+) is characterized by abstract and logical thinking. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Sensorimotor – Focuses on sensory experiences, not abstract thought. b) Concrete operational – Centers around logical thinking applied to concrete situations, not abstractions. d) Preoperational – Characterized by symbolic thinking without understanding abstraction.

In which age group do children typically develop a sense of gender identity?

a) Infancy b) Toddler years c) Preschool years d) School age

✅ Correct Answer: c) Preschool years 👉 Explanation: Gender identity typically begins to form during the preschool years (ages 3-6), as children start identifying with gender norms. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Infancy – Gender identity is not developed in this stage. b) Toddler years – Identifying gender typically begins at this stage but solidifies later. d) School age – By this stage, identity is more established, and reinforcement takes place.

Which of the following best describes the principle of informed consent?

a) Patients must always accept treatment b) Doctors make decisions for patients c) Patients are fully informed to make healthcare decisions d) Only doctors understand treatment options

✅ Correct Answer: c) Patients are fully informed to make healthcare decisions 👉 Explanation: Informed consent requires that patients understand risks, benefits, and alternatives before agreeing to treatment. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Patients must always accept treatment – This contradicts the essence of informed consent. b) Doctors make decisions for patients – This undermines the patient's autonomy. d) Only doctors understand treatment options – Patients should be educated and involved.

What does the term ‘bystander effect’ refer to?

a) Individuals feeling less responsible in a crowd b) People helping in emergencies c) Increased public awareness of social issues d) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: a) Individuals feeling less responsible in a crowd 👉 Explanation: The bystander effect occurs when individuals in a group are less likely to help someone in distress due to the assumption that someone else will take action. ❌ Wrong Answers: b) People helping in emergencies – Opposite of the bystander effect, this refers to active intervention. c) Increased public awareness of social issues – Doesn’t reflect the psychological phenomenon of the bystander effect. d) None of the above – Incorrect as answer a) is valid.

In what stage of development can children understand moral reasoning according to Kohlberg?

a) Pre-conventional b) Conventional c) Post-conventional d) All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: c) Post-conventional 👉 Explanation: The post-conventional stage involves understanding universal ethical principles and moral reasoning based on individual beliefs. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Pre-conventional – Morality is based on external consequences and rewards, not ethical principles. b) Conventional – This involves adhering to social rules and approval rather than ethical reasoning. d) All of the above – Only the post-conventional stage represents true moral reasoning.

Which factor is most crucial in determining success in rehabilitation?

a) Duration of treatment b) Patient motivation c) Type of treatment d) Support system

✅ Correct Answer: b) Patient motivation 👉 Explanation: Patient motivation is a key determinant in the success of rehabilitation, impacting engagement and adherence to the treatment plan. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Duration of treatment – While important, a shorter or longer duration can be effective based on motivation. c) Type of treatment – Some treatments work better than others, but success often hinges on the patient's willingness to engage. d) Support system – While a support system can help, intrinsic motivation remains paramount.

A lady was watching TV and thought that the persons were talking about her. What kind of delusion is this?

✅ Correct Answer: b) Delusions of reference 👉 Explanation: Delusions of reference occur when an individual believes that unrelated events, comments, or gestures are directed at them. In this case, she believes the TV characters are specifically addressing her. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) (Blank) c) (Blank) d) (Blank)

Which of the following circumstances is amenable to a tertiary preventative level?

✅ Correct Answer: c) Pathology following a cerebrovascular accident (stroke) 👉 Explanation: Tertiary prevention focuses on reducing the impact of an existing disease, such as rehabilitation after a stroke to improve quality of life. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) A vaccine-preventable epidemic – This is primary prevention. b) An increase in motor vehicular road fatalities – This is more of a policy issue than a medical intervention. d) The increased incidence of cervical cancer – This falls under secondary prevention.

Who proposed the drive-reduction theory?

✅ Correct Answer: a) Clark Hull 👉 Explanation: Clark Hull's drive-reduction theory suggests that motivation arises from biological needs that create internal drives, which organisms act to reduce. ❌ Wrong Answers: b) Maslow – Known for the Hierarchy of Needs, not drive-reduction. c) (Blank) d) (Blank)

You see a snake and then run away as you feel fear. What theory accounts for this?

✅ Correct Answer: b) James-Lange 👉 Explanation: The James-Lange theory suggests that physiological responses precede emotional experiences. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Cannon-Bard – States emotions and physiological responses happen simultaneously. c) (Blank) d) (Blank)

The three stages of memory proposed by Atkinson-Shiffrin are?

✅ Correct Answer: c) Short-term, sensory, long-term 👉 Explanation: The Atkinson-Shiffrin model consists of: Sensory memory, Short-term memory, Long-term memory. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Implicit, short-term, explicit – Not stages but types of long-term memory. b) Explicit, semantic, implicit – Categories of long-term memory, not stages. d) (Blank)

In Jamaica, the National Health Fund provides access to low-cost drugs for individuals with chronic conditions. What is the best classification for this kind of policy?

✅ Correct Answer: c) Healthy public policy 👉 Explanation: Healthy public policies focus on improving public health through government-led strategies, such as subsidies for chronic disease medications. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Chronic diseases policy – Too specific for the broader health targets. b) Healthy lifestyle policy – Focuses on preventative strategies. d) Public health policy – This term is broader.

Which part of the brain does cocaine abuse most likely affect?

✅ Correct Answer: c) Amygdala 👉 Explanation: Cocaine influences the amygdala, associated with reward, emotion, and addiction-related behaviors. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Hypothalamus – Related to hormonal regulation. b) Thalamus – Relays sensory information. d) Hippocampus – Involved in memory.

Fluctuating levels of consciousness are seen in:

✅ Correct Answer: b) Delirium 👉 Explanation: Delirium is characterized by acute confusion and fluctuating consciousness. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Amnestic disorders – Involve memory loss. c) Dementia – Causes progressive cognitive decline. d) Generalized anxiety disorder – Does not alter consciousness.

Which of the following is a feature of panic disorders?

✅ Correct Answer: a) Autonomic arousal 👉 Explanation: Panic disorder involves sudden intense fear with autonomic symptoms like rapid heartbeat. ❌ Wrong Answers: b) Disorganized thoughts – Related to schizophrenia. c) Insidious onset – Panic attacks are sudden. d) Recurrent flashbacks – Symptoms of PTSD.

Accidents are the leading cause of death during the preschool period because the preschooler typically:

✅ Correct Answer: c) Is not fully aware of danger 👉 Explanation: Young children lack a full understanding of risks, making them more vulnerable to accidents. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Has a curious mind – While curiosity is a factor, it's not the main reason. b) Has improved motor skills – Does not increase risk. d) Is prone to having temper tantrums – Not the main cause of accidents.

Carl Rogers created a theory in which area?

✅ Correct Answer: b) Humanistic 👉 Explanation: Carl Rogers emphasized self-actualization and unconditional positive regard in his humanistic psychology work. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Psychodynamic – Related to Freud and Jung. c) Behaviorism – Focused on behavior conditioning. d) Trait – Centers on personality characteristics.

What diagnosis should be considered regarding Alana's mother, who insists her daughter has various medical issues despite no confirmed diagnosis? a) Depression b) Hypochondriasis c) Somatoform disorder d) Factitious disorder

✅ Correct Answer: d) Factitious disorder. 👉 Explanation: Factitious disorder (previously known as Munchausen syndrome by proxy) occurs when a caregiver, usually a parent, fabricates or exaggerates symptoms in another person under their care to gain attention or sympathy from medical professionals. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Depression: While chronic stress and concern can lead to depression, there is no indication that the mother is experiencing symptoms of depression, such as persistent sadness, loss of interest, or suicidal ideation. b) Hypochondriasis: This condition (now known as illness anxiety disorder) involves excessive worry about one's own health rather than fabricating illness in another person. c) Somatoform disorder: This refers to individuals who experience physical symptoms without a medical cause, but it applies to the person experiencing the symptoms, not their caregiver.

What percentage of people relapse from substance use? a) 10-20% b) 25-45% c) 30-50% d) 40-60%

✅ Correct Answer: d) 40-60%. 👉 Explanation: Substance use disorders have high relapse rates, similar to chronic diseases like hypertension and diabetes. Relapse is part of the recovery process and does not mean treatment has failed. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) 10-20%: This is too low; substance use relapse rates are much higher. b) 25-45%: While closer, it underestimates the actual relapse rate. c) 30-50%: This is still slightly lower than the accepted range of 40-60%.

What substance naturally occurs in the brain? a) Alcohol b) Cannabinoids c) Opioids d) Tobacco

✅ Correct Answer: c) Opioids. 👉 Explanation: Endogenous opioids (e.g., endorphins, enkephalins) are naturally produced by the body and play a role in pain relief, mood regulation, and stress response. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Alcohol: Alcohol is not naturally produced in the brain. b) Cannabinoids: The brain has an endocannabinoid system, but cannabis itself is not naturally produced. d) Tobacco: Nicotine, found in tobacco, is not naturally produced in the body.

Which neurocognitive disorder is associated with diabetes mellitus? a) Alzheimer’s dementia b) Lewy Body Disease c) Parkinson’s dementia d) Vascular dementia

✅ Correct Answer: d) Vascular dementia. 👉 Explanation: Diabetes increases the risk of vascular damage, leading to impaired blood flow to the brain and contributing to vascular dementia. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Alzheimer’s dementia: Though Alzheimer's can coexist with diabetes, the direct link is stronger with vascular dementia. b) Lewy Body Disease: This is associated with abnormal protein deposits in the brain, not diabetes. c) Parkinson’s dementia: This occurs in Parkinson’s disease patients and is unrelated to diabetes.

An adolescent who is whimsical, carefree, and avoids commitment is in which identity stage? a) Foreclosure b) Identity achievement c) Moratorium d) Identity diffusion

✅ Correct Answer: d) Identity diffusion. 👉 Explanation: Identity diffusion is when an adolescent has not yet committed to an identity or explored options seriously. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Foreclosure: This involves commitment to an identity without exploration, often due to parental influence. b) Identity achievement: This stage is when an individual has explored and committed to an identity. c) Moratorium: This involves actively exploring identities but without committing yet.

The role of a healthcare provider is to: a) Deal with sick patients only b) Dictate to patients what to do c) Encourage activities to enhance health d) Deal with physical concerns only

✅ Correct Answer: c) Encourage activities to enhance health. 👉 Explanation: Healthcare providers should promote preventive care and encourage patients to adopt healthy behaviors. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Deal with sick patients only: Healthcare includes prevention, not just treating illnesses. b) Dictate to patients what to do: Healthcare providers guide, educate, and support rather than dictate. d) Deal with physical concerns only: Health includes mental, emotional, and social well-being.

A 78-year-old hypertensive patient refuses dietary advice and insists he is content with his current habits. What stage of the Trans-Theoretical Model is he in? a) Contemplation b) Action c) Maintenance d) Pre-contemplation

✅ Correct Answer: d) Pre-contemplation. 👉 Explanation: Pre-contemplation is when a person is not considering change and does not acknowledge the need for it. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Contemplation: The patient would be considering change but hasn’t decided yet. b) Action: This is when the person is actively making changes. c) Maintenance: This is when a person has already changed behavior and is maintaining it.

In developing countries, a major contributor to morbidity and mortality in infants is: a) Diarrheal illness b) Mumps c) Congenital heart disease d) Otitis media

✅ Correct Answer: a) Diarrheal illness. 👉 Explanation: Diarrheal diseases, often caused by poor sanitation, contaminated water, and infections like rotavirus and E. coli, are a major cause of dehydration and death in infants in developing countries. ❌ Wrong Answers: b) Mumps: Mumps is not a leading cause of infant mortality; it is more common in older children and usually not fatal. c) Congenital heart disease: While serious, it is not the leading cause of infant mortality in developing countries. d) Otitis media: An ear infection can cause complications but is not a leading cause of infant death.

When assessing a patient's pain, what is the best approach? a) Observe the patient’s facial expression b) Ask the patient to rate the pain c) Wait for the patient to complain d) Examine the patient’s vital signs

✅ Correct Answer: b) Ask the patient to rate the pain. 👉 Explanation: Pain is subjective, so the best way to assess it is by asking the patient directly, using pain scales (e.g., 1–10 or Wong-Baker faces scale). ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Observe the patient’s facial expression: While useful, this alone is not a reliable measure of pain. c) Wait for the patient to complain: Many patients may not verbalize pain unless asked. d) Examine the patient’s vital signs: Pain can affect vital signs, but this is not a direct assessment of pain.

What is the leading cause of death in adolescents? a) Cancer b) HIV/AIDS c) Motor vehicle accidents d) Suicide

✅ Correct Answer: c) Motor vehicle accidents. 👉 Explanation: Car accidents are the leading cause of death among adolescents due to inexperience, risky behaviors, and sometimes substance use. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Cancer: While a cause of adolescent deaths, it is not the leading one. b) HIV/AIDS: This is not a top cause of death in adolescents. d) Suicide: Suicide is a leading cause but is lower than motor vehicle accidents.

What condition is associated with long-term alcohol use? a) Parkinson’s disease b) Korsakoff’s psychosis c) Alzheimer’s disease d) Schizophrenia

✅ Correct Answer: b) Korsakoff’s psychosis. 👉 Explanation: Korsakoff’s psychosis is caused by thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency due to chronic alcohol use. It leads to severe memory impairment and confabulation. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Parkinson’s disease: This is a neurodegenerative disorder unrelated to alcohol use. c) Alzheimer’s disease: Chronic alcohol use can contribute to dementia, but Alzheimer’s is not directly caused by alcohol. d) Schizophrenia: This is a psychiatric disorder with no direct link to alcohol use.

What is the most common cause of blindness in the elderly? a) Retinitis pigmentosa b) Macular degeneration c) Diabetic retinopathy d) Cataracts

✅ Correct Answer: d) Cataracts. 👉 Explanation: Cataracts cause clouding of the lens, leading to vision loss. They are the leading cause of blindness worldwide, especially in the elderly. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Retinitis pigmentosa: A rare genetic disorder that affects night vision and peripheral vision. b) Macular degeneration: A common cause of vision loss but not the most frequent cause of blindness. c) Diabetic retinopathy: A major cause in diabetics but not the most common overall.

What is the best predictor of a person’s health? a) Genetics b) Socioeconomic status c) Gender d) Race

✅ Correct Answer: b) Socioeconomic status. 👉 Explanation: Socioeconomic status (SES) influences access to healthcare, nutrition, education, and living conditions, making it the strongest predictor of health outcomes. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Genetics: While genetics play a role, environmental and social factors have a bigger impact on overall health. c) Gender: Gender can influence health risks, but SES is a stronger predictor. d) Race: While race is linked to health disparities, SES is a more direct factor.

What is the best way to improve medication adherence? a) Give the patient multiple medications at once b) Educate the patient on the importance of adherence c) Prescribe only one medication at a time d) Increase the frequency of follow-up visits

✅ Correct Answer: b) Educate the patient on the importance of adherence. 👉 Explanation: Understanding why a medication is necessary and how it benefits them increases a patient’s likelihood of taking it as prescribed. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Give the patient multiple medications at once: This can lead to confusion and non-adherence. c) Prescribe only one medication at a time: Not always practical; patients often need multiple medications. d) Increase the frequency of follow-up visits: Helpful but not the best standalone solution.

A patient repeatedly comes to the ER with vague symptoms and no clear medical diagnosis. What is the likely disorder? a) Schizophrenia b) Somatic symptom disorder c) Bipolar disorder d) Factitious disorder

✅ Correct Answer: b) Somatic symptom disorder. 👉 Explanation: Somatic symptom disorder involves excessive focus on physical symptoms that cause distress, despite a lack of a clear medical cause. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Schizophrenia: This involves psychosis, not unexplained physical symptoms. c) Bipolar disorder: Bipolar disorder affects mood, not physical symptom concerns. d) Factitious disorder: This involves deliberately faking or exaggerating illness for attention, whereas somatic symptom disorder is driven by genuine distress.

Which of the following is a risk factor for developing type 2 diabetes? a) Obesity b) Hypoglycemia c) Anemia d) Hyperthyroidism

✅ Correct Answer: a) Obesity. 👉 Explanation: Obesity, especially abdominal fat, is a major risk factor for insulin resistance and the development of type 2 diabetes. ❌ Wrong Answers: b) Hypoglycemia: This condition is related to low blood sugar, not a risk factor for diabetes. c) Anemia: Anemia does not increase the risk of developing type 2 diabetes. d) Hyperthyroidism: While thyroid dysfunction can affect metabolism, it is not a primary risk factor for type 2 diabetes.

The most common cause of a stroke in an adult is: a) Hypertension b) Atherosclerosis c) Heart arrhythmias d) Diabetes

✅ Correct Answer: b) Atherosclerosis. 👉 Explanation: Atherosclerosis, the buildup of plaque in arteries, can lead to blockage or rupture of a vessel, causing a stroke. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Hypertension: While hypertension is a significant risk factor, atherosclerosis is the primary cause of strokes. c) Heart arrhythmias: These can increase stroke risk but are less common than atherosclerosis. d) Diabetes: Diabetes contributes to stroke risk but is not the direct cause.

A 10-year-old child presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. What is the most likely diagnosis? a) Type 2 diabetes mellitus b) Diabetic ketoacidosis c) Hyperthyroidism d) Type 1 diabetes mellitus

✅ Correct Answer: d) Type 1 diabetes mellitus. 👉 Explanation: Type 1 diabetes typically presents in children with classic symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss due to the inability to produce insulin. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Type 2 diabetes mellitus: This occurs in older children and adolescents, often with obesity as a major contributing factor. b) Diabetic ketoacidosis: This is a complication of diabetes and not a primary diagnosis. c) Hyperthyroidism: Symptoms of hyperthyroidism can include weight loss and increased thirst, but polyuria is more suggestive of diabetes.

A 45-year-old man presents with a painful, swollen right knee. He has a history of gout. What is the most likely diagnosis? a) Gouty arthritis b) Rheumatoid arthritis c) Osteoarthritis d) Septic arthritis

✅ Correct Answer: a) Gouty arthritis. 👉 Explanation: Gouty arthritis is caused by the deposition of uric acid crystals in the joints, presenting as a sudden, painful, and swollen joint. ❌ Wrong Answers: b) Rheumatoid arthritis: This autoimmune condition typically involves multiple joints symmetrically. c) Osteoarthritis: This chronic condition involves joint degeneration, not an acute painful swelling. d) Septic arthritis: This can cause swelling and pain but usually presents with fever and systemic illness.

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of a tension pneumothorax? a) Decreased breath sounds on the affected side b) Hyperresonance to percussion c) Tracheal deviation to the opposite side d) Jugular venous distention on the same side

✅ Correct Answer: c) Tracheal deviation to the opposite side. 👉 Explanation: In a tension pneumothorax, air accumulates in the pleural space and cannot escape, causing increased pressure that can displace the trachea. ❌ Wrong Answers: a) Decreased breath sounds on the affected side: This is common in pneumothorax but not specific to tension pneumothorax. b) Hyperresonance to percussion: This can also be found in a pneumothorax but is not a distinguishing feature. d) Jugular venous distention on the same side: JVD is present in tension pneumothorax but can affect both sides.