pharmacology study guide questions

A. Class I

1. Which class of antiarrhythmic drugs blocks fast sodium channels?

A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class IV

B. Class II

2. Which antiarrhythmic drug class is associated with the suffix '-lol'?

A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class IV

C. Torsades de pointes

3. What is a major adverse reaction of amiodarone?

A. Dry mouth
B. Rash
C. Torsades de pointes
D. Constipation

C. -dipine

4. What is the suffix associated with calcium channel blockers?

A. -pril
B. -statin
C. -dipine
D. -sartan

B. Levalbuterol

5. Which medication is classified as a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA)?

A. Formoterol
B. Levalbuterol
C. Vilanterol
D. Breo Ellipta

B. Chest pain and tremors

6. What is a common side effect of SABAs during physical therapy?

A. Joint pain
B. Chest pain and tremors
C. Hair loss
D. Blurred vision

B. Statins

7. Which drug class is most associated with hepatotoxicity?

A. NSAIDs
B. Statins
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Beta blockers

C. -pril

8. Which medication suffix is associated with ACE inhibitors?

A. -sartan
B. -olol
C. -pril
D. -pine

C. Insulin Aspart

9. Which diabetes medication carries a risk of hypoglycemia and requires glucose monitoring?

A. Metformin
B. Lisinopril
C. Insulin Aspart
D. Captopril

B. Calcium channel blockers

10. Which medication class includes amlodipine?

A. Beta blockers
B. Calcium channel blockers
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Diuretics

D. -ide

11. What is the common suffix for diuretics like furosemide?

A. -dipine
B. -pril
C. -sartan
D. -ide

B. Hypokalemia

12. Which side effect is most associated with thiazide diuretics?

A. Bradycardia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Seizures

B. Suppress coughing

13. What is the main use of antitussives?

A. Increase BP
B. Suppress coughing
C. Enhance diuresis
D. Lower blood glucose

C. Furosemide

14. Which of the following is a loop diuretic?

A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Amiodarone
C. Furosemide
D. Digoxin

C. Chest numbness

15. What is a common severe side effect of antitussives?

A. Sneezing
B. Drowsiness
C. Chest numbness
D. Weight gain

A. Theophylline

16. Which drug is a methylxanthine used for asthma?

A. Theophylline
B. Salbutamol
C. Ipratropium
D. Prednisone

A. Digoxin

17. Which cardiac drug can cause visual disturbances due to toxicity?

A. Digoxin
B. Propranolol
C. Atorvastatin
D. Lisinopril

C. -dipine

18. Which suffix is associated with calcium channel blockers?

A. -olol
B. -statin
C. -dipine
D. -sartan

C. High cholesterol

19. What condition is treated with statins?

A. Asthma
B. Infection
C. High cholesterol
D. Diabetes insipidus

C. Apixaban

20. Which anticoagulant carries a bleeding risk and ends in -aban?

A. Heparin
B. Warfarin
C. Apixaban
D. Clopidogrel

B. Bradycardia

21. What is a common adverse effect of beta blockers?

A. Tachycardia
B. Bradycardia
C. Anemia
D. Seizures

B. Insulin Aspart

22. Which insulin type is rapid-acting?

A. Insulin Detemir
B. Insulin Aspart
C. Insulin Glargine
D. Insulin NPH

C. Hypotension

23. What’s the primary concern during PT for someone on vasodilators?

A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hypertension
C. Hypotension
D. Seizures

C. Inhibits COX enzymes

24. What is the MOA of aspirin?

A. Inhibits HMG-CoA
B. Blocks histamine receptors
C. Inhibits COX enzymes
D. Enhances insulin release

B. Ciprofloxacin

25. Which antibiotic is associated with tendon rupture?

A. Amoxicillin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Erythromycin
D. Penicillin

C. Mast cell stabilizer

26. What’s the MOA of cromolyn sodium?

A. Beta-blocker
B. Histamine antagonist
C. Mast cell stabilizer
D. Proton pump inhibitor

B. Centrally acting alpha-2 agonist

27. What class does clonidine belong to?

A. Beta agonist
B. Centrally acting alpha-2 agonist
C. Calcium channel blocker
D. Diuretic

C. -sartan

28. Which suffix is associated with angiotensin receptor blockers?

A. -dipine
B. -pril
C. -sartan
D. -olol

B. Liver toxicity

29. What is a severe side effect of statins?

A. Hyperglycemia
B. Liver toxicity
C. Bradycardia
D. Diarrhea

B. Norvasc

30. What is the trade name of amlodipine?

A. Lipitor
B. Norvasc
C. ProAir
D. Zestril

B. Spironolactone

31. Which drug treats heart failure and causes potassium retention?

A. Digoxin
B. Spironolactone
C. Lasix
D. Metoprolol

A. Lisinopril

32. Which medication ends in -pril and is used for hypertension?

A. Lisinopril
B. Losartan
C. Atenolol
D. Amlodipine

B. Propranolol

33. Which beta blocker is non-selective?

A. Metoprolol
B. Propranolol
C. Atenolol
D. Esmolo

B. Novolog

35. What is the trade name for insulin aspart?

A. Lantus
B. Novolog
C. Levemir
D. Humulin R

B. Aspirin

36. What drug inhibits platelet aggregation by blocking COX enzymes?

A. Heparin
B. Aspirin
C. Enoxaparin
D. Warfarin

B. Polyuria

37. Which side effect is unique to diuretics?

A. Hyperglycemia
B. Polyuria
C. Bradycardia
D. Confusion

C. Lisinopril

38. Which antihypertensive may cause a dry cough?

A. Losartan
B. Amlodipine
C. Lisinopril
D. Metoprolol

B. Nitroglycerin

39. Which nitrate is used for angina?

A. Digoxin
B. Nitroglycerin
C. Lisinopril
D. Captopril

B. Fluoroquinolones

40. Which antibiotic class may require PT caution due to fatigue and muscle pain?

A. Macrolides
B. Fluoroquinolones
C. Beta-lactams
D. Sulfonamides

B. Beta blockers

41. What class does metoprolol belong to?

A. ACE inhibitors
B. Beta blockers
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Diuretics

C. Lowers glucose by promoting cellular uptake

42. What is the MOA of insulin?

A. Reduces glucagon
B. Inhibits COX
C. Lowers glucose by promoting cellular uptake
D. Blocks calcium channels

C. Albuterol

43. Which asthma medication ends in -erol?

A. Cromolyn
B. Theophylline
C. Albuterol
D. Montelukast

C. Anticoagulant

44. What class is warfarin?

A. Thrombolytic
B. Antiplatelet
C. Anticoagulant
D. Beta blocker

A. Amlodipine

45. Which drug is known for causing gingival hyperplasia?

A. Amlodipine
B. Lisinopril
C. Metoprolol
D. Hydrochlorothiazide

D. Bradycardia

46. Which of the following is NOT a side effect of corticosteroids?

A. Immunosuppression
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Osteoporosis
D. Bradycardia

B. Formoterol

47. Which beta-agonist is long-acting?

A. Albuterol
B. Formoterol
C. Epinephrine
D. Levalbuterol

C. Statins

48. Which class of medications ends in -statin?

A. ACE inhibitors
B. Beta blockers
C. Statins
D. CCBs

A. Metformin

49. Which antidiabetic drug is most likely to cause lactic acidosis?

A. Metformin
B. Glipizide
C. Insulin
D. Sitagliptin

A. Visual changes

50. Which side effect is most concerning with digoxin?

A. Visual changes
B. Diarrhea
C. Weight gain
D. Sneezing

D. Lisinopril

51. Which medication is contraindicated in pregnancy due to teratogenicity?

A. Metformin
B. Atorvastatin
C. Acetaminophen
D. Lisinopril

C. Morphine

52. Which opioid is most likely to cause respiratory depression?

A. Ibuprofen
B. Codeine
C. Morphine
D. Naproxen

A. Vitamin B6

53. Which vitamin must be supplemented with isoniazid therapy?

A. Vitamin B6
B. Vitamin B12
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D

B. Tendon rupture

54. What is the black box warning for fluoroquinolones?

A. Renal failure
B. Tendon rupture
C. Bradycardia
D. Hepatitis

B. Hypokalemia

55. Which electrolyte imbalance is common with loop diuretics?

A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypercalcemia

C. Hypothyroidism

56. What is the primary use of levothyroxine?

A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Diabetes
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Hypertension

C. ACE inhibitors

57. Which medication class is most associated with angioedema?

A. ARBs
B. Beta-blockers
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Statins

B. Inhibit gastric H⁺/K⁺ ATPase

58. What is the mechanism of action of proton pump inhibitors?

A. Block histamine
B. Inhibit gastric H⁺/K⁺ ATPase
C. Neutralize stomach acid
D. Stimulate mucus production

C. Osteoporosis

59. What condition does alendronate treat?

A. Osteoarthritis
B. Gout
C. Osteoporosis
D. Rheumatoid arthritis

C. aPTT

60. Which lab value should be monitored with heparin therapy?

A. INR
B. PT
C. aPTT
D. Creatinine

C. Inhibit HMG-CoA reductase

61. What is the mechanism of action of statins?

A. Inhibit lipase
B. Activate beta cells
C. Inhibit HMG-CoA reductase
D. Block ACE enzyme

B. Antacids

62. Which class of drugs is used to treat GERD by neutralizing stomach acid?

A. PPIs
B. Antacids
C. H2 blockers
D. NSAIDs

C. GI upset

63. What is a common side effect of metformin?

A. Weight gain
B. Hypoglycemia
C. GI upset
D. Blurred vision

B. Tiotropium

64. Which medication is a long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA)?

A. Albuterol
B. Tiotropium
C. Fluticasone
D. Salmeterol

B. Ototoxicity

65. Which side effect is associated with aminoglycosides?

A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Ototoxicity
C. Bradycardia
D. Rash

C. Inhibit cell wall synthesis

66. What is the mechanism of action of beta-lactam antibiotics?

A. Disrupt protein synthesis
B. Inhibit DNA gyrase
C. Inhibit cell wall synthesis
D. Block folic acid

B. Insulin Glargine

67. Which insulin is long-acting?

A. Insulin NPH
B. Insulin Glargine
C. Insulin Aspart
D. Insulin Lispro

C. Epinephrine

68. Which drug is used for emergency treatment of anaphylaxis?

A. Diphenhydramine
B. Salbutamol
C. Epinephrine
D. Prednisone

B. Simvastatin

69. Which medication increases the risk of rhabdomyolysis?

A. Metoprolol
B. Simvastatin
C. Amlodipine
D. Losartan

C. Store in original container

70. What is a key counseling point for nitroglycerin tablets?

A. Take with food
B. Avoid laying down
C. Store in original container
D. Chew thoroughly

B. Calcium channel blockers

71. Which drug class can cause gingival hyperplasia?

A. Beta blockers
B. Calcium channel blockers
C. Statins
D. Diuretics

C. Opioid overdose

72. What is the primary therapeutic use of naloxone?

A. Sedation
B. Anticoagulation
C. Opioid overdose
D. Pain relief

C. Aminoglycosides

73. Which antibiotic class disrupts bacterial protein synthesis by binding the 30S subunit?

A. Macrolides
B. Tetracyclines
C. Aminoglycosides
D. Sulfonamides

B. Hyperglycemia

74. What is a hallmark side effect of corticosteroids?

A. Tendon rupture
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Constipation
D. Insomnia

A. Beta blockers

75. Which antihypertensive should be avoided in asthma patients?

A. Beta blockers
B. ACE inhibitors
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. ARBs

C. PPI

76. What drug class does omeprazole belong to?

A. H2 blocker
B. Antacid
C. PPI
D. Laxative

C. Glipizide

77. Which diabetes drug increases insulin secretion and can cause hypoglycemia?

A. Metformin
B. Sitagliptin
C. Glipizide
D. Empagliflozin

C. Albuterol

78. Which bronchodilator is commonly used as a rescue inhaler?

A. Fluticasone
B. Salmeterol
C. Albuterol
D. Tiotropium

C. Lisinopril

79. Which of the following can cause a dry, persistent cough?

A. Losartan
B. Amlodipine
C. Lisinopril
D. Hydrochlorothiazide

D. Lithium level

80. What lab should be monitored in patients on lithium?

A. TSH
B. INR
C. Potassium
D. Lithium level

A. Sertraline

81. Which medication is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)?

A. Sertraline
B. Amitriptyline
C. Venlafaxine
D. Haloperidol

C. Increased suicide risk

82. What is the black box warning for antidepressants in young adults?

A. Renal failure
B. Weight gain
C. Increased suicide risk
D. Tachycardia

A. Flumazenil

83. Which drug is used to reverse benzodiazepine overdose?

A. Flumazenil
B. Naloxone
C. Atropine
D. Activated charcoal

D. Naproxen

84. Which anti-inflammatory drug increases bleeding risk?

A. Acetaminophen
B. Ibuprofen
C. Celecoxib
D. Naproxen

C. Vitamin B12

85. Which vitamin deficiency can result from chronic metformin use?

A. Vitamin D
B. Folate
C. Vitamin B12
D. Niacin

D. Polyethylene glycol

86. Which laxative is considered an osmotic agent?

A. Senna
B. Bisacodyl
C. Docusate
D. Polyethylene glycol

C. Phenytoin

87. Which antiepileptic drug is associated with gingival overgrowth?

A. Carbamazepine
B. Valproate
C. Phenytoin
D. Topiramate

B. Zolpidem

88. Which sedative is commonly used for short-term insomnia?

A. Diazepam
B. Zolpidem
C. Lorazepam
D. Buspirone

C. Inhibit bone resorption

89. What is the mechanism of action of bisphosphonates?

A. Inhibit osteoblasts
B. Stimulate parathyroid hormone
C. Inhibit bone resorption
D. Increase vitamin D levels

B. Ondansetron

90. Which antiemetic works by blocking serotonin receptors?

A. Metoclopramide
B. Ondansetron
C. Promethazine
D. Prochlorperazine

D. Haloperidol

91. Which antipsychotic is associated with extrapyramidal symptoms?

A. Olanzapine
B. Risperidone
C. Clozapine
D. Haloperidol

B. Headache

92. What is the most common side effect of nitroglycerin?

A. Bradycardia
B. Headache
C. Chest pain
D. Diarrhea

C. Folic acid

93. Which vitamin is given with methotrexate to reduce toxicity?

A. Vitamin B12
B. Vitamin D
C. Folic acid
D. Vitamin C

C. Acetaminophen

94. Which analgesic is safest in patients with peptic ulcer disease?

A. Ibuprofen
B. Aspirin
C. Acetaminophen
D. Naproxen

B. Hyperkalemia

95. Which electrolyte imbalance can occur with ACE inhibitors?

A. Hypernatremia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hypoglycemia

C. Succinimides

96. What class of drug is used to treat absence seizures?

A. SSRIs
B. Calcium channel blockers
C. Succinimides
D. Benzodiazepines

C. Macrolides

97. Which drug class can cause QT prolongation?

A. Beta blockers
B. SSRIs
C. Macrolides
D. Penicillins

B. Antihistamine

98. What type of drug is loratadine?

A. Antidepressant
B. Antihistamine
C. Antibiotic
D. Antipsychotic

A. Levodopa

99. Which drug is a dopamine precursor used in Parkinson's disease?

A. Levodopa
B. Donepezil
C. Gabapentin
D. Selegiline

B. Buprenorphine

100. Which opioid is considered partial agonist/antagonist?

A. Fentanyl
B. Buprenorphine
C. Hydromorphone
D. Codeine