Immuno Final

Why does active immunity produce long-term immunity better than passive immunity?

a. Active immunity always leads to having the illness though in a milder form than an unvaccinated individual.
b. During active immunity, antigens for the disease are presented to the immune system through classical antigen presentation mechanisms, so an active B-cell response and immunologic memory develop.
c. All of the answers are correct.
d. Antibodies do not produce long-term immunity because they break down after two weeks.
e. Long-term storage of antibodies maintains vaccine integrity; however, antigens cannot be stored long term.

Why does active immunity produce long-term immunity better than passive immunity?

a. Active immunity always leads to having the illness though in a milder form than an unvaccinated individual.
b. During active immunity, antigens for the disease are presented to the immune system through classical antigen presentation mechanisms, so an active B-cell response and immunologic memory develop.
c. All of the answers are correct.
d. Antibodies do not produce long-term immunity because they break down after two weeks.
e. Long-term storage of antibodies maintains vaccine integrity; however, antigens cannot be stored long term.

b. During active immunity, antigens for the disease are presented to the immune system through classical antigen presentation mechanisms, so an active B-cell response and immunologic memory develop.

Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes produce exotoxins known as superantigens that bind to a site on the TCR that is outside the antigen-specific TCR binding site.

False

True

True

Immunofluorescence-based imaging

a. allows fine-scale visualization of subcellular localization.
b. can take advantage of molecules that do not need antibodies to bind targets.
c. has been simplified by genetic engineering to tag GFP onto target proteins.
d. has been enhanced by the availability of multiple dyes.
e. All of the answers are correct.

e. All of the answers are correct.

Acquired fungal immunity is supported by

a. multiple antifungals and vaccines that are available.
b. TNF- and TC production.
c. TH1 and IFN- production.
d. normal flora species that produce new antimicrobial compounds.
e. plasma-cell and memory B-cell activation.

c. TH1 and IFN- production.

Which of the following diseases would be the BEST candidate for an intranasal vaccine?

a. Malaria

b. Norovirus

c. Leishmania

d. Parainfluenza

e. S. aureus

d. Parainfluenza

Which of the following choices are true about the dyes fluorescein and rhodamine?

They emit visible light in response to ultraviolet radiation.
They are observed in the fluorescent microscope.
They can be used to label antibodies in immunofluorescence tests.
They are used to identify pathogens of chlamydiosis, Legionnaires' disease, and others.
All of these choices are correct.

All of these choices are correct.

A rising antibody titer a few days apart indicates

the patient had a past case of the disease.
the patient has a current infection.
nothing, people always have antibodies in their serum.
All of these choices are correct.

the patient has a current infection.

The property of a test to detect even small amounts of antibodies or antigens that are test targets is

precipitation.
specificity.
sensitivity.
agglutination.
cross-reactions.

sensitivity.

Serotyping of the pneumococcus based on capsular polysaccharide is performed in

Ouchterlony double diffusion.
Western Blot.
the Quellung test.
radioimmunoassay (RIA).
immunelectrophoresis.

the Quellung test.

Which of the following is involved in the in vitro diagnostic testing of serum?

hematology

histology

serology

virology

mycology

serology

An example of artificial passive immunity would be

a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.
giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.

giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.

Plasma cells

activate B-cells and other T-cells.
directly destroy target cells.
suppress immune reactions.
function in allergic reactions.
secrete antibodies.

secrete antibodies.

Variolation involved using

preparations of human cowpox lesions.
antibodies to the smallpox virus.
dried, ground smallpox scabs.
a recombinant carrier with genetic material of the smallpox virus.

dried, ground smallpox scabs.

All of the following are correct about the indirect ELISA, except

a known antigen is adsorbed to the surface of a well.

it can detect antibodies in a serum sample.

it is the common screening test for antibodies to Hepatitis A.

color development indicates that antibody was not present in the patient's serum.

it is the common screening test for antibodies to Helicobacter.

color development indicates that antibody was not present in the patient's serum.

Post-exposure prophylaxis for rabies includes shots of HRIG (human rabies immune globulin) and rabies vaccine. The HRIG provides ________ whereas the vaccine promotes the development of ________.

natural passive immunity; artificial passive immunity
artificial passive immunity; natural active immunity
artificial active immunity; artificial passive immunity
artificial active immunity; natural active immunity
artificial passive immunity; artificial active immunity

artificial passive immunity; artificial active immunity

In B cell selection and tolerance, if no signal is generated from ________ cells, the B cells remain unresponsive.

TC
TH
B7
CD28

TH

Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increased titer of antibody when the immune system is subsequently exposed to the same antigen?

complement fixation
opsonization
agglutination
neutralization
anamnestic response

anamnestic response

Live, attenuated vaccines

include the Sabin polio vaccine.
contain viable microbes that can multiply in the person.
include the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR).
require smaller doses and fewer boosters compared to inactivated vaccines.
All of these choices are correct.

All of these choices are correct.

The property of a test to detect only a certain antibody or antigen, and not to react with any others, is

cross-reactions.
specificity.
sensitivity.
precipitation.
agglutination.

specificity.

Which antibody confers the most important specific local immunity to enteric, respiratory, and genitourinary pathogens?

IgM
IgA
IgG
IgE
IgD

IgA

A physician orders an antistreptolysin O (ASO) titer test to check for rheumatic fever. A patient serum sample is exposed to known suspensions of streptolysin and then allowed to incubate with RBCs. If the patient does have rheumatic fever, what will happen?

The red blood cells will fluoresce.
Not enough information is provided to speculate.
The red blood cells will agglutinate only.
The red blood cells will lyse.
The red blood cells will not lyse.

The red blood cells will not lyse.

Which are the first to attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells?

delayed hypersensitivity T-cells
helper T-cells
natural killer (NK) cells
suppressor T-cells
cytotoxic T-cells

natural killer (NK) cells

Which of the following is incorrect regarding the complement fixation test?

Hemolysis of the sheep red blood cells occurs in a positive test result.

First antigen and antibody are allowed to react.

Purified complement proteins are added to the antigen-antibody tube.

Sheep red blood cells are added to the antigen-antibody-complement mixture.

Hemolysis of the sheep red blood cells occurs in a positive test result.

Infants acquire natural passive immunity from maternal antibodies transferred across the placenta or in breast milk.

True
False

True

All of the following are advantages of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines except

they can mutate back to a virulent strain.

they require smaller doses.

they require fewer boosters.

they produce infection but not disease.

they confer longer lasting protection.

they can mutate back to a virulent strain.

Which test is used to measure the IgE present in allergic patients?

ELISA
Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) test
RIST
fluorescent antibody tests
Weil-Felix reaction

RIST

Cody is 4 months old and is given a DTaP injection by his pediatrician as part of the routine immunization schedule. What type of immunity will develop as a result of this?

artificial passive immunity
artificial active immunity
natural passive immunity
natural active immunity

artificial active immunity

A serum containing antigen-specific antibodies is called an

antiantigen.
antiserum.
antitoxin.
anticoagulase.

antiserum

In the primary response to an antigen, the first class of antibody to be secreted is

IgA.
IgM.
IgG.
IgE.
IgD.

IgM.

Antibodies are found in

mucosal secretions.
serum.
milk.
milk, mucosal secretions, and serum.

milk, mucosal secretions, and serum.

The Widal test is used for diagnosing salmonellosis.

True
False

True

All of the following are methods to diagnose viral infections, except

signs and symptoms.

detection of viral nucleic acid using specific probes.

Western Blot.

cells taken from patient are examined for evidence of viral infection.

the light microscope.

the light microscope.

In ________ immunity, an individual makes their own antibodies in response to antigen exposure, whereas in ________ immunity, an individual receives antibodies made by another individual(s).

natural; active
artificial; active
active; passive
natural; artificial
passive; active

active; passive

Sam works in construction and stepped on a sharp nail. He can't remember the last time he had a tetanus shot. What type of immunity is the most important for him to receive?

artificial passive immunity

natural passive immunity

artificial active immunity

natural active immunity

artificial passive immunity

Some activated B cells are transformed into ________ cells that secrete antibodies, and others remain as ________ cells.

immunoglobulin / TH
immunoglobulin / plasma
plasma / memory B
lymphocytes / memory B

plasma / memory B

Edward Jenner's work involved

immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more pathogenic one.
development of passive immunotherapy.
inoculation of dried pus from smallpox pustules into a person to stimulate immunity.
development of an immunization to protect people against cowpox.
All of these choices are correct.

immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more pathogenic one.

Vaccinia virus is often used in the technique to make

gamma globulin.
antibodies to toxin.
adjuvant.
booster.
"Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine.

"Trojan horse" recombinant vaccine.

Reliable vaccines exist for all of the following diseases except

rabies.

yellow fever.

cholera.

botulism.

malaria.

botulism.

In lab, a student observes some dull, wrinkled brown colonies growing on their agar. They Gram stain the sample and observe single bacilli. Their blood agar does not reveal any hemolysis while their MSA has growth and fermentation. Using the following table and the given observations, determine which microorganism this would most likely be.

B. subtilis

E. coli

B. cereus

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

B. subtilis

Re-emerging infectious diseases present a major problem worldwide. What actions can be taken to prevent the spread of re-emerging infectious diseases such as whooping cough (Bordetella pertussis)?

a. All of the answers are good preventive actions.

b. Maintain rigorous vaccination programs for all healthy individuals.

c. Ensure proper precautions during travel, especially for airborne pathogens.

d. Create new antibiotics, antifungals, and antivirals to treat existing strains of pathogen and limit development of multidrug resistances.

e. Provide herd immunity during outbreaks.

a. All of the answers are good preventive actions.

Affixing antigen to an inert particle such as a latex bead is sometimes used in which type of test?

precipitation
specificity
cross-reactions
sensitivity
agglutination

agglutination

Soluble antigens are detected in which type of test?

cross-reactions
precipitation
specificity
agglutination
sensitivity

precipitation

Which of the following is NOT considered to be a newly emerging infectious disease?

a. Ebola

b. Multidrug-resistant tuberculosis

c. SARS

d. West Nile

e. Legionnaires disease (Legionella)

b. Multidrug-resistant tuberculosis

Precipitation tests involve all of the following, except

they include the VDRL test for syphilis.
they rely on formation of visible clumps for detection.
a cloudy or opaque zone developing where antigen and antibody react.
they can be done in a test tube by carefully adding antiserum over antigen solution.
they are often performed in agar gels.

they rely on formation of visible clumps for detection.

Which test uses radioactive isotopes to label antibodies or antigens in order to detect minute amounts of corresponding antigen or antibody?

the Quellung test
immunelectrophoresis
Ouchterlony double diffusion
radioimmunoassay (RIA)
Western Blot

radioimmunoassay (RIA)

Sputum is obtained by

a clean catch urine sample.
a spinal tap above the chest.
a throat swab.
the patient coughing up mucus from the lower respiratory system.
swabbing the mouth to sample saliva.

the patient coughing up mucus from the lower respiratory system.

Which of the following is the BEST example of herd immunity?

a. When infection spreads through a population, certain individuals generate stronger immune responses than others.
b. Certain populations of cattle are less susceptible to infection with encephalitis because of their genetic makeup.
c. A child infected with measles travels from Germany to the United States. Several babies contract the disease, but the outbreak is largely contained due to vaccinations.
d. Geese and chickens are infected with different strains of influenza because they express different receptors on their cell surface.
e. Once a certain threshold of individuals has been infected with a novel human pathogen, it is unlikely that any more will be.

c. A child infected with measles travels from Germany to the United States. Several babies contract the disease, but the outbreak is largely contained due to vaccinations.

Why is peripheral tolerance critical to barrier immunity?

a. None of the answers explains why peripheral tolerance is critical to barrier immunity.
b. Because it both counters inappropriate activation, and overactivation can lead to chronic inflammation and disease.
c. Because it counters inappropriate activation.
d. Because microbes that colonize areas like the skin and intestines are not harmful.
e. Because overactivation can lead to chronic inflammation and disease.

b. Because it both counters inappropriate activation, and overactivation can lead to chronic inflammation and disease

Immunoprecipitation does NOT

a. take place in gel matrices.
b. All of the answers are characteristics of immunoprecipitation.
c. require the use of a monoclonal antibody.
d. work well in solution.
e. allow characterization of molecules bound to cells.

c. require the use of a monoclonal antibody.

Monoclonal antibodies make effective research tools because

a. they are produced by transformed cells and, therefore, can be produced in large quantities.
b. their cross-reactivity can be well characterized.
c. as products of a single B cell, they all have the same specificity.
d. All of the answers are correct.
e. their specificity is stable over time.

d. All of the answers are correct.

In the United States, every clinical and research institution requires that workers be protected from ________ that is contracted almost exclusively from handling patient specimens (rather than from known exposure or accidents).

hepatitis B
anthrax
influenza
drug-resistant mycobacteria

hepatitis B

Which of these is often used as a prophylactic measure to protect a person against future attack by a pathogen?

artificial passive immunity
vaccination
antiserum injection
None of these are correct.

vaccination

Which of the following immunogens is MOST effective as a vaccine?

chemically inactivated bacteria
dead virus
toxoid
live virus

live virus

The DTaP immunization

contains tetanus toxoid.
contains a pertussis vaccine with acellular capsule material.
is administered in childhood.
contains diphtheria toxoid.
All of these choices are correct.

All of these choices are correct.

High titers of specific antibodies are components of

immune serum globulin (ISG).
attenuated vaccines.
specific immune globulin (SIG).
gamma globulin.
toxoids.

specific immune globulin (SIG).

Which of the following can be used in creating a vaccine?

recombinant proteins
inactivated viruses
attenuated bacteria
attenuated bacteria, inactivated viruses, or recombinant proteins

attenuated bacteria, inactivated viruses, or recombinant proteins

Cells that can engulf foreign particles, and can ingest, kill, and digest most bacterial pathogens are called

reticulocytes.
red blood cells.
phagocytes.
resistant cells.

phagocytes.

The tuberculin skin test looks to identify ________ specific to Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

antibodies

delayed hypersensitive (DTH) TH1 cells

delayed hypersensitive (DTH) TC cells

antigens

delayed hypersensitive (DTH) TH1 cells

Toxoids

contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses.
contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules.
confer passive immunity.
are always genetically engineered.
All of these choices are correct.

contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules.

Primary and secondary antibody response differ in all the following ways, except

the lag period between antigen stimulation and antibody response is shorter in the secondary response.
IgG production predominates in secondary responses.
the rate of antibody production is faster in primary responses than in secondary responses.
primary responses are active whereas secondary responses are passive.

primary responses are active whereas secondary responses are passive.

Why are secondary or "booster" reimmunizations given?

Secondary immunizations are necessary for an innate immune response.
Secondary reimmunizations produce a phagocytic immune response that is longer lasting than the primary immune response.
Frequent secondary reimmunizations are needed because the immune system doesn't remember antigens for more than a few years.
Secondary reimmunizations produce a secondary immune response and boost antibody titers.

Secondary reimmunizations produce a secondary immune response and boost antibody titers.

Which test is the confirming test for people who initially tested antibody-positive in the screening ELISA test?

Western Blot
immunelectrophoresis
the Quellung test
radioimmunoassay (RIA)
Ouchterlony double diffusion

Western Blot

In class switching in the secondary antibody response, the most common antibody switch is from

IgD to IgE.
IgA to IgD.
IgM to IgG.
None of the answers are correct.

IgM to IgG.

The first cell type active in the innate response is usually a(n)

fibroblast.
antibody.
erythrocyte.
phagocyte.

phagocyte.

Whole antigens are detected in which type of test?

precipitation
sensitivity
cross-reactions
agglutination
specificity

agglutination

Which infectious disease is the BEST example of "original antigenic sin?"

a. Measles
b. HIV
c. Toxoplasma
d. Influenza
e. Tapeworms

d. Influenza

An attenuated strain of a pathogen

is more virulent than the regular strains and may cause septic shock.
is an extracellular pathogen that will be cleared by innate immunity.
has lost its virulence, but may be used to create a vaccine.
has changed its antigens to avoid an adaptive immune response.

has lost its virulence, but may be used to create a vaccine.

Maggie was told she has a positive titer to measles. Which of the following could explain this?

The test was a false positive.
She was vaccinated against measles.
She has measles now.
She had measles sometime in her life.
All of these choices are correct.

All of these choices are correct.

Sleeping sickness and Chagas's disease are caused by members of the genus Trypanosoma, protozoans that reside in the bloodstream. What is the principle way trypanosomes evade the immune response?

a. Trypanosomes are human pathogens and thus immune to human immune responses.

b. Vaccines are readily available to people in trypanosome infested areas.

c. Antagonistic cytokines are produced by the trypanosome.

d. Periodic changes in the surface antigen (VSG) of trypanosomes ensures that at least some cells will survive antibody mediated attacks.

e. Trypanosomes invade the brain and red blood cells so that immune effector cells such as macrophages and dendritic cells cannot phagocytize trypanosomes.

d. Periodic changes in the surface antigen (VSG) of trypanosomes ensures that at least some cells will survive antibody mediated attacks.

ELISPOT assays

a. are used to detect individual cells.
b. both involve the use of "capture" antibodies and are used to detect individual cells.
c. are modifications of Western blotting.
d. involve the use of "capture" antibodies.
e. both involve the use of "capture" antibodies and are modifications of Western blotting.

b. both involve the use of "capture" antibodies and are used to detect individual cells.

Immunohistochemistry and immunocytochemistry do NOT share which of the following characteristics?

a. Use of antibodies to recognize specific targets.
b. Use of enzymes to amplify the signal.
c. Use of irrelevant proteins, such as milk, to reduce nonspecific binding.
d. Use of detergent to permeabilize the membrane.
e. They do share all of these characteristics.

d. Use of detergent to permeabilize the membrane.

Mary had an accidental needlestick one night during her shift as an emergency medical technician. Initially, she tested positive for HIV by the ELISA test. Which test would be done next to confirm an HIV infection?

immunoelectrophoresis
Ouchterlony
radioimmunoassay
complement fixation
Western Blot

Western Blot

What type of vaccine would be MOST effective against tuberculosis, a disease that requires a strong CD4+ T-cell response?

a. Toxoid
b. Live attenuated
c. Inactivated
d. DNA
e. Subunit

b. Live attenuated

A disadvantage of using an attenuated live microbe in a vaccine is that it can conceivably mutate back to a virulent strain.

True
False

True

The disk-diffusion test is used for

the identification of Escherichia coli.

the detection of antigen.

the identification of viral plaques.

assessing antimicrobial activity.

assessing antimicrobial activity.

Helper T-cells

suppress immune reactions.
directly destroy target cells.
secrete antibodies.
function in allergic reactions.
activate B-cells and other T-cells.

activate B-cells and other T-cells.

All of the following are characteristics of an effective vaccine except

it should stimulate only the antibody (B-cell) response.

it should protect against wild forms of the pathogen.

it should not require numerous boosters.

it should have a relatively long shelf life.

it should be easy to administer.

it should stimulate only the antibody (B-cell) response.

An example of artificial active immunity would be

chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.
giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.

chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.

TH cells express a ________ protein coreceptor.

CD12
T cell receptin
CD4
CD8

CD4

A toxoid is an attenuated form of a toxin that retains both its antigenicity and toxicity.

True
False

False

DNA vaccines are bacterial plasmids that contain cloned DNA with an antigen of interest are unlike attenuated vaccines because there is no chance of causing disease.

True
False

True

When serum proteins are separated by electrophoresis and then antibodies specific for the serum proteins are placed in a parallel trough in order to form reaction arcs for each protein, the test is called

the Quellung test.
radioimmunoassay (RIA).
immunoelectrophoresis.
Ouchterlony double diffusion.
Western Blot.

immunoelectrophoresis.

Which of the following is a distinct advantage of active immunity over passive immunity?

Active immunity develops very quickly whereas passive immunity may take months to develop.
Active immunity provides IgG whereas passive immunity provides IgM.
Active immunity enables the development of immunologic memory, whereas no memory develops with passive immunity.
Active immunity is always natural whereas passive immunity is frequently artificial.

Active immunity enables the development of immunologic memory, whereas no memory develops with passive immunity.

Which of the following is recognized by the innate immune system and triggers an immune response that will produce antiviral cytokines and trigger effector molecules?

a. TNF-
b. Complement
c. IL-2
d. PAMPs
e. IgA

d. PAMPs

The more a sample can be diluted and yet still react with antigen, the ________ the concentration of antibodies in that sample and the ________ is its titer.

higher; higher
higher; lower
lower; lower
lower; higher

higher; higher

Which of the following is an example of a passive immunization?

a. Antibodies against rabies given to someone who was bitten by a potentially rabid dog.
b. Live viral antigen given on a sugar cube to protect against polio.
c. None of the answers are correct.
d. Heat-killed flu antigen grown in chicken eggs.
e. All of the answers are correct.

a. Antibodies against rabies given to someone who was bitten by a potentially rabid dog.

An example of natural passive immunity would be

chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox.
a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.
giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.
chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.

a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.

Antitoxins

contain antibodies to neutralize specific toxin.
contain purified, chemically denatured bacterial exotoxin.
use vaccinia virus with genetic material of bacterial toxins.
contain attenuated organisms.
include capsule material against the pneumococcus and meningococcus.

contain antibodies to neutralize specific toxin.

Test systems involving which of the following has greatly improved the specificity of immunological tests?

Enzymes
Monoclonal antibodies
Radioactivity
Electronics
All of these choices are correct.

Monoclonal antibodies

In the secondary response to an antigen, the predominant antibody is

IgD.
IgM.
IgG.
IgE.
IgA.

IgG.

A serum titer involves

determining the highest dilution of antigen that produces a visible reaction.
the Western Blot method.
determining the lowest dilution of serum that produces a visible reaction.
serially diluting a serum sample.

serially diluting a serum sample.

Tests that take place in the lab, such as in a test tube or Petri-dish, outside of a living host, are referred to as ________ whereas tests that take place in a living host, such as in a patient, are described as ________.

In loco; In vitro

In loco; In vivo

In vitro; In loco

In vitro; In vivo

In vitro; In vivo

Immunoprecipitation can be used

a. with secondary antibodies to ascertain protein-protein interactions.
b. with Western blotting to assess its efficiency.
c. with Western blotting to determine protein abundance.
d. All of the answers are correct.
e. to purify proteins.

d. All of the answers are correct.

The major histocompatibility complex is also called the

human leukocyte antigen (HLA).
toll-like receptor complex.
T cell receptor.
T cell receptor or toll-like receptor.

human leukocyte antigen (HLA).

The life-threatening condition that may develop during a type I hypersensitivity reaction is called

stroke.
anaphylaxis.
septic shock.
toxic shock.

anaphylaxis

All of the following are correct about Type O blood, except

persons with this type of blood are considered universal donors.

this is the most common blood type among all racial groups in the U.S.

persons with this type of blood have anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their plasma.

persons with this type of blood carry an O antigen on their RBC.

persons with this type of blood carry an O antigen on their RBC.

A female who is Rh+

is at risk for a pregnancy resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn.
inherited two recessive genes.
is in the majority of the population with regard to Rh status.
can only have an Rh positive baby.
All of these choices are correct.

is in the majority of the population with regard to Rh status.

All of the following are characteristics of IgM, except

it has 10 antigen binding sites.

it can fix complement.

it is a dimer.

it is the first class synthesized by a plasma cell.

it contains a central J chain.

it is a dimer.

Which is mismatched?

serum sickness - Type 3 hypersensitivity

food allergy - Type 1 hypersensitivity

transfusion reaction - Type 2 hypersensitivity

hay fever - Type 4 hypersensitivity

poison ivy dermatitis - Type 4 hypersensitivity

hay fever - Type 4 hypersensitivity

Human blood types involve all the following, except

inheritance of two of three possible alleles.

MHC genes.

genes that code for an enzyme that adds a terminal carbohydrate to RBC receptors.

genetically determined glycoprotein markers.

ABO antigen markers.

MHC genes.