MRAD 4218 Module 3-6 MCQ and Radiographic Appearances

4. Which of the following is a direct result of biliary calculi according to the provided notes?

A. Hemolysis of red blood cells

B. Reduction in hepatic metabolism

C. Back-up of bilirubin into the bloodstream

D. Viral hepatitis

✅ Answer

C. Back-up of bilirubin into the bloodstream

Explanation: Biliary calculi can obstruct bile flow, preventing bile excretion and causing bilirubin to back up into the blood.

5. What is the common physiological outcome shared by all three types of jaundice mentioned?

A. Inability of the gallbladder to store bile

B. Retention of bilirubin in the blood

C. Viral damage to liver tissue

D. Dilation of hepatobiliary ducts

✅ Answer

B. Retention of bilirubin in the blood

Explanation: All three types result in excess bilirubin remaining in the blood, leading to jaundice.

6. A patient with liver cirrhosis presents with jaundice. What is the most likely mechanism involved?

A. Increased RBC destruction

B. Gallstones blocking the bile ducts

C. Reduced ability of the liver to metabolize bilirubin

D. Overproduction of bile

✅ Answer

C. Reduced ability of the liver to metabolize bilirubin

Explanation: Cirrhosis damages liver tissue, reducing its ability to metabolize bilirubin, leading to hepatic jaundice.

7. Which condition is least likely to be classified as obstructive jaundice?

A. Hepatic cirrhosis

B. Gallbladder stones

C. Narrowing of hepatobiliary ducts

D. Diseased liver blocking bile flow

✅ Answer

A. Hepatic cirrhosis

Explanation: Cirrhosis causes hepatic jaundice, which is non-obstructive. The others cause obstruction-induced jaundice.

8. A patient presents with yellowing of the eyes and skin, but radiographic imaging does not reveal biliary duct blockage. Which type(s) of jaundice should be considered?

A. Only hepatic jaundice

B. Only obstruction-induced jaundice

C. Hemolytic or hepatic jaundice

D. None, as jaundice always has an obstructive cause

✅ Answer

C. Hemolytic or hepatic jaundice

Explanation: These two are non-obstructive causes of jaundice and can occur without visible duct blockage on imaging.

9. According to the pathogenesis, what is the shared outcome between hemolytic and hepatic jaundice that contributes to jaundice development?

A. Gallbladder stones

B. Impaired bile duct drainage

C. Bilirubin accumulation in the bloodstream

D. Liver enlargement

✅ Answer

C. Bilirubin accumulation in the bloodstream

Explanation: Both types result in an excess of bilirubin remaining in the bloodstream due to different mechanisms.

10. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in treating a patient presenting with jaundice based on the provided content?

A. Perform gallbladder removal

B. Administer liver transplant

C. Identify the underlying pathology and treat accordingly

D. Begin phototherapy immediately

✅ Answer

C. Identify the underlying pathology and treat accordingly

Explanation: Treatment must be based on identifying the specific cause of jaundice (hemolytic, hepatic, or obstructive).

1. What is the most common composition of gallstones in affected patients?

A. Pure bilirubin

B. Cholesterol, bilirubin, and calcium salts

C. Calcium phosphate and bile acids

D. Bilirubin and iron salts

✅ Answer

B. Cholesterol, bilirubin, and calcium salts

Explanation: Cholesterol stones, the most common type (~75%), are composed of cholesterol, bilirubin, and calcium salts.

2. What factor determines the color of cholesterol gallstones?

A. Bilirubin concentration

B. Calcium content

C. Cholesterol concentration

D. Gallbladder wall thickness

✅ Answer

C. Cholesterol concentration

Explanation: Cholesterol stones appear yellow-green due to the higher amount of cholesterol.

3. Which patient profile is most commonly associated with cholelithiasis?

A. Young male, underweight, non-diabetic

B. Female, over 40, obese, fertile

C. Male, physically active, low-fat diet

D. Elderly female with anemia

✅ Answer

B. Female, over 40, obese, fertile

Explanation: "Fat, female, forty, fertile" is a classic risk profile.

4. What is the hallmark CT sign of calcified gallstones?

A. Target sign

B. Ring shadow

C. Mercedes sign

D. Double duct sign

✅ Answer

C. Mercedes sign

Explanation: The Mercedes sign represents fissures within the gallstone, commonly seen on CT.

5. What imaging modality is the first choice for evaluating gallstones?

A. CT

B. MRI

C. X-ray

D. Ultrasound

✅ Answer

D. Ultrasound

Explanation: US is the modality of choice for detecting gallstones and biliary duct obstructions.

6. What term is used to describe multiple small gallstones?

A. Grit

B. Gravel

C. Mud

D. Sludge

✅ Answer

B. Gravel

Explanation: Small, multiple gallstones are referred to as "gravel."

7. What structure is obstructed in choledocholithiasis?

A. Hepatic artery

B. Common bile duct

C. Pancreatic duct

D. Cystic vein

✅ Answer

B. Common bile duct

Explanation: Choledocholithiasis refers to stones lodged in the common bile duct.

8. What is the main reason gallstones may become problematic after remaining asymptomatic?

A. Calcification

B. Weight gain

C. Obstruction of bile flow

D. High cholesterol diet

✅ Answer

C. Obstruction of bile flow

Explanation: Gallstones often cause problems only when they obstruct bile flow.

9. What happens when a migrating gallstone becomes stuck in the common hepatic duct?

A. Rapid calcification

B. Loss of appetite

C. Backup of bile into the liver and gallbladder

D. Liver regeneration

✅ Answer

C. Backup of bile into the liver and gallbladder

Explanation: Obstruction leads to bile backup, causing symptoms and potential jaundice.

10. Which type of gallstone is darker in appearance?

A. Calcium

B. Pigment

C. Cholesterol

D. Radiolucent

✅ Answer

B. Pigment

Explanation: Pigment stones are darker due to higher bilirubin concentration.

11. Which imaging technique is the most sensitive for detecting stones in the biliary tree?

A. MRI

B. Oral cholecystogram

C. ERCP

D. CT

✅ Answer

C. ERCP

Explanation: ERCP is both diagnostic and therapeutic and is the most sensitive.

12. What is a prerequisite for a patient to undergo shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL)?

A. Non-calcified stones only

B. Small stones and a functioning gallbladder

C. Large cholesterol stones only

D. No history of diabetes

✅ Answer

B. Small stones and a functioning gallbladder

Explanation: ESWL requires both small stone size and functional gallbladder to be effective.

13. Which of the following is a non-surgical interventional treatment for cholelithiasis?

A. Cholecystectomy

B. Oral bile acid therapy

C. ERCP

D. Open gallstone extraction

✅ Answer

C. ERCP

Explanation: ERCP is a non-surgical endoscopic method to remove stones from the bile ducts.

14. What does the RPO (right posterior oblique) abdominal position help differentiate?

A. Benign vs malignant stones

B. Renal vs biliary stones

C. Cholesterol vs pigment stones

D. Floating vs calcified stones

✅ Answer

B. Renal vs biliary stones

Explanation: In the RPO position, biliary stones move laterally, renal stones remain medial.

15. What is typically seen in patients when the liver can no longer store bilirubin due to stone obstruction?

A. RUQ pain and jaundice

B. Left-sided pain and vomiting

C. Hypotension and bradycardia

D. Increased appetite

✅ Answer

A. RUQ pain and jaundice

Explanation: Obstruction leads to backup of bile and bilirubin, causing jaundice and RUQ pain.

16. Which of the following statements about oral cholecystograms is TRUE?

A. They detect only calcified stones

B. They show buoyancy of stones

C. They are contraindicated in pigment stones

D. They cannot detect floating stones

✅ Answer

B. They show buoyancy of stones

Explanation: Oral cholecystograms help assess whether stones float or sink depending on their cholesterol content.

17. Which of the following is an expected finding in pigment stones compared to cholesterol stones?

A. Float in bile

B. Seen in majority of patients

C. Darker in radiographic appearance

D. Made mostly of calcium phosphate

✅ Answer

C. Darker in radiographic appearance

Explanation: Pigment stones have higher bilirubin, appearing darker.

18. What is the main reason gallstones form according to pathogenesis?

A. Infection

B. Hypersensitivity to bile

C. Unbalanced bile components forming sludge

D. Gallbladder wall thickening

✅ Answer

C. Unbalanced bile components forming sludge

Explanation: Imbalance causes components to precipitate and form sludge → stones.

19. Which of the following treatments has the highest recurrence rate for gallstones?

A. ERCP

B. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy

C. ESWL

D. Oral bile acid therapy

✅ Answer

C. ESWL

Explanation: ESWL may be useful, but it has a high recurrence rate if gallbladder remains.

20. A patient with gallstones and diabetes is most likely to present with

A. Pain in the LUQ and constipation

B. Asymptomatic stones

C. Jaundice due to pigment stone obstruction

D. Gallbladder cancer

✅ Answer: C. Jaundice due to pigment stone obstruction

Explanation: Diabetic patients are more likely to form pigment stones, which can obstruct and cause jaundice.

1. What is the most common cause of cholecystitis?

A. Viral infection

B. Idiopathic inflammation

C. Obstruction of the cystic duct by biliary stones

D. Excess bile acid production

✅ Answer

C. Obstruction of the cystic duct by biliary stones

Explanation: 95% of cases are due to obstruction caused by gallstones.

2. Which of the following is least likely to be useful in diagnosing cholecystitis?

A. CT

B. MRI

C. AXR

D. Ultrasound

✅ Answer

C. AXR

Explanation: AXR is not useful in diagnosis but may be done to rule out other pathologies.

3. What is the classification of cholecystitis based on the provided notes?

A. Infectious

B. Autoimmune

C. Obstructive

D. Inflammatory

✅ Answer

D. Inflammatory

Explanation: Cholecystitis is classified as an inflammatory condition.

4. What rare form of cholecystitis involves gas within the gallbladder wall?

A. Necrotizing cholecystitis

B. Emphysematous cholecystitis

C. Chronic calculous cholecystitis

D. Sclerosing cholecystitis

✅ Answer

B. Emphysematous cholecystitis

Explanation: This rare type occurs when gas-producing organisms are trapped within the bile.

5. Which imaging finding would most likely indicate emphysematous cholecystitis?

A. Fluid-filled gallbladder

B. Gas within the gallbladder or biliary ducts

C. Biliary sludge only

D. Absence of gallstones

✅ Answer

B. Gas within the gallbladder or biliary ducts

Explanation: Emphysematous cholecystitis shows gas due to gas-forming organisms.

6. Which symptom combination is most consistent with acute cholecystitis?

A. Epigastric pain, bloating, rash

B. RUQ pain, fever, nausea

C. LUQ pain, hypotension, confusion

D. Back pain, jaundice, fatigue

✅ Answer

B. RUQ pain, fever, nausea

Explanation: Classic signs include sudden pain, fever, and nausea

vomiting.

7. What is the most commonly used initial imaging modality for cholecystitis?

A. MRI

B. AXR

C. Ultrasound

D. ERCP

✅ Answer

C. Ultrasound

Explanation: US is the primary modality used for diagnosis.

8. Why does the gallbladder wall lose sharpness in CT imaging of acute cholecystitis?

A. Calcification

B. Edema

C. Shadowing from stones

D. Gas within the wall

✅ Answer

B. Edema

Explanation: Edema causes loss of definition in the gallbladder wall.

9. Which of the following findings on CT suggests cholecystitis?

A. Hepatic atrophy

B. Gallbladder shrinkage

C. Gallbladder distension with fat stranding

D. Normal pericholecystic fat

✅ Answer

C. Gallbladder distension with fat stranding

Explanation: Pericholecystic fat stranding and distension are typical findings.

10. What percentage of cholecystitis cases are idiopathic?

A. 95%

B. 50%

C. 10%

D. 5%

✅ Answer

D. 5%

Explanation: 5% of cases occur without known cause.

11. Which condition may result from repeated bouts of cholecystitis?

A. Gallbladder cancer

B. Gallbladder atrophy

C. Thickening and dysfunction of the gallbladder

D. Liver rupture

✅ Answer

C. Thickening and dysfunction of the gallbladder

Explanation: Repeated inflammation damages the walls and reduces function.

12. What feature on U

S indicates cholecystitis due to a trapped stone?

A. Free air in abdomen

B. Peristalsis

C. Biliary stone lodged in the cystic duct

D. Fatty liver

✅ Answer

C. Biliary stone lodged in the cystic duct

Explanation: This causes obstruction and is visible on ultrasound.

13. Which modality can detect air-fluid levels within the gallbladder?

A. AXR

B. CT

C. Ultrasound

D. ERCP

✅ Answer

B. CT

Explanation: CT can reveal both air and fluid in the gallbladder, especially in emphysematous cases.

14. What does pericholecystic fat stranding on imaging indicate?

A. Normal finding

B. Liver cirrhosis

C. Inflammatory process

D. Malignancy

✅ Answer

C. Inflammatory process

Explanation: Fat stranding signifies inflammation in adjacent tissues.

15. What treatment is typically indicated when medical management fails or complications arise?

A. Dietary changes only

B. ERCP with stenting

C. Surgical removal of gallbladder

D. High-dose steroids

✅ Answer

C. Surgical removal of gallbladder

Explanation: Cholecystectomy is the treatment of choice for definitive care.

16. What is the most definitive surgical treatment for cholecystitis?

A. ERCP

B. Biliary drainage

C. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy

D. Lithotripsy

✅ Answer

C. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy

Explanation: It's the gold standard for surgical treatment.

17. Which medical treatment is used for patients with infection due to cholecystitis?

A. Antacids

B. Laxatives

C. Antibiotics

D. Corticosteroids

✅ Answer

C. Antibiotics

Explanation: Infections are treated with antibiotics as part of conservative management.

18. Which patient is least suitable for ESWL?

A. Patient with functioning gallbladder

B. Patient with small gallstones

C. Patient unable to undergo surgery

D. Patient with severe wall necrosis

✅ Answer

D. Patient with severe wall necrosis

Explanation: Severe inflammation or necrosis requires surgical intervention.

19. Which of the following is a likely MRI finding in cholecystitis?

A. Gallbladder contraction

B. Thickened wall with pericholecystic edema

C. Shrunken liver

D. Portal vein thrombosis

✅ Answer

B. Thickened wall with pericholecystic edema

Explanation: MRI shows similar findings to CT, including wall thickening and edema.

20. Which of the following interventions may be performed when surgical removal is not possible?

A. HIDA scan

B. ERCP or ESWL

C. Endoscopy with biopsy

D. CT-guided ablation

✅ Answer

B. ERCP or ESWL

Explanation: ERCP and ESWL are non-surgical options for stone removal or management.

Which of the following is most directly responsible for the fluid accumulation seen in ascites?

A. Portal vein obstruction

B. Hypersplenism

C. Deficiency in albumin synthesis

D. Dehydration

✅ Answer

C. Deficiency in albumin synthesis

Explanation: Albumin holds fluid in the vessels. Without it, leakage into tissues occurs.

2. What type of classification does ascites fall under in medical pathology?

A. Neoplastic

B. Inflammatory

C. Degenerative

D. Infectious

✅ Answer

C. Degenerative

Explanation: Ascites is considered a degenerative manifestation due to liver failure and hypoalbuminemia.

3. Which organ is most associated with the visual displacement of the bowel due to ascites?

A. Kidney

B. Spleen

C. Liver

D. Pancreas

✅ Answer

C. Liver

Explanation: Ascitic fluid accumulation around the liver displaces the colon medially.

4. What is the key protein responsible for fluid retention within vessels?

A. Hemoglobin

B. Albumin

C. Bilirubin

D. Creatinine

✅ Answer

B. Albumin

Explanation: Albumin binds water and keeps it in the circulatory system.

5. What is the most definitive treatment for curing ascites?

A. Diuretics

B. Bed rest

C. Paracentesis

D. Liver transplant

✅ Answer

D. Liver transplant

Explanation: Ascites is incurable without correcting the underlying liver pathology.

6. What is typically seen on an abdominal X-ray of a patient with ascites?

A. Clear bowel margins

B. Liver shrinkage

C. Overall gray haziness

D. Gas patterns in the colon

✅ Answer

C. Overall gray haziness

Explanation: Fluid accumulation causes haziness due to the lack of contrast.

7. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding U

S and ascites?

A. It cannot detect fluid in early stages.

B. It is used only for post-treatment evaluation.

C. It can detect small fluid collections early.

D. It is only used in liver transplantation.

✅ Answer

C. It can detect small fluid collections early.

8. On CT, how is ascitic fluid typically visualized?

A. High-attenuating gray around the kidneys

B. Bright enhancement

C. Low-attenuating areas around organs

D. Nodular contrast enhancement

✅ Answer

C. Low-attenuating areas around organs

Explanation: Ascitic fluid appears as lower-density areas around abdominal structures.

9. Why might a patient with ascites experience shortness of breath (dyspnea)?

A. Low red blood cell count

B. Diaphragm elevation due to abdominal pressure

C. Collapsed lung

D. Pulmonary embolism

✅ Answer

B. Diaphragm elevation due to abdominal pressure

10. What secondary condition is often visualized with ascites on CT?

A. Nephrolithiasis

B. Portal vein thrombosis

C. Esophageal varices

D. Pancreatitis

✅ Answer

C. Esophageal varices

11. Which of the following is a palliative, but not curative, procedure for ascites?

A. Liver biopsy

B. Cholecystectomy

C. Paracentesis

D. Bowel resection

✅ Answer

C. Paracentesis

12. In which condition is ascites least likely to be seen?

A. Liver cirrhosis

B. Heart failure

C. Renal failure

D. Appendicitis

✅ Answer

D. Appendicitis

13. Which dietary advice is appropriate for ascites management?

A. High-fat intake

B. Increased alcohol

C. Low-salt diet

D. High-calcium diet

✅ Answer

C. Low-salt diet

14. What is the primary reason for bowel displacement on imaging of ascitic patients?

A. Tumor compression

B. Organ failure

C. Liver enlargement and fluid accumulation

D. Fatty deposits

✅ Answer

C. Liver enlargement and fluid accumulation

15. What additional imaging finding may support hepatic causes of ascites?

A. Splenomegaly

B. Duodenal ulcer

C. Kidney calcification

D. Gallbladder wall thickening

✅ Answer

A. Splenomegaly

16. What type of radiographic pattern is not expected in ascites?

A. Liver nodularity

B. Enlarged spleen

C. Peritoneal calcifications

D. Bowel displacement

✅ Answer

C. Peritoneal calcifications

17. Which modality is least useful for early detection of ascites?

A. CT

B. US

C. AXR

D. MRI

✅ Answer

C. AXR

18. Which of the following best describes the pathogenesis of ascites?

A. Portal hypertension causing vasoconstriction

B. Liver unable to convert bilirubin

C. Albumin deficiency leading to vascular leakage

D. Overhydration due to renal failure

✅ Answer

C. Albumin deficiency leading to vascular leakage

19. How does fluid accumulation in ascites affect liver structure on imaging?

A. Makes it more homogeneous

B. Causes it to vanish

C. Makes it enlarged or misshapen

D. Always normal

✅ Answer

C. Makes it enlarged or misshapen

20. What procedure is commonly guided by ultrasound for ascites relief?

A. Hepatectomy

B. Paracentesis

C. ERCP

D. Liver biopsy

✅ Answer

B. Paracentesis

1. What is the classification of cirrhosis based on the provided notes?

A. Inflammatory and infectious

B. Neoplastic and obstructive

C. Inflammatory and degenerative

D. Autoimmune and metabolic

✅ Answer

C. Inflammatory and degenerative

Explanation: Cirrhosis is both inflammatory (due to chronic liver injury) and degenerative (due to structural loss).

2. Which condition commonly leads to the development of cirrhosis after 10-20 years?

A. Viral hepatitis A

B. Diabetes mellitus

C. Chronic alcoholism

D. Cholecystitis

✅ Answer

C. Chronic alcoholism

3. What is the earliest reversible stage of liver disease before cirrhosis develops?

A. Jaundice

B. Hepatitis

C. Fatty liver

D. Ascites

✅ Answer

C. Fatty liver

Explanation: Fatty liver occurs first and can reverse with treatment. Continued damage leads to cirrhosis.

4. What type of tissue replaces hepatocytes in advanced cirrhosis?

A. Granulation tissue

B. Smooth muscle

C. Fibrous connective tissue

D. Cartilage

✅ Answer

C. Fibrous connective tissue

5. What appearance does the liver take on CT in cirrhosis?

A. Uniform and enlarged

B. Calcified and hyperdense

C. Nodular and shrunken

D. Smooth and hypodense

✅ Answer

C. Nodular and shrunken

6. What sign is associated with portal hypertension seen in cirrhosis?

A. Hepatomegaly

B. Pancreatic calcification

C. Esophageal varices

D. Kidney stones

✅ Answer

C. Esophageal varices

7. Which symptom is caused by the liver's inability to produce clotting factors?

A. Jaundice

B. Edema

C. Bruising and hemorrhage

D. Coma

✅ Answer

C. Bruising and hemorrhage

8. What hormone-related effect may be seen in cirrhosis due to lack of estrogen breakdown?

A. Fatty liver

B. Hepatic coma

C. Gynecomastia

D. Dehydration

✅ Answer

C. Gynecomastia

9. What causes ascites and peripheral edema in cirrhosis?

A. Hepatic vein thrombosis

B. Elevated ammonia

C. Decreased albumin synthesis

D. Portal vein rupture

✅ Answer

C. Decreased albumin synthesis

10. What structure is compressed in portal hypertension caused by cirrhosis?

A. Inferior vena cava

B. Cystic duct

C. Portal vein

D. Hepatic artery

✅ Answer

C. Portal vein

11. What can untreated cirrhosis eventually lead to?

A. Pancreatitis

B. Hepatocellular carcinoma

C. Cystic fibrosis

D. Appendicitis

✅ Answer

B. Hepatocellular carcinoma

12. What imaging modality is most useful for assessing progressive cirrhosis?

A. X-ray

B. MRI

C. CT

D. ERCP

✅ Answer

C. CT

13. What is the only curative treatment for end-stage cirrhosis?

A. Chemotherapy

B. Liver transplant

C. Paracentesis

D. Alcohol cessation

✅ Answer

B. Liver transplant

14. What symptom results from the liver's inability to filter toxins in advanced cirrhosis?

A. Ascites

B. Hepatic encephalopathy (confusion, tremors)

C. Gynecomastia

D. Jaundice

✅ Answer

B. Hepatic encephalopathy (confusion, tremors)

15. What is a TIPS procedure used to treat in cirrhotic patients?

A. Jaundice

B. Ascites

C. Portal hypertension

D. Gallstones

✅ Answer

C. Portal hypertension

16. What liver change is seen early in the development of cirrhosis?

A. Shrunken liver

B. Calcification

C. Enlargement (swelling)

D. Atrophy only

✅ Answer

C. Enlargement (swelling)

Explanation: Early regenerative response causes liver swelling before it degenerates.

17. What is the most common initial symptom of cirrhosis?

A. Coma

B. Sharp abdominal pain

C. Asymptomatic

D. Black stool

✅ Answer

C. Asymptomatic

18. What specific finding on ultrasound suggests cirrhosis?

A. Hyperechoic pancreas

B. Gallstones

C. Nodular liver surface

D. Enlarged kidneys

✅ Answer

C. Nodular liver surface

19. What does the difference in attenuation between liver and spleen on CT suggest?

A. Cyst

B. Cirrhosis

C. Liver abscess

D. Hepatic artery aneurysm

✅ Answer

B. Cirrhosis

Explanation: Normally liver and spleen have similar attenuation; cirrhotic liver becomes more hypodense.

20. Without a liver transplant, what is the average prognosis for cirrhotic patients?

A. Death within 1 year

B. Full recovery with medication

C. Death within 15 years

D. Lifetime survival with paracentesis

✅ Answer

C. Death within 15 years

What is the most common cause of hepatitis as outlined in your notes?

A. Alcoholism

B. Parasitic infection

C. Viral infection

D. Autoimmune condition

✅ Answer

C. Viral infection

2. Which type of hepatitis is self-limiting and most often acquired through contaminated food or water?

A. Hepatitis B

B. Hepatitis C

C. Hepatitis A

D. Hepatitis D

✅ Answer

C. Hepatitis A

3. Which form of hepatitis is considered mild, short-lived, and does not become chronic?

A. Hepatitis B

B. Hepatitis C

C. Hepatitis A

D. Hepatitis E

✅ Answer

C. Hepatitis A

4. Which hepatitis type is known for being the most common among healthcare workers?

A. Hepatitis A

B. Hepatitis B

C. Hepatitis C

D. Hepatitis D

✅ Answer

B. Hepatitis B

5. What percentage of patients with Hepatitis B recover without developing chronic disease?

A. 60%

B. 75%

C. 90%

D. 10%

✅ Answer

C. 90%

6. Hepatitis D cannot exist without which co-infection?

A. Hepatitis A

B. Hepatitis E

C. Hepatitis C

D. Hepatitis B

✅ Answer

D. Hepatitis B

7. What is the most common transmission method for Hepatitis C?

A. Contaminated food

B. Sexual contact

C. IV drug use

D. Inhalation

✅ Answer

C. IV drug use

8. Which hepatitis type is typically found in areas with poor sanitation and limited access to clean water?

A. Hepatitis B

B. Hepatitis D

C. Hepatitis E

D. Hepatitis C

✅ Answer

C. Hepatitis E

9. What form of hepatitis is most likely to become chronic and cause cirrhosis or hepatocellular carcinoma?

A. Hepatitis A

B. Hepatitis C

C. Hepatitis E

D. Hepatitis A and E

✅ Answer

B. Hepatitis C

10. What is the primary reason Hepatitis D is considered more severe than Hepatitis B alone?

A. It leads to liver cysts

B. It causes instant necrosis

C. The patient already has one viral infection

D. It causes pancreatitis

✅ Answer

C. The patient already has one viral infection