PSL 310 Exam 2 study questions

Which of the following is located entirely within the central nervous system?

a) afferent neurons

b) efferent neurons

c) internerons

d) A and B

e) A, B, and C

c

Which of the following is NOT required for a patellar tendon (knee-jerk) reflex?

a) afferent pathway

b) efferent pathway

c)effector

d) interneuron

e) receptor

d

The autonomic nervous system controls which of the following

a) smooth muscle

b) cardiac muscle

c) bot ha and b

d) neither a or b

c

which of the following requires a relay of 2 neurons to reach the effector?

a) autonomic nervous system

b) somatic neuron system

c) both a and b

d) neither a or b

a

Dual innervation is ____________________ for autonomic antagonism

a) usually not required

b) required

b

Which receptor type is located at the autonomic ganglia and on skeletal muscle?

a) muscarinic

b) nicotinic

c) Beta 1

d) alpha 1

e) none of these

b

The autonomic nervous system

a) is made up of motor neurons

b) exerts only excitatory effects on the organs it innervates

c) both a and b

d) neither a or b

a

Which division of the AND causes the "fight or flight" reaction?

a) sympathetic

b) parasympathetic

c) both a and b

d) neither a or b

a

Which of the following is a parasympathetic effect?

a) dilation of lung airways (tubes)

b) increased peristalsis in the GI tract

c) both a and b

d) neither a or b

b

Which of the following is a sympathetic effect?

a) adjustment for far vision

b) contrition of gut blood vessels

c) both a and b

d) neither a or b

a

The autonomic nervous system consists of ___________________ fibers.

a) efferent

b) afferent

a

Which of the following is the cholinergic receptor that is found on autonomic effector cell membranes?

a) alpha 1

b) beta 1

c) muscarinic

d) nicotinic

e) beta 2

c

All of the following are sympathetic effects (caused by increased sympathetic activity) EXCEPT

a) increased glucose release from the liver

b) adjustment for near vision

c) dilation of the pupil

d) dilation of lung tubes

b

An agonist binds to receptors but does not cause a response

a) True

b) False

b

Which of the following ins a monosynaptic reflex?

a) patellar tendon (knee-jerk) reflex ( a stretch reflex)

b) withdrawal reflex

c) both a and b

a

which of the following are NOT effectors?

a) a smooth muscle cells

b) skeletal muscle cells

c) cardiac muscle cells

d) receptors

e) glands

d

Which of the following neurons are adrenergic?

a) most preganglionic sympathetic

b) most preganglionic parasympathetic

c) most postganglionic sympathetic

d) most postganglionic parasympathetic

c

dual innervation and autonomic antagonist occur in ____________ organs of the body

a) all

b) many

c) none of the

b

causes the release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla

a) PS

b) symp

c) both

d) neither

b

increases GI tract tract peristalsis and intestinal gland secretions

a) PS

b) symp

c) both

d) neither

a

dilates the pupil

a) PS

b) symp

c) both

d) neither

b

A single motor neuron is required to reach the organs it innervates, so there is no synapse outside the central nervous system (CNS)

a) PS

b) symp

c) both

d) neither

d

which of the following is required for withdrawal reflex (flexor) but not for a patellar tendon (knee-jerk or stretch) reflex?

a) afferent neuron

b) efferent neuron

c) integrating center

d) effector

e) interneuron

e

A relay of two motor (efferent) neurons to reach the effector cells ( and a synapse outside the central nervous system) occurs in _____________ nervous system(s)

a) the somatic

b) the autonomic

c) the somatic and the autonomic

d) neither

b

Fibers of which of the following use(s) cranial nerves?

a) symp

b) PS

c) both

d) neither

b

The adrenal medulla

a) secretes mostly ACH

b) is modified preganglionic neurons

c) is an endocrine gland which secretes hormones into the blood

d) a and b

e) b and c

c

Which division of the autonomic nervous system is most responsible for "internal housekeeping" functions?

a)symp

b)PS

b

which of the following occurs with PS stimulation?

a) dilation of the pupil

b) adjustment for far vision

c) arrestor pili muscle contraction (goosebumps)

d)increased peristalsis in the GI tract

e) contract of sphincters in the GI tract

d

In the organs innervated by both divisions of the ANS, the two divisions typically have the same or very similar, effects on the organ

a) true

b) false

b

Atropine blocks ___________ receptors

a) alpha 1

b) beta 1

c) adrenergic

d) nicotinic

e) muscarinic

e

All of the following are associated with a withdrawal reflex EXCEPT

a) interneurons

b) reciprocal innervation

c) EPSP

d) IPSP

e) monosynaptic reflex

e

which of the following is a correct match?

a) Symp-craniosacral division

b) autonomic effector-skeletal muscle

c) adrenal medulla- modified preganglionic neurons

d) autonomic nervous system- efferent neurons

d

autonomic neurons synapse is

a) in the brain

b) in the spinal cord

c) in the ganglia (outside the CNS)

d) b and c

c

Because of dual innervation and autonomic antagonism, there is less precise or slower control over an organ than if one division of the autonomic nervous system innervated the organ

a) True

b) False

b

Which of the following increases peristalsis in the GI tract and causes relaxation ( decreases contraction) of the sphincters in the GI tract?

a) PS

b) Symp

c) PS and symp

d) neither

a

Which of the following is a cholingergic receptor?

a) alpha receptor

b) muscarinic receptor

c) both a and b

d) neither a or b

b

Adrenal medulla hormones _____________________ sympathetic neural effects (the effects of sympathetic neurons)

a) reinforce

b) oppose

a

The ANS is autonomous (or independent). There is conscious control over automatic functions or autonomic reflexes

a) true

b) false

b

All of the following are plasma proteins except

a) albumins

b) globulins

c) fibrinogen

d) bilirubin

d

In which person would you expect a higher than normal hematocrit?

a) person that lives in the mountains at very high altitudes

b) person that lives with chronic ( or continual) blood loss

c) both

d) neither

a

Which of the following statements about iron is NOT correct?

a) iron is found in the heme portion of the hemoglobin molecule

b) the iron of hemoglobin can bind oxygen

c) when old or damaged red blood cells are phagocytize, the iron of hemoglobin can be recycled (to the bone marrow) or stored in the liver

d) Iron deficiency (not enough dietary iron ) can cause anemia

e) the iron of hemoglobin is transformed into bile pigments

e

Erythopoietin

a) levels in the body would increase oxygen delivery to the kidney

b) is recreated primarily (mostly) from the red bone marrow

c) stimulates red blood cell production

d) is not a hormone

e) stimulated the kidney to begin erthyopoiesis

c

All of the other WBC are produced in the red bone marrow, but only some (not all) __________________ are produced in the red bone marrow

a) eosinophils

b) basophils

c) monocytes

d) lymphocytes

e) neutrophils

d

Which below is involved NOT in blood clotting, but in breaking down the clot after it is formed?

a) thrombin

b) fibrinogen

c) plasmin

d) prothrombin

e) active factor X

c

The hematocrit is the % of blood volume occupied by

a) plasma

b) the buffy coat

c) white blood cells and platelets

d) RBC

e) WBC

d

Which part of the hemoglobin is transformed into bile pigments?

a) globin

b) iron

c) heme (minus the iron)

d) all of the above

c

In which of the following would you expect a higher than normal hematocrit?

a) polycythemia

b) hemorrhagic anemia

c) both and a b

d) neither a nor b

a

Oxygen binds to the

a) the globulin part of hemoglobin

b) the iron atom of the heme

c) the heme (but not the iron atom)

b

which of the following descriptions concerning white blood cells is false?

a) basophils contain histamine

b) neutrophils are important phagocytes

c) lymphocytes are important in specific immune response

d) granulocytes are produced in and released from red bone marrow

e) eosinophils are transformed into macrophages in the tissues

e

The basic event in blood clotting is to change _______________ to _______________ which forms the mesh of the clot

a) fibrinogen, fibrin

b) thrombin, fibrin

c) fibrinogen, thrombin

d) prothrombin, thrombin

e) active factor X, fibrin

a

Living at high altitudes causes the hematocrit to be ___________ compared to normal

a) decreased

b) increased

b

___________________ changes fibrinogen to fibrin

a) plasmin

b) active factor x

c) thrombin

d) prothrombin

e) plasminogen

c

antibodies are included in which types of blood protein listed?

a) fibrinogen

b) globulins

c) albumins

b

if the hematocrit measured from a sample of centrifuged blood is 45 ( or 45%) then the volume occupied by _____________________ is 45% of the total blood volume

a) WBC

b) RBC

c) platelets

b

Which types of white blood cell leave the blood after a day or two and becomes a cell called macrophage

a) basophil

b) eosinophil

c) neutrophil

d) lymphocyte

e) monocyte

e

Which of the following is FALSE about erythropoietin?

a) erythropoietin is secreted from the kidney

b) erythropoietin secretion would normally decrease as a person travels to higher and higher altitudes

c) erythropoietin stimulates erythropoiesis

d) erythropoietin secretion increased after loss of blood

e) erythropoietin is a hormone

b

Which of the following is (are) invalid in hemostasis?

a) blood clotting

b) formation of a platelet plug

c) constriction of the injured vessel

d) a and b

e) a, b, c

e

Fibrinolysis occurs when plasmin changes fibrinogen to fibrin

true or false

false

Which of the following would NOT be a cause of anemia?

a) decreased erythropoietin b) excessive destruction of red blood cells

c) vitamin B 12 deficiency

d) bone marrow destruction (failure)

e) living at high altitudes

e

Vaccines

a) contain antigens

b) cause the production of memory cells

c) both

d) neither

c

What chemicals released by cells next to platelet plug forming in an injured vessel prevent the plug from continuing throughout the vessel?

a) thrombin and prothrombin

b) fibrinogen and fibrin

c) active x and thrombin

d) nitric oxide and prostacyclin

e) thrombin and fibrin

d

Which of the following would be a normal value for a hematocrit?

a) 20%

b) 25%

c) 45%

d) 80%

c

After birth, erthopoiesis occurs in the

a) kidney

b) liver

c) capillaries

d) bone marrow

e) spleen

d

Smooth muscle has

a) T tubules

b) myofilaments

c) both and b

d) neither

b

In smooth muscle, cross bridge cycling occurs (and myosin attaches to actin) due to a change in

a) actin

b) myosin

b

Pacemaker potentials occurs in

a) certain smooth muscle cells

b) certain cardiac muscle cells

c) both

d) neither

c

Cardiac muscle

a) has sarcomeres

b) is striated

c) both

d) neither

c

which of the following causes the cross bridge cycling of myosin to attach to actin in smooth muscle?

a) dephospho rylation of myosin by a phosphate

b) phosphorylation of myosin

c) Ca++ binding to troponin

d) Ca++ binding to tropomyosin

e) Ca++ binding directly to actin

b

Multiunit smooth muscle

a) is innervated by the autonomic nervous system

b)is found in the walls of hollow organs like the uterus and the gut

c) both

d) neither

a

Smooth muscle contraction can be caused by

a)hormones

b) stretch

c) chemicals

d) a and c

e) a, b, c

e

Cardiac muscle has which of the following?

a) sarcomeres

b) gap junctions

c) ANS innervation

d) a and c

e) a,b,c

e

Which of the following is present or occurs in skeletal muscle but not in smooth muscle?

a) pacemaker potentials

b) long twitches

c) many different inputs to cause contraction

d) basal degree of tone (or tension)

e) sarcomeres

e

Which of the following is true concerning smooth muscle?

a) myosin cross bridges are activated and attach to actin when a phosphate dephosphorylates (takes phosphate off) myosin

b) an ap must occur in all smooth muscle cell membrane before smooth muscle can contract

c) during depolarization of the cell membrane, Ca++ energy the smooth muscle cells from the ECF

d) most of the smooth muscle in the body is multiunit smooth muscle

e) smooth muscle does not contain myofilaments

c

Gap junctions are not present in

a) a single smooth unit

b) skeletal muscle

c) cardiac muscle

d) all of these

b

Smooth muscle has

a) sarcomeres

b) troponin

c) T tubules

d) striations

e) ANS innervation

e

Which type of muscle can contract without an action potential occurring in thecae membrane

a) smooth

b) skeletal

c) both

d) neither

a

Which of the following best describes multiunit smooth muscle?

a) nervous stimulation can cause a contraction

b) has many gap junctions

c) most common type of smooth muscle

d) often has a pacemaker potentials

e) often has slow waves

a

all of the following describe cardiac muscle EXCEPT

a) jas auqtonmic innervation

b) has gap junctions

c) has ap at the plateau

d) has cells with pacemakers potentials

e) does not contain troponin

e

which of the following affects transmission at the neuromuscular junction by blocking the neurotransmitter receptor sites on skeletal muscle?

a) black widow venom

b) curare

c) toxin which causes botulism

d) nerve gases and organophosphate insecticides

e) all of these

b

The cross bridges of myosin are

a) tropomyosin

b) troponin

c) heads of the myosin

d) actin

c

The sarcomere

a) is the unit of skeletal muscle contraction

b) extends from one Z line to the next z line

c) both a and b

d) neither

c

Skeletal muscle contraction occurs ( is turned on) when ______________ binds to ________________.

a) ATP, actin

b) tropomyosin, actin

c) Ca++, myosin

d) ATP, the SR

e) Ca++, troponin

e

Rigor mortis occurs because ______________ levels in the skeletal muscle cell decrease and ___________ cannot detach from _________________.

a) ATP, troponin, tropomyosin

b) Ca++, myosin, actin

c) Ca++, troponin, tropomyosin

d) ATP, myosin, actin

d

Which of the following is the first and fastest source for supplying ATP for skeletal muscle contraction ?

a) aerobic

b) anaerobic

c) creatine phosphate

c

Which of the following produces ATP fastest?

a) aerobic

b) anaerobic

c) both

d) neither

b

Which of the following produces more ATP per molecule of glucose?

a) anaerobic

b) aerobic

c) both

d) neither

b

Increasing skeletal muscle length so that there is no overlap of thick and thin filaments increases the force of contraction because the actin filaments can slide in a greater length

a) true

b) false

b

Muscle fatigue __________- caused by rigor mortis in muscle due to total depletion (complete lack) of ATP in the muscle cell

a) is

b) is not

b

High intensity exercise (like weight lifting) causes development of a greater proportion of ___________ muscle fibers, while endurance exercise causes the developmental of a greater proportion of ___________ muscle fibers.

a) white, red

b) red, white

a

In a hypothetical skeletal muscle cell, action potentials no longer occur in the transverse tubules. In this muscle cell, action potentials in the muscle cell membrane ___________ causes normal contractions of the muscle cell

a) would still

b) would not

b

Curare

a) increases ACh release

b) decreases ACh release

c) inhibits AChase

d) blocks ACh receptors

d

The thick filaments in skeletal muscle are made of?

a) tropomyosin

b) troponin

c) actin

d) myosin

e) all of these

d

Which of the following narrows ( or decreases in width) when the sarcomere shortens?

a) only the A band

b) only the H zone

c) only the I band

d) the H zone and the A band

e) the H zone and the I band

e

High intensity anaerobic exercise increases the amount or number of _____________ more than low intensity aerobic exercise does

a) myoglobin molecules

b) capillaries

c) mitochondira

d) myofibrils

d

which muscle type would be more resistant to fatigue (would fatigue later)?

a) slow oxidative

b) fast glycolytic

a

If the nerve to a muscle were cut, the muscle would most likely

a) hypertrophy

b) atrophy

b

Myasthenia graves is a disease ceased by

a) curare binding to ACh receptors

b) inhibition of ACh

c) production of antibodies to ACh receptors

d) reduced ACh release below normal

e) increased ACh

c

A muscle fiber is a muscle

a) myofibril

b) myofilament

c) cell

d) actin filament

e) myosin filament

c

Which below does NOT occur when a skeletal muscle fiber shortens?

a) the sarcomere shortens

b) the length of the I band shortens ( the I band gets narrower)

c) the myofilament shortens

d) the distance between the Z lines decreases

e) the length of the A band remains the same

c

In skeletal muscle, binding of ________ to myosin causes cross bridge __________.

a) Ca++, attachement

b) Ca++, detachment

c) ATP, attachement

d) ATP, detachment

d