PHARM I: EXAM #3 (Pulm Questions)

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70 Terms

1
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What medications do you want to avoid giving to a pt with bronchitis?

- antihistamines
- sympathomimetics

2
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Routine antibiotics are not recommended for bronchitis but in what case would we want to consider giving them and which would we prescribe?

- if symptoms last for more than five days
- doxy
- macrolides
- FQ but avoid unless pt has recent abx exposure

3
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What factors increase the risk for PCN-resistant S. pneumoniae CAP? (6)

- older than 65
- alcoholism
- B-lactam use in past 3 months
- immunosuppressed
- comorbidities
- exposure to child in daycare

4
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What factors increase the risk for enteric gram negative CAP? (4)

- nursing home pt
- underlying cardiopulmonary dz
- comorbidities
- recent abx therapy

5
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What factors increase the risk for P. aeruginosa CAP? (4)

- structural lung dz
- corticosteroid use
- broad spectrum abx therapy for more than seven days in the past month
- malnutrition

6
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What are the 1st line and 2nd line outpatient treatments for CAP?

- 1st-> macrolide
- 2nd-> doxy

7
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For treatment of CAP outpatient in a patient with risk factors for resistant S. pneumoniae, what should be prescribed?

- beta-lactam + macrolide
OR
- if allergic to beta-lactam, respiratory FQ i.e. levofloxacin or moxifloxacin

8
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What is inpatient treatment for CAP for a patient who is not in the ICU?

- an IV beta-lactam:
3rd generation cephalosporin or high-dose ampicillin PLUS macrolide
OR
doxycycline
OR
respiratory FQ

9
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What is inpatient treatment for CAP for an ICU patient?

- same as non-ICU, but all meds given IV
- if MRSA CAP, add vancomycin

10
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How would you treat nosocomial PNA in a patient with NO risk factors for MDR pathogens?

- 3rd gen cephalosporins
OR
- respiratory FQ
OR
- ampicillin/sulbactam
OR
- ertapenem

11
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How would you treat nosocomial PNA in a patient who has risk factors for MDR pathogens?

- gram negative combo therapy:
antipseudomonal cephalopsorin, carbapenem, or PCN
PLUS
antipseudomonal FQ or aminoglycoside
- PLUS gram positive coverage
vancomycin

12
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What are the antipseudomonal cephalosporins?

- Ceftazidime
- Cefipime (4th gen)

13
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What are the antipseudomonal carbapenems?

- Imipenem (caution in those with sz history)
- Meropenem

14
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What is the antipseudomonal PCN?

- piperacillin/tazobactam

15
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What are the antipseudomonal FQ and what are their benefits?

- ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin
- good activity against atypicals and good lung tissue penetration

16
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What are the aminoglycosides?

- gentamicin
- tobramycin
- amikacin

17
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What two things cover MRSA and which requires renal adjustment/causes ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity?

- vancomycin and linezolid
- vancomycin requires renal adjustment

18
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What is the combo therapy for tuberculosis?

- 2 months of INH, Rifampin, Ethambutol, and Pyrazinamide
FOLLOWED BY
- 4 months of INH and Rifampin

19
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What are the characteristics of INH? (3)

- bacteriostatic for latent
- bacteriocidal for active
- inhibits production of waxy cell coat

20
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What are the adverse effects of INH? (4)

- Lupus like syndrome (metabolized by acetylation)
- hepatitis-> increased in alcoholics and the elderly
- peripheral neuritis-> pyridoxine deficiency (give B6)
- sz due to decreased pyridoxine, cannot convert glutamate to GABA

21
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Rifampin is a broad spectrum drug used for TB, what is its mechanism?

- inhibits RNA polymerase

22
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What are the adverse effects of Rifampin? (5)

- CYP enzyme inducer (3A4, 1A2, 2C9)
- hepatitis
- orange secretions
- flu-like syndromes
- GI disturbances

23
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Why is Ethambutol useful in TB treatment?

it helps weaken the cell wall to allow other agents better access

24
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Ethambutol needs what?

renal dose adjustment

25
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What are the adverse effects of Ethambutol?

- visual disturbances-> decreases red-green discrimination and VA

26
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What is the mechanism of pyrazinamide?

it gets converted to pyrazinic acid which lowers pH so bacteria can't grow, enters macrophages, and gets destroyed

27
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What is the advantage of pyrazinamide?

decreases duration of combo therapy

28
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Why do we give pyrazinamide for only two months?

to avoid liver toxicity

29
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What are the adverse effects of pyrazinamide? (3)

- increases LFTs
- inhibits uric acid secretion
- avoid in pregnancy

30
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During anaphylaxis, what is given to aid in volume expansion?

- IV crystalloids aka any fluid that is salt containing

31
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What endogenous catecholamine is given during anaphylaxis?

epinephrine

32
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What are the alpha effects of epinephrine?

vasoconstriction, decreased vascular permeability

33
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What are the beta effects of epinephrine?

bronchial smooth muscle relaxation

34
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What are the adverse effects of epinephrine? (5)

- anxiety
- HTN
- tachycardia
- N/V
- diaphoresis

35
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OD of epinephrine can lead to what?

- cerebrovascular hemorrhage
- MI
- pulmonary edema

36
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What are the H1 histamine blockers and what do they do?

- diphenhydramine, hydroxyzine
- relieve rash, pruritus, hives

37
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What is the H2 histamine blocker?

famotidine

38
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What bronchodilator might be used in anaphylaxis? What does it do and what are its adverse effects?

- Albuterol (B2 agonist)
- relaxes bronchial smooth muscle
- anxiousness, tremor, tachycardia

39
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What medications take time to work and should not be made a priority to give first during anaphylaxis?

corticosteroids i.e. methylprednisolone, prednisone

40
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What are the quick relief meds for asthma? (3)

- SABAs
- anticholinergics
- systemic corticosteroids

41
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What are the long term controller meds for asthma? (6)

- LABAs
- inhaled corticosteroids
- leukotriene modifiers
- mast cell stabilizers
- anti-IgE antibody
- methylxanthines

42
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What is the mechanism of beta 2 agonists? (2)

- increases cAMP
- relaxes airway smooth muscle

43
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What are the SABAs?

- Albuterol
- Levalbuterol

44
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What are the LABAs?

- Formoterol
- Salmeterol

45
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What are the adverse effects of the beta 2 agonists? (7)

- tachycardia
- hypotension
- HA
- dizziness
- tremors
- hyperglycemia
- transient hypokalemia

46
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What are the inhaled corticosteroids? (BBFFMT)

- Beclomethasone
- Budesonide
- Flunisolide
- Fluticasone
- Mometasone
- Triamcinolone

47
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What do the ICS's do and how long does it take for them to work best?

- control inflammation
- up to 8 weeks

48
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What are the adverse effects of an ICS? (3)

- oral candidiasis
- suppress growth in children
- inhibit immune system

49
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What are the long-term combo meds? (LABA + ICS) (/BMF)

- formoterol/budesonide (Symbicort)
- formoterol/mometasone (Dulera)
- salmeterol/fluticosone (Advair)

50
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What leukotriene modifier is used in asthma treatment?

- Montelukast (leukotriene receptor antagonist)

51
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What is Montelukast effective in treating and in what pts is it thought to be useful in?

- ASA induced asthma
- those pts with night-time awakenings

52
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What injectable leukotriene modifier is used in asthma treatment and what are its adverse effects?

- Zileuton
- flu-like syndrome, inhibits CYP enzymes

53
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What medications are given to remove the trigger or antigen in asthma patients?

- mast cell stabilizers
- Cromolyn, Nedocromil

54
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What mab might be given to an asthma patient to control inflammation?

- Omalizumab

55
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How does Omalizumab work?

binds circulating IgE

56
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What are the adverse effects of Omalizumab? (2)

- anaphylaxis
- secondary malignancies

57
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What asthma medication given to control inflammation is generally used more in COPD patients because of its ability to inhibit PDE, increase cGMP, and cause bronchial smooth muscle relaxation?

- Methylxanthines-> Theophylline

58
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What are the side effects of theophylline? (3)

- increased gastric acid secretions
- diuretic effect
- sz, arrhythmias

59
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What is the mechanism of anticholinergics used in asthma treatment?

- block Ach effect on muscarinic receptors, leading to bronchodilation

60
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What is the short-acting anticholinergic and how long does it last?

Ipratropium, up to 8 hours

61
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What is the long-acting anticholinergic and how long does it last?

Tiotropium, 24 hours

62
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Oral systemic corticosteroids are good for what?

acute exacerbations

63
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What side effect is seen with long term use of oral systemic corticosteroids?

- adrenal suppression

64
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What is the algorithm for status asthmaticus? (5)

- continuous albuterol nebulizer
- IV steroids
- magnesium
- ketamine if intubated b/c it provides bronchodilation
- aminophylline if nothing else works

65
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What is the mechanism of bupropion SR?

- nicotine indirectly activates epinephrine and dopamine in the CNS, this medication mimics these effects b/c it inhibits the uptake of norepi and dopamine

66
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Bupropion should be avoided in pts with? (3)

- sz hx
- MAOI use
- caution in those taking noradrenergic antidepressants

67
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What do nicotine replacement agents help with?

physical withdrawal symptoms

68
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What is the partial nicotine receptor agonist used in smoking cessation?

Varenicline (Chantix)

69
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What is a side effect of varenicline?

sleep disturbances-> really vivid dreams

70
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What is the black box warning for varenicline?

neuropsychiatric events