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Which of the following is not one of the four basic types of body tissues?
A)Epithelial tissue
B)Connective tissue
C)Eye tissue
D)Muscle tissue
E)Nervous tissue
C)Eye tissue
A basement membrane anchors
A)muscle tissue to nervous tissue.
B)epithelial tissue to connective tissue.
C)connective tissue to muscle tissue.
D)brain tissue to nervous tissue.
E)blood cells to plasma.
B)epithelial tissue to connective tissue.
Epithelial tissue functions in
A)protection.
B)secretion.
C)absorption.
D)all of these.
E)excretion.
D)all of these.
The tissue through which gases are exchanged between the blood and the air in the lungs is
A)stratified squamous epithelium.
B)simple squamous epithelium.
C)simple cuboidal epithelium.
D)simple columnar epithelium.
E)stratified columnar epithelium.
B)simple squamous epithelium.
The tissue that forms the inner lining of the respiratory passages is
A)columnar epithelium.
B)pseudostratified.
C)mucus-secreting.
D)ciliated.
E)all of these.
E)all of these.
Typically, carcinomas originate from which tissue?
A)epithelium
B)connective tissue.
C)muscle tissue.
D)nervous tissue.
E)bone.
A)epithelium.
The type of epithelium that lines the urinary bladder and many urinary passageways is
A)squamous.
B)cuboidal.
C)columnar.
D)transitional.
E)pseudostratified.
D)transitional.
Tendons and ligaments are composed primarily of
A)adipose tissue.
B)dense connective tissue.
C)muscle tissue.
D)areolar tissue.
E)epithelial tissue.
B)dense connective tissue.
Cartilage tissues are likely to be slow in healing following an injury because
A)cartilage cells cannot divide.
B)cartilage tissues lack direct blood supplies.
C)the intercellular matrix is semisolid.
D)cartilage cells are surrounded by fluids.
E)they don't function often.
B)cartilage tissues lack direct blood supplies.
Bone cells are arranged in concentric circles around longitudinal tubes in cylinder-shaped units called:
A)osteons.
B)central canals.
C)lacunae.
D)canaliculi.
E)lamellae.
A)osteons.
Permanent wrinkling of skin is usually due to changes caused by excessive exposure to
A)water.
B)heat.
C)dry air.
D)sunlight.
E)collagen.
D)sunlight.
Membranes lining body cavities that lack openings to the outside are called
A)synovial membranes.
B)mucous membranes.
C)serous membranes.
D)cutaneous membranes.
E)cell membranes.
C)serous membranes.
Of the four major types of membranes, the one consisting of fibrous connective tissue overlying loose connective tissue is
A)synovial membrane.
B)serous membrane.
C)mucous membrane.
D)cutaneous membrane.
E)cell membrane.
A)synovial membrane.
The muscle tissue that can be consciously controlled is
A)skeletal muscle tissue.
B)intercalated muscle tissue.
C)cardiac muscle tissue.
D)none of these.
E)smooth muscle tissue.
A)skeletal muscle tissue.
Cardiac muscle is found in the wall of the
A)heart.
B)urinary bladder.
C)stomach.
D)intestine.
E)blood vessels.
A)heart.
Smooth muscle is found in the wall of the
A)stomach.
B)intestine.
C)stomach and intestine.
D)kidney.
E)kidney and liver.
C)stomach and intestine.
Which of the following cell types are least likely to reproduce?
A)Endothelial cells that line the digestive system.
B)Fibroblasts of connective tissue.
C)Skeletal muscle cells.
D)Red bone marrow cells.
E)Epithelial cells of the outer layer of the skin.
C)Skeletal muscle cells.
When cardiac muscle cells are damaged by a heart attack, they are usually replaced by
A)new cardiac muscle cells.
B)new smooth muscle cells.
C)connective tissue cells.
D)epithelial cells.
E)nerve cells.
C)connective tissue cells.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of nerve tissue?
A)It is found in the brain, spinal cord and nerves.
B)It contains cells that respond by transmitting impulses.
C)Its intercellular spaces are filled with collagen.
D)Its functional cells are sensitive to changes in their surroundings.
E)Some of its cells send electrochemical messages.
C)Its intercellular spaces are filled with collagen.
Glycoproteins are membrane proteins that help identify a cell as belonging to a particular tissue or organ. Which best describes the structure of a glycoprotein?
A)A protein that binds a carbohydrate
B)A protein that extends inward
C)A protein that forms an ion channel
D)A protein that binds a growth factor.
E)A protein that binds a steroid
A)A protein that binds a carbohydrate
An organ contains
A)all one type of tissue.
B)skin and bones.
C)at least four tissues grouped together that function together.
D)one variety of each of the four tissue types.
E)two or more tissues grouped together that function together.
E)two or more tissues grouped together that function together.
The human integumentary system includes
A)skin, nails, hair follicles, and glands.
B)just the skin.
C)the epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous layer.
D)muscles and bones.
E)skin, hooves, and horns.
A)skin, nails, hair follicles, and glands.
Nerve fibers scattered throughout the dermis are associated with
A)hair, oil glands, and sweat glands.
B)bone, tendons, and muscles.
C)the subcutaneous layer.
D)muscles, glands, and sensory receptors.
E)fingernails and toenails.
D)muscles, glands, and sensory receptors.
Which of the following is not correct concerning the skin?
A)The dermis is usually thicker than the epidermis.
B)The epidermis is composed of stratified squamous epithelium.
C)The subcutaneous layer is between the dermis and the epidermis.
D)The dermis contains smooth muscle and nerve tissue.
E)The skin contains some immune cells.
C)The subcutaneous layer is between the dermis and the epidermis.
As cells are pushed from the deeper part of the epidermis toward the surface
A)they divide continually.
B)their supply of nutrients improves.
C)they die.
D)they become dermal cells.
E)they become cancerous.
C)they die.
The skin
A)retards water loss from deeper tissues.
B)synthesizes vitamin D.
C)regulates body temperature.
D)excretes wastes.
E)all of these.
E)all of these.
The major blood vessels that supply skin cells are found in the
A)epidermis.
B)epidermis and dermis.
C)dermis.
D)subcutaneous layer.
E)bone.
D)subcutaneous layer.
Skin cancer cells are most likely to develop from
A)pigmented epithelial cells.
B)pigmented melanocytes.
C)nonpigmented epithelial cells.
D)nonpigmented melanocytes.
E)nonpigmented dermal cells.
C)nonpigmented epithelial cells.
Which of the following is not a method for helping prevent pressure ulcer formation?
A)Massaging the skin
B)Eating foods rich in proteins
C)Providing adequate fluid intake
D)Maintaining one body position
E)Stimulating blood flow
D)Maintaining one body position
The main function of melanocytes is to
A)remove dead cells by phagocytosis.
B)help control body temperature.
C)produce melanin.
D)produce vitamin D.
E)act as sensory receptors.
C)produce melanin.
Epidermal cells are supplied with nutrients from blood vessels located in the
A)subcutaneous layer.
B)epidermis.
C)dermis.
D)stratum basale.
E)stratum corneum.
C)dermis.
Pressure ulcers are usually associated with skin overlying
A)bony projections.
B)skeletal muscles.
C)a thick layer of fat.
D)nerve fibers.
E)the hands.
A)bony projections.
Cutaneous carcinomas are most commonly caused by exposure to
A)X rays.
B)gamma radiation.
C)ultraviolet light.
D)mutagenic chemicals.
E)carcinogenic chemicals.
C)ultraviolet light.
Which of the following is a characteristic of the person most likely to develop a cutaneous carcinoma?
A)Often plays outdoors
B)Often works outdoors
C)All of these
D)Light-complexioned skin
E)Over forty years of age
C)All of these
The most common cause of cutaneous melanoma is
A)relatively short exposure to high intensity sunlight.
B)prolonged exposure to low intensity sunlight.
C)occasional exposure to X rays.
D)exposure to background radiation.
E)exposure to mutagenic chemicals.
A)relatively short exposure to high intensity sunlight.
Injections that are administered into the tissues of the skin are called
A)subcutaneous.
B)intradermal.
C)intramuscular.
D)hypodermic.
E)intravenous.
B)intradermal.
Skin cells play an important role in the production of vitamin
A)A.
B)B.
C)D.
D)E.
E)C.
C)D.
Exposure to ultraviolet light darkens the skin by stimulating production of
A)melatonin.
B)carotene.
C)hemoglobin.
D)cyanin.
E)melanin.
E)melanin.
The shaft of a hair is composed of
A)dead epidermal cells.
B)living epidermal cells.
C)dead dermal
cells.
D)living dermal cells.
E)living fibroblasts.
A)dead epidermal cells.
A nail consists of a
A)nail fork and nail spoon.
B)nail bed and nail plate.
C)nail rail and nail groove.
D)nail follicle and nail papilla.
E)none of the above.
B)nail bed and nail plate.
Eccrine sweat glands
A)are most common in the armpits and groin.
B)respond primarily to elevated body temperature.
C)respond primarily to emotional stress.
D)usually are associated with hair follicles.
E)are examples of holocrine glands.
B)respond primarily to elevated body temperature.
Acne is a disorder involving the
A)sweat glands.
B)hair follicles.
C)sebaceous glands.
D)apocrine glands.
E)eccrine glands.
C)sebaceous glands.
The regulation of body temperature is of vital importance because
A)it should remain close to 37 degrees C.
B)slight shifts in temperature can disrupt the rates of metabolic reactions.
C)it is the product of chemical reactions.
D)the skin plays an important role in pigment production.
E)a person needs to feel comfortable in any environmental temperature.
B)slight shifts in temperature can disrupt the rates of metabolic reactions.
Which of the following is a normal response to excess loss of body heat in a cold environment?
A)Sweat glands become inactive.
B)Dermal blood vessels constrict.
C)Less blood flows to dermal vessels.
D)All of these
E)Skeletal muscles contract involuntarily.
D)All of these
The granulations that appear during the healing of a large, open wound are composed mainly of
A)blood clots.
B)phagocytic cells.
C)fibroblasts surrounding blood vessels.
D)scar tissue.
E)dead keratinocytes.
C)fibroblasts surrounding blood vessels.
Which of the following increase the risk of developing osteoporosis?
A)Low intake of vitamin D
B)Lack of physical exercise
C)Low intake of dietary calcium
D)All of these
E)Smoking
D)All of these
An osteocyte is a _______
A)bone forming cell.
B)cell that breaks down bone.
C)bone cell surrounded by matrix.
D)bone marrow cell.
E)nerve cell in the bone.
C)bone cell surrounded by matrix
The microscopic bony chambers that house mature bone cells are called _______
A)lacunae.
B)central canals.
C)osteons.
D)perforating
canals.
E)canaliculi.
A)lacunae.
The salts that are abundant in the extracellular matrix of bone tissue consist largely of _______
A)calcium phosphate.
B)sodium chloride.
C)calcium carbonate.
D)calcium sulfate.
E)sodium bicarbonate.
A)calcium phosphate.
Which of the following is NOT a step in the formation of endochondral bone?
A)Hyaline cartilage develops into the shape of the future bone.
B)Periosteum forms from connective tissue on the outside of the developing bone.
C)Hyaline cartilage changes to adipose tissue.
D)Osteoblasts deposit osseous tissue in place of disintegrating cartilage.
E)Osteoblasts deposit compact bone beneath the periosteum.
C)Hyaline cartilage changes to adipose tissue.
Bone that develops within sheetlike layers of connective tissue is called _______
A)endochondral bone.
B)intramembranous bone.
C)cartilaginou bone.
D)osteoclastic bone.
E)appendicular bone.
B)intramembranous bone.
Red bone marrow functions in the formation of _______
A)osteocytes.
B)red blood cells only.
C)white blood cells only.
D)red and white blood cells only.
E)red and white blood cells and platelets.
E)red and white blood cells and platelets.
The cells responsible for removing excess bone tissue after the fracture repair process are _______
A)fibroblasts.
B)chondrocytes.
C)osteoblasts.
D)osteoclasts.
E)osteocytes.
D)osteoclasts.
Which of the following bones is NOT included within the lower limb?
A)Ulna
B)Femur
C)Tibia
D)Fibula
E)Patella
A)Ulna
Which of the following is NOT included in the appendicular skeleton?
A)Pectoral girdle
B)Vertebral column
C)Upper limbs
D)Pelvic girdle
E)Lower limbs
B)Vertebral column
Which of the following is included in the pectoral girdle?
A)Hip bone
B)Sternum
C)Sacrum
D)Scapula
E)Coccyx
D)Scapula
The zygomatic arch is composed of processes of the _______
A)zygomatic and temporal bones.
B)zygomatic and maxilla bones.
C)maxilla and temporal bones.
D)temporal and parietal bones.
E)zygomatic and sphenoid bones.
A)zygomatic and temporal bones.
Which of the following is part of the facial skeleton?
A)Parietal bone
B)Maxillary bone
C)Sphenoid bone
D)Temporal bone
E)Ethmoid bone
B)Maxillary bone
A cleft palate results from incomplete development of the _______
A)palatine bones.
B)maxillae.
C)mandible.
D)vomer bone.
E)frontal bone.
B)maxillae.
Cervical vertebrae can be distinguished from other types by the presence of
A)transverse foramina.
B)transverse processes.
C)articulating processes.
D)vertebral foramina.
E)intervertebral discs.
A)transverse foramina.
Which of the following bones has an acromion process?
A)Sternum
B)Scapula
C)Clavicle
D)Humerus
E)Vertebra
B)Scapula
A hip bone includes a (an) _______
A)acetabulum.
B)ilium.
C)pubis.
D)all of these.
E)ischium.
D)all of these.
The joints between the vertebrae of the backbone are best described as _______
A)immovable.
B)slightly movable.
C)freely movable.
D)synovial.
E)fibrous.
B)slightly movable.
The degenerative joint disease osteoarthritis may develop as a result of damage to the _______
A)articular cartilage.
B)diaphysis.
C)epiphyseal plate.
D)periosteum.
E)medullary cavity.
A)articular cartilage.
A bone includes _______
A)bone tissue.
B)blood.
C)dense connective tissue.
D)cartilage.
E)all of these.
E)all of these.
Which of the following is not a function of bone?
A)To protect soft tissues
B)To house blood-producing cells
C)To provide nervous communication from bone to muscle
D)To store inorganic salts
E)To provide points of attachment for muscles
C)To provide nervous communication from bone to muscle
The zygomatic bone is an example of a (an) _______
A)long bone.
B)short bone.
C)flat bone.
D)irregular bone.
E)sesamoid bone.
D)irregular bone.
Articular cartilage is _______
A)hyaline cartilage.
B)fibrocartilage.
C)elastic cartilage.
D)found only in the knees and elbows.
E)located on the diaphysis of long bones.
A)hyaline cartilage.
The presence of an epiphyseal plate indicates that _______
A)the bone is broken.
B)the bone is dead.
C)the bone is increasing in diameter.
D)the bone is lengthening.
E)the bone is no longer lengthening.
D)the bone is lengthening.
Sinuses are found within all of the following bones except the _______
A)frontal bone.
B)maxillae.
C)zygomatic bones.
D)ethmoid bones.
E)sphenoid bones.
C)zygomatic bones.
Which of the following describes the female pelvis compared to that of the male?
A)The distance between the female ischial tuberosities is less.
B)The distance between the female ischial spines is greater.
C)The female iliac bones are less flared.
D)The female pelvic cavity is narrower.
E)The female coccyx is less movable.
B)The distance between the female ischial spines is great
The femur _______
A)is the longest bone in the body.
B)extends from the hip to the knee.
C)has a large rounded head.
D)articulates with the patella.
E)is all of these.
E)is all of these.
Which of the following terms and descriptions is correctly paired?
A)Extension-bending the leg at the knee or decreasing the angle between the femur and tibia
B)Adduction-lifting the upper limb horizontally to form a right angle with the side of the body or moving a part away from the midline
C)Pronation-turning the hand so the palm is downward or facing posteriorly (in anatomical position)
D)Retraction-moving a part forward or thrusting the head forward
E)Elevation-lowering a part or drooping the shoulders
C)Pronation-turning the hand so the palm is downward or facing posteriorly (in anatomical position)
A man falls down a flight of stairs. He is examined in a hospital, where an x-ray determines that his dens (odontoid process) has been fractured in the fall. Give the skeletal region and articulation of the bone where the dens (odontoid process) is found.
A)Axial; C2
B)Appendicular; C2
C)Appendicular; C1
D)Appendicular; C3
E)Axial; C1
E)Axial; C1
During a softball game, an unfortunate player was struck in the face with the ball, resulting in an orbital fracture. How many bones make up the orbit?
A)4
B)2
C)3
D)5
E)6
C)3
A person has a car accident. After workup in the hospital, several bones of the axial skeleton are determined to be fractured. Which of the following bones COULD NOT be fractured?
A)10th rib
B)Mandible
C)C7
D)Clavicle
E)Nasal bone
D)Clavicle
A person has a car accident. After workup in the hospital, several bones of the appendicular skeleton are determined to be fractured. Which of the following bones COULD NOT be fractured?
A)Scapula
B)Metatarsals
C)C7
D)Clavicle
E)Metacarpals
C)C7
After a fall from a tree, a man has an injury that results in a rupture of the brachial artery. Which bone has this man most likely fractured?
A)Radius
B)Humerus
C)Scapula
D)Ulna
E)Sternum
B)Humerus
After a fall from a ladder, a man has a small fracture of his calcaneus. Supply the skeletal regions that describe the calcaneus.
A)Appendicular; upper limb
B)Axial; lower limb
C)Appendicular; spine
D)Axial; upper limb
E)Appendicular; lower limb
E)Appendicular; lower limb
What is the function of the body of a vertebra?
A)Provide passage for the spinal cord to the brain
B)Cushion and soften forces generated by the body on the spine
C)Allow for structural support of the head and trunk
D)Provide passage for spinal nerves
E)Serve as attachments for ligaments
C)Allow for structural support of the head and trunk
A sarcomere is best described as _______
A)a part of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
B)a group of fascicles
C)a group of myofibrils
D)a unit within a myofibril
E)All of the choices are correct.
D)a unit within a myofibril
Myofibrils are composed primarily of
A)actin and myosin
B)ATP and ADP
C)troponin and tropomyosin
D)fascia and tendons
E)perimysium and endomysium
A)actin and myosin
A motor unit typically includes
A)muscle fibers only
B)motor neurons only
C)several motor neurons and one muscle fiber
D)one motor neuron and several muscle fibers
E)several motor neurons and several muscle fibers
D)one motor neuron and several muscle fibers
The electrical impulse that triggers a contraction travels deep into a skeletal muscle fiber by means of
A)sarcoplasmic reticulum
B)transverse tubules
C)mitochondria
D)motor end plates
E)gap junctions
B)transverse tubules
Neurotransmitter molecules are stored in vesicles within
A)myofibrils
B)motor units
C)motor end plates
D)motor neuron endings
E)sarcomeres
D)motor neuron endings
The enzyme acetylcholinesterase causes acetylcholine to
A)bind to actin
B)be secreted from the motor end plate
C)decompose
D)form cross bridges
E)None of the choices are correct.
C)decompose
Creatine phosphate
A)causes the decomposition of ATP
B)causes the decomposition of ADP
C)supplies energy for the synthesis of ATP
D)supplies energy for the breakdown of ATP to ADP
E)binds to Ach receptors
C)supplies energy for the synthesis of ATP
Binding sites on the surface of actin allow the formation of cross bridges with molecules of
A)ATP
B)myosin
C)troponin
D)tropomyosin
E)creatine
B)myosin
The amount of oxygen needed to support the conversion of lactic acid to glucose by the liver is called the
A)refractory quantity
B)oxygen debt
C)anaerobic value
D)aerobic conversion
E)lactate debt
B)oxygen debt
A muscle cramp is most likely due to a temporary lack of
A)actin
B)myosin
C)ATP
D)ADP
E)motor neurons
C)ATP
An example of a partial but sustained contraction of a whole muscle is
A)muscle tone
B)a twitch
C)eye blinking
D)tetanic contraction of a muscle fiber
E)fatigue of a motor unit
A)muscle tone
The characteristic reddish brown color of skeletal muscle comes from which substance?
A)actin
B)myosin
C)myoglobin
D)calcium
E)muscle glycogen
C)myoglobin
The threshold stimulus is the
A)minimum strength of stimulus required to cause muscle fiber contraction to occur
B)the maximal amount of force a muscle can exert
C)the amount of oxygen a muscle needs for repeated contractions
D)the minimal amount of force a muscle can exert
E)the maximal amount of stimulation a muscle can withstand
A)minimum strength of stimulus required to cause muscle fiber contraction to occur
Rigor mortis that occurs in skeletal muscles a few hours after death is due to
A)lack of ATP increased membrane permeability to calcium ions
B)excessive ATP decreased membrane permeability to calcium ions
C)persistent stimulation by motor neuron
D)a decrease in the number of muscle fibers
E)None of the choices are correct.
A)lack of ATP increased membrane permeability to calcium ions
The increase in the number of motor units activated as a result of more intense stimulation is called
A)latency
B)recruitment
C)threshold stimulation
D)all-or-none response
E)summation
B)recruitment
In a recording of a muscle twitch, the delay between the time a stimulus is applied and the time the muscle responds is called the
A)refractory period
B)relaxation period
C)latent period
D)contraction period
E)recovery period
C)latent period
Activities such as distance swimming and distance running are most likely to stimulate development of
A)slow fatigable muscle fibers
B)fast fatigable muscle fibers
C)slow fatigue-resistant muscle fibers
D)fast fatigue-resistant muscle fibers
E)None of the choices are correct.
C)slow fatigue-resistant muscle fibers
When a muscle undergoes atrophy in response to disuse,
A)the muscle gets smaller
B)All of the answer choices are correct.
C)the size of actin and myosin filaments decreases
D)there is a reduction in capillary networks
E)the number of mitochondria decreases
B)All of the answer choices are correct.
Multiunit smooth muscle
A)occurs in the walls of the stomach and intestines
B)tends to display rhythmicity
C)is composed of sheets of muscle cells
D)None of the choices apply.
E)responds to stimulation by neurons and certain hormones
E)responds to stimulation by neurons and certain hormones
The term "muscle" can refer to
A)a cell
B)a tissue
C)an organ
D)All of the choices are correct.
D)All of the choices are correct.