Notebook LM Flashcards Unit 4

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88 Terms

1
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What are the three primary functions of blood?

Transportation, defense, and maintenance of homeostasis.

2
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What component of blood is primarily responsible for transporting oxygen and carbon dioxide?

Red blood cells (erythrocytes).

3
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Which components of blood are involved in the body's defense mechanisms?

White blood cells, platelets, and antibodies.

4
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How does blood help maintain homeostasis in terms of temperature?

By changing the flow of blood to either conserve or dissipate heat.

5
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A centrifuged blood sample is separated into three main components. What are they?

Plasma, the buffy coat, and red blood cells (hematocrit).

6
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What is the buffy coat composed of?

White blood cells (leukocytes) and platelets (thrombocytes).

7
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What is the most abundant protein in blood plasma and its primary function?

Albumin, which is the most significant contributor to osmotic pressure and acts as a binding protein.

8
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What is the function of alpha and beta globulins in plasma?

They transport iron, lipids, and fat-soluble vitamins, and contribute to osmotic pressure.

9
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What is the function of gamma globulins (antibodies)?

They are involved in immunity and are produced by plasma cells.

10
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Which plasma protein, produced by the liver, is essential for blood clotting?

Fibrinogen.

11
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The process of blood cell formation is known as _.

hemopoiesis

12
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All formed elements of blood originate from what type of cell?

Hematopoietic stem cells (hemocytoblasts).

13
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Hematopoietic stem cells differentiate into which two major cell lines?

Myeloid stem cells and lymphoid stem cells.

14
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Which blood cells are derived from myeloid stem cells?

Erythrocytes, platelets, basophils, neutrophils, eosinophils, and monocytes.

15
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Which blood cells are derived from lymphoid stem cells?

B cells, T cells, and Natural Killer (NK) cells.

16
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What is the specific term for the formation of red blood cells?

Erythropoiesis.

17
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What is the specific term for the formation of white blood cells?

Leukopoiesis.

18
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What is the specific term for the formation of platelets?

Thrombopoiesis.

19
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What is a reticulocyte?

An immature erythrocyte that has been released into circulation from the bone marrow.

20
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Describe the basic anatomy of a mature erythrocyte.

It is a biconcave disc that lacks a nucleus and organelles.

21
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What is the approximate lifespan of an erythrocyte?

About 120 days.

22
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What happens to old or damaged erythrocytes?

They are removed from circulation by macrophages, primarily in the spleen, liver, and bone marrow.

23
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Hemoglobin is composed of four protein chains called and a red, iron-containing pigment called .

globin; heme

24
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During the breakdown of hemoglobin, the globin portion is broken down into what?

Amino acids, which are reused for protein synthesis.

25
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During hemoglobin breakdown, the heme portion is converted first to (a green pigment) and then to (a yellow pigment).

biliverdin; bilirubin

26
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How are iron ions from degraded hemoglobin transported in the blood?

They bind to the blood protein transferrin.

27
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Where can iron from hemoglobin be stored, and in what form?

It can be stored in the liver or spleen bound to the protein ferritin.

28
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Term: Anemia characterized by smaller than normal red blood cells.

Microcytic anemia.

29
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Term: Anemia characterized by larger than normal red blood cells.

Macrocytic anemia.

30
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Term: An overproduction of red blood cells.

Polycythemia.

31
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The process by which leukocytes squeeze through adjacent cells in a blood vessel wall is called _.

emigration or diapedesis

32
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What is positive chemotaxis?

The movement of a cell toward a chemical attractant, such as leukocytes moving to an injury site.

33
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Which are the most numerous leukocytes, acting as rapid responders and effective phagocytes?

Neutrophils.

34
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Which granular leukocyte has a multi-lobed nucleus and originates from myeloid stem cells?

Neutrophil.

35
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Which leukocytes are most effective against parasitic worms and contain antihistamines in their granules?

Eosinophils.

36
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Which granular leukocyte is the least common and releases histamine to trigger inflammation?

Basophils.

37
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Which agranular leukocyte, derived from myeloid stem cells, differentiates into macrophages?

Monocytes.

38
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Which category of leukocytes arises from the lymphoid stem cell line?

Lymphocytes (T cells, B cells, NK cells).

39
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Term: A medical condition where too few leukocytes are produced.

Leukopenia.

40
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Term: A type of cancer involving an abundance of leukocytes.

Leukemia.

41
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Term: A form of cancer where masses of malignant T or B cells collect in lymph nodes and other organs.

Lymphoma.

42
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Platelets (thrombocytes) are fragments of which large cell?

Megakaryocytes.

43
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What is the primary function of thrombocytes (platelets)?

Hemostasis (stopping blood flow).

44
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What are the three mechanisms involved in hemostasis?

Vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, and coagulation.

45
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What is the first step of hemostasis, where smooth muscle in the vessel wall contracts?

Vascular spasm.

46
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During platelet plug formation, platelets are activated by chemicals and contact with _, causing them to become spiked and sticky.

collagen

47
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The final step of hemostasis, coagulation, involves the conversion of to , which forms a mesh.

fibrinogen; fibrin

48
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The extrinsic coagulation pathway is initiated by damage to surrounding tissues, which releases what factor?

Tissue factor (Factor III).

49
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The intrinsic coagulation pathway is typically initiated by damage to what?

The vessel wall itself.

50
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Both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of coagulation converge to activate which factor, initiating the common pathway?

Factor X.

51
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In the common pathway, activated Factor X joins with Factor V to convert into .

prothrombin (Factor II); thrombin

52
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What is the role of thrombin in the common pathway?

It converts fibrinogen (Factor I) into fibrin.

53
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The process of breaking down a clot is called and is accomplished by the enzyme .

fibrinolysis; plasmin

54
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What is hemophilia?

A disorder characterized by the inadequate production of one or more clotting factors.

55
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Term: An excessive number of platelets that increases the risk for excessive clot formation.

Thrombocytosis.

56
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An unwanted blood clot that forms in an unbroken vessel is called a _.

thrombus

57
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A piece of a thrombus that breaks free and travels through the bloodstream is known as an _.

embolus

58
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What are the primary lymphoid organs, and what are their functions?

Bone marrow (site of hemopoiesis and B cell maturation) and the thymus (site of T cell maturation).

59
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What are the secondary lymphoid organs?

Lymph nodes, spleen, and lymphoid nodules (like tonsils and MALT).

60
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What is the primary function of lymph nodes?

To filter lymph and serve as a site for adaptive immune activation.

61
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What are the key functions of the spleen?

It filters blood, removes old red blood cells, fights blood pathogens, and acts as a blood reservoir.

62
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What is the main difference between innate and adaptive immunity?

Innate immunity is nonspecific and present at birth, while adaptive immunity is specific to antigens and has memory.

63
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Give an example of a physical barrier to infection for the skin.

Tight junctions between cells or the layer of keratin.

64
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Give an example of a chemical barrier to infection in the digestive tract.

Lysozyme in saliva or the low pH of gastric juice.

65
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Which cells of the innate immune system primarily destroy infected host cells and cancer cells?

Natural Killer (NK) cells.

66
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How do Natural Killer (NK) cells recognize their targets?

They identify cells that lack surface MHC class I antigens.

67
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What two substances do NK cells and Cytotoxic T cells secrete to induce apoptosis in target cells?

Perforin and granzymes.

68
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What is an interferon?

A cytokine released by a virus-infected cell that signals nearby uninfected cells to resist viral infection.

69
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The classical pathway of the complement system is activated by what?

An antibody binding to an antigen on a pathogen.

70
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In the complement system, what is the role of C3b?

It binds to the surface of a pathogen, tagging it for destruction (opsonization).

71
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The final product of the complement cascade is the _, which pokes holes in the pathogen's membrane.

membrane attack complex (MAC)

72
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What is opsonization?

The coating of a pathogen with proteins (like antibodies or C3b) to enhance phagocytosis.

73
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What is an antigen?

A substance, typically foreign, that causes the body to produce specific antibodies or sensitized T cells.

74
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Upon activation, B cells undergo clonal expansion and differentiate into what two cell types?

Plasma cells and memory B cells.

75
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What is the function of plasma cells?

They secrete large quantities of soluble antibodies.

76
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What is the role of Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) I molecules?

They present endogenous antigens (from within the cell, like viral proteins) to cytotoxic T cells.

77
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What is the role of Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) II molecules?

They are found on antigen-presenting cells (APCs) and present exogenous antigens (from outside the cell) to helper T cells.

78
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Which type of T helper cell activates B cells to produce antibodies?

Th2 cells.

79
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Which type of T helper cell activates cytotoxic T cells and NK cells?

Th1 cells.

80
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Which immunoglobulin class is the most abundant in serum and is the main antibody of secondary responses?

IgG.

81
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Which immunoglobulin class is secreted into mucus, tears, and saliva?

IgA (as Secretory IgA).

82
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Which immunoglobulin class is the main antibody of primary responses and exists as a pentamer?

IgM.

83
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Which immunoglobulin class is involved in allergic reactions and antiparasitic activity?

IgE.

84
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Which immunoglobulin is the only class that can cross the placenta?

IgG.

85
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The process by which antibodies block the adhesion of bacteria and viruses to mucosa is called _.

neutralization

86
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How do Cytotoxic T cells recognize infected host cells?

They recognize foreign antigens presented on MHC I molecules on the surface of the infected cell.

87
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What is the major difference between how NK cells and Cytotoxic T cells target cells?

NK cells target cells lacking MHC-I, while Cytotoxic T cells target cells presenting a specific foreign antigen on MHC-I.

88
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In the immune response to cancer, what is the role of antigen-presenting cells (APCs)?

They patrol the body, pick up cancer antigens, and present them to T cells in the lymph nodes to initiate an immune response.