DRONE PILOT TEST

14 CFR Part 107

Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations Part 107

Basic eligibility requirements for applying for a Remote Pilot Certificated from the FAA

-at least 16

-read, speak, write English language

-stable physical and mental condition

-pass initial aeronautical knowledge test at an FAA-approved knowledge testing center (KTC)

-pass a background check by the Transportation Security Administration (TSA)

maintaining your remote pilot certificate

-pass recurrent aeronautical test every 24 months

-conduct pre-flight inspections

-report an accident to the FAA within 10 calendar days of any operation that results in serious injury or property damage over $500

-make sUAS available for inspection if requested

How old must you be to apply for a Remote Pilot Certificate?

16

When do you have to take the recurrent aeronautical knowledge test?

Every 24 months

When do you have to report an accident to the FAA?

Within 10 calendar days of any operation that results in a serious injury or property damage over $500

What constitutes an "accident?"

Any operation that results in a serious injury or property damage over $500 (to repair or replace)

unmanned aircraft (UA)

An aircraft operated without the possibility of direct human intervention from within or on the aircraft

Small Unmanned Aircraft (Small UA)

A Unmanned Aircraft (UA) weighing less than 55 pounds, including everything that is onboard or otherwise attached to the aircraft, and can be flown without the possibility of direct human intervention from within or on the aircraft

Small Unmanned Aircraft System (sUAS)

A small Unmanned Aircraft (UA) and its associated elements

Who do Part 107 regulations apply to?

commercial/civil, unmanned aircraft (sUAS) operations

How long do you have to notify the FAA of your change of address?

30 days

remote pilot-in-command (remote PIC)

-person who holds a current remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating and has the final authority and responsibility for the operation and safety of the small UAS

-assesses operating environment

-inform and educate all participants in the flight

-ensure sUAS is working properly and safely

-has necessary documentation

Person Manipulating the Controls

A person other than the Remote Pilot in Command (PIC) who is controlling the flight of an Small Unmanned Aircraft System (sUAS) under the supervision of the remote PIC

How can someone operate the sUAS without a current remote pilot certificate?

-under direct supervision of a remote PIC

-if the remote PIC has the ability to immediately take direct control of the sUAS (through proximity, safe-mode system, or "buddy box")

What are the methods that a remote PIC can take over flight controls from a person manipulating the controls?

-physical proximity

-pre-programmed safe-mode system with "home" or "hover" functions

-"buddy box"

what is a "buddy box" training system?

A system with one cord that connects two different control stations/remote controls/transmitters

-one operated by person manipulating the flight controls

-one operated by remote PIC (who can immediately override other control station with the flip of the master switch)

Visual Observer (VO)

A person acting as a flightcrew member who helps to see and avoid other air traffic or objects aloft or on the ground

-positioned in location where they're able to see the sUAS continuously and sufficiently to maintain visual-line-of-sight

-able to effectively communicate the sUAS position and position of other aircraft

how much does drone registration cost?

$5

how long is a drone regulation good for?

3 years

how do you register a UAS weighing more than 55 pounds?

through the FAA's paper-based registration process

how old do you have to be to register your UAS?

13

how can you report an accident?

-through your free FAADroneZone account

-contacting nearest FAA Flight Standards District Office (FSDO)

operating limitations of sUAS under Part 107 regulations

-may not be flown faster than ground-speed of 87 knots/100 mph

-minimum visibility may not be less than 3 statute miles (sm)

-UA must be at least 500 ft below and 2000 ft horizontally from clouds

what is the maximum speed your sUAS may be flown?

ground-speed of 87 knots/100 mph

what is the minimum visibility requirement, as observed from where you're operating the sUAS/where your transmitter is?

no less than 3 statute miles (sm)

what is the distance a sUAS must maintain from clouds?

500 ft below and 2000 feet horizontally

maximum altitude limit

400 ft AGL, unless flown within a 400-ft radius of a structure and does not fly higher than 400 ft above the structure's immediate uppermost limit

Who is allowed to inspect your sUAS operations?

Any officer of the FAA

how should scheduled maintenance of your sUAS be carried out?

in accordance with the manufacturer's suggested procedures (usually after every 200 flights or 50 flight hours)

when can you operate your sUAS from a moving vehicle?

if it's a land or waterborne vehicle and you're operating the sUAS over a sparsely populated area

hos does The Air Almanac define night?

the period between the end of evening civil twilight (sunset until 30 minutes after sunset) and the beginning of morning civil twilight (30 minutes prior to sunrise until sunrise)

what must your sUAS have if you're flying in that 30 minute civil twilight period?

special anti-collision lights that are capable of being visible for at least 3 miles in all directions

what constitutes daylight by The Air Almanac (the period of time during the day you can fly your drone)?

30 minutes before official sunrise to 30 minutes after official sunset, but during the 30-minute twilight period, you must have lights that are visible for at least 3 miles

when are you allowed to operate your sUAS over a human being?

if the person is directly participating in the operation or if they are located under a covered structure or inside a stationary vehicle

Visual Line-of-Sight (VLOS)

must be maintained at all times during the flight by unaided vision

how does alcohol affect your body?

-decreases the speed and strength of your muscular reflexes, affects coordination

-lessens the efficiency of eye movements

what are alcohol requirements for operating a sUAS?

-BAC < 0.4%

-at least 8 hours need to have passed between drinking alcohol

where should you refer to if you have questions regarding operating your sUAS and prescription and over-the-counter medication?

Pilot Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge or contact your local Aviation Medical Examiner (AME)

what can happen if you violate federal or state alcohol or drug regulations?

you can lose your remote pilot certificate and/or not be allowed to apply for a certificate for up to one year

dehydration

-critical loss of water

-can be caused by exposure to sun and hot temperatures or high humidity, water consumption, altitude, and consumption of other beverages

-causes fatigue, which can lead to dizziness, nausea, weakness

-prevent by drinking water

heatstroke

-inability of the body to control its temperature

-related to dehydration

-drink water, wear loose, light clothing, and protect yourself from the sun where possible

hyperventilation

-when you suddenly start breathing very quickly and exhale more than you inhale

-abnormal loss of CO2 from blood

-leads to lightheadedness, dizziness, tingling in fingers, fainting

-can occur when you feel fear, stress, panic, anxiety, nervousness or anger

-remain calm and breathe into paper bag or cupped hands

-want to increase amount of CO2 in body

hypoventilation

breathing that is too shallow

stress

-body's response to physical and psychological demands

-can increase blood sugar, heart rate, breathing, blood pressure, and sweat

IMSAFE

pre-flight physiological considerations: illness, medication, stress, alcohol, fatigue, emotion/eating

airspace authorization

mechanism which an operator may seek Air Traffic Control (ATC) approval to operate in controlled airspace

airspace waiver - certificate of waiver (CoW)

issued where the applicant can demonstrate safe deviations from regulations without seeking ATC authorization prior to each operation

how long should you expect your review and adjudication of a waiver to be?

(within) 90 days

Class B Airspace

-solid blue lines

-usually surface up to 10,000 ft MSL

-requires ATC approval to enter

-"big city" towered airports

-inner surface area, two or more outer layers (upside down wedding cake)

how to read ceilings of class X airspaces

Class B, C

#/SFC

# + 00 = ceiling ft MSL, goes up to (inclusive)

SFC = surface, start point

Class D [#] or [-#] +00 MSL, [-#] non-inclusive

Class C Airspace

-solid magenta lines

-SFC up to 4000 ft above towered airport

-inner shelf = 5 nautical mile (NM) radius

-outer shelf = 10 NM radius

-requires ATC approval to enter

-"cities"

Class D Airspace

-dashed blue lines

-ALWAYS starts at SFC

-SFC up to 2500 ft above towered airport

-"diminuitive" "dime-sized" small city airports

-requires ATC approval to enter

ceiling indicated by # in brackets

[#] or [-#] +00 MSL

[-#] non-inclusive

when operable tower of airport is not in operation-Class E surface area rules apply or Class E rules apply to 700 ft AGL then Class G to surface

Class E Airspace

-"elemental" "everywhere"

-unless marked otherwise, usually starts at 1200 ft AGL

-ceiling goes into others or tops off at 18000 ft MSL

-can start at 14500 ft MSL in rural areas

-surface/lateral Class E: area around a class E non-towered airport, start @ SFC & requires ATC approval (magenta-dotted circle/lines)

-transition areas: start @ 700 ft AGL (thick fuzzy magenta lines)

surface/lateral class E airspace

-magenta-dotted circles/lines

-area around a class E non-towered airport

-start @ SFC

-need ATC approval to enter (except for when extensions)

Class E Transition Areas

-thick, fuzzy magenta lines

-starts @ 700 ft AGL

-usually indicates class G up to 700, then E from 700

Class G Airspace

-not designated A, B, C, D, E

-uncontrolled airspace

-do not need FAA authorization

-not marked

-unless otherwise indicated, class G goes up to 70 ft AGL

Special Use Airspace

-defined by areas in which certain activities must be confined or where limitations may be imposed on aircraft operations that are not part of those activities

-includes area name/number, effective altitude, time and weather conditions of operation, controlling agency, and chart panel location

-prohibited, restricted, warning areas, military operations areas (MOA), alert areas

prohibited areas

P-#

-surrounded by blue hash marks

-areas where flight of aircraft is prohibited

restricted areas

R-#

-outlined by blue hash marks

-areas where flight operations are hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft

-need specific permission from controlling agency in charge of the area in order to fly here

warning areas

W-#

-surrounded by blue hashed lines

-US government does not have sole jurisdiction over the airspace

-may be located over domestic or international waters or both

Military Operations Area (MOA)

-established for the purpose of separating certain military training activities from instrument flight rules (IFR) traffic

-MOA, surrounded by magenta hashed lines

-rarely extend below 1500 ft AGL

-good to find out if MOA is "hot" (active)

alert areas

A-#

-inform nonparticipating pilots of areas that may contain a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity

military training route (MTR)

-used by military for conducting low-altitude, high-speed flight training at speeds in excess of 250 knots (300 mph)

-above 1500 ft AGL flown under IFR

-under 1500 ft AGL flown under VFR

-identified on sectional chart as eaither IFR (IR) or VFR (VR) and # on a straight line with an arrow

3#s = route @least one segment above 1500 ft AGL

4#s = routes flown @ 1500 ft AGL and below

temporary flight restrictions (TFR)

-restriction on an area of airspace due to the movement of government VIPs, special events, natural disasters, or other unusal events

-in place across National Airspace System (NAS)

-"stadium TFR"

-type of NOTAM

"stadium TFR"

-prohibits flight at or below 3000ft AGL within a 3 NM radius of any stadium with seating capacity of 30000 or more when there's a major league baseball, NFL, NCAA Division I game, or major motor speedway event

-takes place one hour before the scheduled event time until one hour after the event concludes

Notices to Airmen (NOTAMs)

describes time-critical airspace info and either temporary or not sufficiently known in advance to permit publication on aeronautical charts or in other publications

VFR Sectional Chart

-visual flight rules sectional chart

-shows geographical and man-made obstacles, certain airspace boundaries

-for USA: over 50, updated every 6 months

equator

-imaginary line drawn around the earth equally distant from both poles

-divides the earth into northern and southern hemispheres

-considered to be at 0° latitude

latitude

-imaginary lines that run parallel to the equator

-measure the degrees of latitude north (N) and south (S) of the equator

-range from 0° at the equator to 90° a the North Pole and -90° at the South Pole

Prime Meridian

-imaginary line that runs vertically down the Earth from the North to the South pole

-divides the Earth into Eastern and Western hemispheres

-passes through Greenwich, England

-represents 0° longitude

longitude

-imaginary lines that up and down the Earth parallel to the prime meridian

-measure the degrees of longitude east (E) or west (W) of the prime meridian

-east goes from 0° to 180°

-west goes from 0° to 180°

(makes up 360°)

latitude and longitude trends

-as you move North, away from the equator, the latitudinal degree numbers go up

-as you move West, left away from the prime meridian, the longitudinal degree numbers go up

-opposite: if you move toward the equator or prime meridian, degree numbers go down

degrees of latitude and longitude

-1 degree = 60 minutes

-marked as '

-each longitudinal and latitudinal line is marked 30 minutes from the next line; half a degree apart

VFR Checkpoint

-small magenta colored flag

-indicates a visual reporting checkpoint or waypoint for manned VFR aircraft

notification boxes

on a sectional chart to provide additional information

Above Ground Level (AGL)

-the literal height above the ground over which you're flying

-denoted in parentheses

Mean Sea Level (MSL)

-true altitude, or the average height above standard sea level where the atmospheric pressure is measured in order to calibrate altitude

-all numbers on sectional chart (not in parentheses)

airport data

AIRPORT NAME (AB)

AWOS-# #RADIO FREQUENCY

#ALTITUDE *L #LENGTH #CTAF

*L - LIGHTING LIMITATIONS AT THE AIRPORT (FOR NIGHTTIME USE)

# LENGTH OF LONGEST RUNWAY (100S OF FT)

#CTAF - # COMMON TRAFFIC ADVISORY FREQUENCY

airport towers

on sectional chart

-Control Towers = blue

-all others = magenta

isogonic line

-line indicating the magnetic variation of difference btwn true vs. magnetic north

#W-add number to what compass reads

#E-subtract number to what compass reads

Maximum Elevation Figure (MEF)

-minimum altitude that you can fly in a given quadrangle and still be able to clear all obstacles (terrain and obstructions)

-on sectional char: big number and small number

-big number: thousands of ft MSL

-small number: hundreds of ft MSL

natural terrain elevation in a sectional chart

-consult color chart

-different color tints show bands of elevation relative to see level

-light green for lower elevations to dark brown for the higher elevations

Victor Airway

-straight-line segment that's used to depict low-altitude civilian air traffic

-on sectional chart: thick, faded blue lines that run btn either two VHF omnidirectional range (VOR) stations, or a VOR and a VOR intersection

-identified by a number

-designated as Class E airspace

-vertically start at a base of 1,200 ft AGL and go up to 18,000 ft MSL

Chart Supplement U.S.

-formerly Airport/Facility Directory

-provides the most comprehensive info on a given airport

-contains info on public: airports, heliports, and seaplane bases

airport runways

-labeled 1-36; # corresponds to the runway's magnetic, or compass, alignment (which direction the runway is facing)

-designed to take advantage of normal wind patterns

airport traffic pattern

-left pattern

-all turns are made to the left unless otherwise specified

-ideal flight patter: aircraft take off and land into a headwind

-manned aircraft pilot should arrive at the proper traffic pattern altitude prior to entering the traffic pattern

-recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is to enter 45° at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude

Right of Way / See and Avoid rules

-remain clear of and yield right-of-way to all other aircraft and to other potential hazards

-aircraft in distress always has the right of way over all other air traffic

-if approaching a similar-sized fixed-wing unmanned aircraft, both alter courses to right

sea level standard conditions

-standard air temperature 15 C (59 F)

-standard air pressure 29.92" Hg (inches of mercury) (1013 millibars)

-at standard conditions, density altitude = pressure altitude

absolute altitude

height above ground level (AGL)

true altitude

height above mean sea level

density altitude

-how we measure the density of air

-altitude relative to the standard atmospheric conditions at which the air density would be = indicated air density at the place of observation

-high density altitude=thinner, less dense air (reduced aircraft performance)

-low density altitude=thicker, more dense air

-as density altitude increases, aircraft performance decreases

-hot day also leads to reduced performance

pressure altitude

the altitude when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92" Hg; pressure altitude = density altitude during standard conditions

Higher Density Altitude Occurs at:

-higher elevations

-lower atmospheric pressures

-higher temps

-higher humidity

Lower Density Altitude Occurs at:

-lower elevations

-higher atmospheric pressures

-lower temps

-lower humidity

convective currents

-small areas of local circulation created by uneven heating of air

-cause bumpy, turbulent air experienced when flying at lower altitudes during warmer weather

-On a low-altitude flight over different types of surfaces, updrafts are likely to occur over areas like pavement or sand, and downdrafts often occur over water or expansive areas of vegetation like a group of trees

sea breeze

-convective currents over shores of large bodies of water during the DAY

-land heats up faster than the water

-air over land becomes warmer and less dense

-air rises and is replaced by cooler, denser air flowing in from over the water

land breeze

-convective currents over shores of large bodies of water during the NIGHT

-opposite: land cools faster than water

-warmer air over water rises and is replaced by the cooler, denser air from the land

downdraft

downward current/movement of air

kabatic wind

-high speed, cold wind

-occur in places where a mass of cold air accumulates over a high plateau or valley

-stronger the wind, the greater the downward pressure