APOLLON - BLOOD BANK

1. The interval between blood donations is:

a. 6 weeks

b. 8 weeks

c. 10 weeks

d. 3 months

B

2. The oral temperature of a donor shall not:

a. 37.0C

b. 37.5C

c. 98.6F

d. 98.0F

B

3. The minimum acceptable hemoglobin for male donors is:

a. 12.5 g/dL

b. 13.0 g/dL

c. 13.5 g/dL

d. 14.0 g/dL

A

4. What is the lowest acceptable hematocrit for female blood donors?

a. 36%

b. 38%

c. 41%

d. 43%

B

5. Prospective donors who have malaria should be deferred:

a. permanently

b. for three years after cessation of treatment

c. for two years after cessation of treatment

d. for six months

B

6. The name given to the infectious virus of hepatitis B (HBV) is:

a. complex virus

b. dane particle

c. circular DNA virus

d. infectious particle

B

7. Symptom-free donors immunized with oral polio, measles (rubeola) or mump vaccines are acceptable after a period of:

a. 24 hours

b. 2 days

c. 2 weeks

d. 24 days

C

8. For autologous blood donation, blood should not be drawn from the donor-patient within ______ hours of the anticipated operation or transfusion

a. 12 hours

b. 24 hours

c. 48 hours

d. 72 hours

D

9. An autologous blood donor must:

a. be over 21 years old

b. be treated for bacteremia

c. have at least an 11 g/dL hemoglobin

d. be on oral iron therapy

C

10. Which of the following pretransfusion tests "must" be determined for an autologous transfusion recipient?

a. abo and rh type

b. hbsag

c. sts

d. comptability testing

A

11. Which biochemical change does not occur in stored blood?

a. plasma ph decreases

b. plasma potassium (k) decreases

c. plasma ammonia (nh3) increases

d. inorganic phosphate increases

B

12. Which of the following organisms have been implicated in bacterial contamination of donor blood?

a. pseudomonas

b. citrobacter freundii

c. escherichia coli

d. bacillus species

D

13. The acceptable temperature range for a blood bank refrigerator is:

a. 1-6C

b. 1-10C

c. 6-10C

d. 32-37C

A

14. Fresh frozen plasma that is stored at -18C or lower has a shelf life of:

a. 6 months

b. 1 year

c. 2 years

d. 5 years

B

15. When a blood product is stored at 1-6C and the hermetic seal has been broken, the expiration date becomes:

a. 24 hours

b. 6 hours

c. 48 hours

d. 8 hours

A

16. The optimum temperature for thawing fresh frozen plasma is:

a. -18C

b. -10C

c. 30-37C

d. 56C

C

17. According to FDA regulations, if blood is to be transported, the blood temperature must be kept between:

a. 2-8C

b. 1-10C

c. 1-6C

d. 4-6C

B

18. Which blood group system was discovered first?

a. abo

b. mns

c. p

d. rh

A

19. An amorph is gene:

a. that is expressed in the heterozygous state

b. that is expressed in homozygous state

c. with no directly observable product

d. with an observable variable effect

C

20. Production of more antigen in the homozygous state than in the heterozygous state is referred to as:

a. dosage effect

b. antigenic determination

c. independent segregation

d. prozone

A

21. Unexpected antibodies that react at 37C are:

a. usually IgM antibodies

b. usually naturally occuring antibodies

c. considered not clinically significant

d. considered most clinically significant

D

22. Naturally occuring antibodies are found regularly in which system?

a. abo

b. rh

c. kell

d. kidd

A

23. Select the INCORRECT statement below. Naturally occuring antibodies:

a. react best in saline

b. react best at RT or 4C

c. do not usually cross the placenta

d. are usually IgG

D

24. Immune antibodies may be produced by:

a. injection of purified blood group substances

b. pregnancy

c. repeated blood transfusions

d. aota

D

25. Anti-A1 is a seed extract from:

a. ulex europeus

b. vicia graminea

c. arachis hypogea

d. dolichos biflorus

D

26. The frequency of Group A individuals in the US is:

a. 4%

b. 9%

c. 41%

d. 46%

C

Group B individuals have:

a. a antigens on their red cells

b. anti-a in their serum

c. neither anti-a nor anti-b in serum

d. anti-b in their serum

B

Red blood cells of which blood group will not be agglutinated by anti-a,b typing serum?

a. a

b. b

c. ab

d. o

D

Red blood cells of which blood group react most strongly with anti-H?

a. ab

b. a1

c. o

d. b

C

The reagent made from the seeds of dolichos biflorus is:

a. anti-a1

b. anti-a,b

c. anti-b

d. anti-h

A

The antigen most commonly tested for in the rh system is:

a. E

b. C

c. D

d. e

C

Which of the following is true of D^u?

a. D^u cannot be inherited

b. D^u is a variant of the Rho (D) antigen

c. D^u cells should not be considered Rho (D) negative when used as donor blood

d. D^u is common in Caucasians

B

Which is not true of D^u antigens?

a. D^u antigens are fairly common in blacks

b. D^u cells usually appear to be negative

c. D^u cells must be incubated at 4C for one hour

d. D^u cells are incubated at 37C, then tested by the antiglobulin procedure

C

Anti-C will not react with which of the following?

a. Rh1 Rh2 cells

b. Rh1 Rh1 cells

c. rh cells

d. rh rh cells

C

Anti-E will react with which of the following cells?

a. rh cells

b. Rh1 rh cells

c. Rho rh cells

d. Rh2 Rh2 cells

D

Anti-c can be formed by persons with which genotype?

a. R1R2

b. R1R1

c. R2r

d. rr

B

Anti-hr' will not react with:

a. rh cells

b. Rh1rh cells

c. Rh1Rh1 cells

d. Rh2Rh2 cells

C

Anti-hr" will react with:

a. Rhzrh2 cells

b. Rh1Rh1 cells

c. Rh2Rh2 cells

d. RhzRhz cells

B

The f antigen refers to:

a. Ce

b. cE

c. CE

d. ce

D

The symbol for the bombay blood group is:

a. Oh

b. OH

c. Ho

d. HO

A

All but one of the following antibodies will be detected in the serum of bombay genotype:

a. anti-a

b. anti-b

c. anti-h

d. anti-oh

D

The system composed of antigens found primarily in saliva and plasma is:

a. lutheran

b. lewis

c. p

d. rh

B

In the duffy blood group system, the most common antibody detected is:

a. anti-fya

b. anti-fyb

c. anti-fy4

d. anti-fy5

A

Which of the following is usually IgG, immune, and antiglobulin (Coombs') reactive?

a. anti-lea

b. anti-jka

c. anti-I

d. anti-N

B

The antigen I is:

a. weakly reactive with anti-I at 4C

b. poorly developed on cord red blood cells

c. a rare antigen

d. not found in blacks

B

Anti-I is most commonly detected in which crossmatch phase?

a. RT

b. 37C

c. coombs' phase

d. aota

A

Select the incorrect statement:

a. anti-I is often the causative antibody in cases of cold hemagglutinin disease (CHAD)

b. anti-I reacts best with cord blood cells

c. anti-I can be found as weak cold agglutinin in the serum of normal individuals

d. anti-I agglutinin are usually clinically insignificant; however, they may mask more significant antibodies, such as anti-P1, anti-M and anti-Le

B

Which of the following is not true of anti-lea?

a. occurs in le (a-b-) individuals

b. is commonly implicated in HDN

c. is neutralized by lewis blood group substance

d. S composed mostly of igm molecules

B

What percentage of the population lacks the Kell (K) antigen?

a. 0.02%

b. 2.00%

c. 10.00%

d. 90.00%

D

Select the incorrect statement:

a. 90% of the population is Kell (K) negative

b. anti-K reacts best in saline at RT

c. anti-K can cause HDN

d. next to Rho (D), the Kell (K) antigen is the most immunogenic

B

anti-k is also known as:

a. Anti-K1

b. Anti-McLeod

c. Anti-Ku

d. Anti-Cellano

D

Approximately what percentage of blacks have the Fy(a-b-) phenotype?

a. 1%

b. 9%

c. 22%

d. 68%

C

Recent findings suggest there is an association between the Fy(a-b-) phenotype and resistance to:

a. chronic granulomatous disease

b. malaria

c. syphilis

d. viral hepatitis

B

The antigen Tj0 is part of which system?

a. rh

b. mns

c. kidd

d. p

D

Approximately what percentage of males are Xga positive?

a. 11.3%

b. 36.05

c. 65.6%

d. 88.0%

C

Approximately what percentage of females are Xga positive?

a. 11.3%

b. 36.05

c. 65.6%

d. 88.0%

A

When color coding is used for donor blood labels, what color is group A?

a. pink

b. blue

c. yellow

d. black

C

What is the standard acceptable color for anti-A grouping serum?

a. blue-green

b. colorless

c. red

d. yellow

A

Polyspecific antiglobulin serum is sometimes colored:

a. blue

b. yellow

c. green

d. pink

C

What is the color of the dye added to commercially prepared anti-B blood group serum?

a. yellow

b. blue

c. green

d. nota

A

Anti-A, B serum:

a. is used to confirm group o individuals

b. is obtained from A1B individuals

c. is obtained from A2B individuals

d. agglutinates group o cells

A

Which of the following is not a suitable medium for suspensions of red cells for blood banking?

a. saline

b. serum

c. albumin

d. distilled water

D

Which of the following enzymes is not used in blood bank procedures?

a. ficin

b. amylase

c. bromelin

d. papain

B

Enzymes prevent detection of antibodies in the:

a. kidd system

b. duffy system

c. lewis system

d. rh system

B

The technique used to remove antibody bound to sensitized red cells is called:

a. adsorption

b. elution

c. titer

d. translocation

B

A cold autoagglutinin will usually have specificity for the:

a. D antigen

b. e antigen

c. I antigen

d. K antigen

C

Paroxysmal cold hemoglonuria is often associated with antibodies in which system?

a. mns

b. p

c. lewis

d. rh

B

Forward grouping is using:

a. reagent A1 and b cells to detect serum anti-A and anti-B

b. anti-a and anti-b antisera to detect cell antigens a and/or b

c. anti-a,b to confirm group o

d. using anti-a1 to detect subgroups of a

B

Reverse grouping difficulties may be encountered in the following instances:

a. newborn infants

b. geriatric patients

c. patient undergoing chemotherapy

d. aota

D

A patient that forward groups an ab but reverse groups as group b probably is a group a2b with:

a. anti-a1

b. anti-a2

c. anti-b

d. anti-d

A

The most dangerous and unexpected antibodies in the blood bank are those that react at:

a. 4C

b. 25C

c. 32C

d. 37C

D

Antiglobulin reagent:

a. may be produced in laboratory animals

b. is produced in human beings

c. never detects complement-dependent antibodies

d. occurs naturally in most human beings

A

Which of the following drugs will not cause a positive direct antiglobulin (Coombs') test?

a. penicillin

b. alpha-methyldopa

c. cephalothin

d. aspirin

D

What is the optimum incubation temperature for IAT?

a. 4C

b. 22C

c. 37C

d. 56C

C

The DAT using polyspecific AHG serum is not of value in the:

a. diagnosis of the HDN

b. diagnosis of HTR

c. diagnosis of drug-induced hemolytic anemia

d. differentiation of cell surface coating (complement or IgG)

D

Albumin-reactive IgG antibodies are about ______ in length

a. 1000 angstroms

b. 600 angstroms

c. 500 angstroms

d. 250 angstorms

D

By common usage, a polyspecific anti-human serum at least contains antibodies to:

a. igg and c4

b. igg and igm

c. igg, iga, and c3d

d. igg and c3d

D

The DAT is most useful for:

a. detection of HDN

b. compatibility testing

c. leukoagglutinin assays

d. detection of unexpected antibodies

A

80. An IAT is incubated for:

a. 15-30 mins at 25C

b. 25-60 mins at 37C

c. 5-10 mins at 4C

d. 15-60 mins at 56C

B

79. In a DAT, you are testing a patient for:

a. cells

b. serum

c. cells against donor serum

d. serum against donor cells

A

81. The RBCs used for screening patient's serum for unexpected antibodies should be of what group?

a. o

b. a

c. b

d. ab

A

82. A false positive antiglobulin test can be caused by:

a. inadequate washing

b. prozone reaction

c. elution due to delayed washing

d. bacterial contamination of reagents

D

83. A false negative indirect antiglobulin test can be caused by:

a. Test cells beimg direct Coomb's positive

b. Bacterial contamination of test cells

c. Inadequate washing

d. Chemical contamination

C

84. Laboratories must check each negative antiglubin test using red cells sensilized with igg. After the addition of these cells, which of the following is NOT necessarily true?

a. Active antiglobutin serum was added

b. Patient serum was added

c. The washing phase was performed satisfactority

d. Antiglobutin serum has not reacted with the original red cells being tested

B

85,. Fresh serum (less than 48 hours old must used for compatibility testing to preserve.

a, Chelating agents

b. Sialic acid

c. Complement

d. Autoantibodies

C

86. Mixed field agglutination is observed under the microscope as clumps or agglutination of cells among many free cells.Which of the following is the MOST COMMON REASON for mixed field agglutination?

a. Twin chimeras

b.Trasfused cells mingling with patient cells

c.Weak sutgroups of A or B

d. Antigen strength altered in disease states

B

87. The term "type and screen" refers to;

a. Typing the patient's blood for rare antigens

b. Screening donor units for rare antigens

c. Testing the patient's blood for ABO and Rh type and unexpected antibodies

d. Identification of unexpected antibodies in the patient's blood

C

88. All but on of the following anitbodies will usually be detected in the room temperature phase of crossmatch:

A. Anti-JKa

b. Anti_liea

c. Anti-M

d.Anti-P1

A

89. A positive antigen-antibody reaction is indicated by:

A. Antibody formation

b. Antigen formation

c. Agglutination or hemolysis

d. No agglutination or hemolysis

C

90. Which of the following antibodies usually gives negative reactions in enzyme test procedures?

a. Anti-Jka

b. Anti-Fya

c. Anti-D

d. Anti-lea

B

91. One of the eight units crossmatched is incompatible in the antiglobulin phase of testing. The most likely antibody is:

a. Anti-K

b. Anti-Fya

c. Anti-Jka

d. Anti-K

A

92. If a recipient is incompatible with only one donor the most probable cause is:

a. A recipient antibody to a high incidence antigen

b. A recipient antibody to low incidence antigen

c. A clerical error

d. Recipient serum was not added

B

93. Hemolysis requires complement activation.Which of the folloowing are required for complement activation?

a. Calcium and magnesium

b. Calcium and potassium

c. Calcium and sudium

d. Sodium and potassium

A

94. The initial response to a foriegn antigen is known as "primary response"HIs primary response usually takes how long to occur?

a. It never occurs

b. 10-12 months

c. 2-6 months

d. 8-10 months

C

95. Secondary response to the same foriegn antigen is known as:

a. Anamnestic response

b. IgG response

c. Natural response

d. Ab response

A

96. Platelet concentrates are most likely to be of benefit in:

a. Hemolylic disease of the newborn

b. Thrombocytopenia

c. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

d. Hypofibrinogenemia

B

97. Cryoprecipitated antihemophilic factor (AHF) is not recommended for the treatment of:

a. Hemophilia A

b. Von Willebrand's disease

c. Hemophilia B

d. Hypofibrigenemia

C

98. Red blood cells are the product of choice for:

a. supplying deficient coagulation factors

b. thrombocytopenia

c. exchange transfusion

d. increasing oxygen carrying capacity

D

99. Deglycerolized frozen rbcs must be transferred within how many hours?

a. 4

b. 21

c. 24

d. 72

C

100. Recurrent nonhemolytic febrile transfusions are usually caused by all of the following except:

a. anti-hla antibodies

b. platelet antibodies

c. red cell antibodies

d. white cell antibodies

C