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The speech sounds made by infants
a. are specific to the language of their culture.
b. represent sounds from two or three different languages.
c. include speech sounds used in virtually all languages.
d. are unrelated to eventual language development.
e. are different from those used in any language.
The correct answer is C. Babies are capable of making all the sounds used in all human languages
In the Stanford-Binet test, IQ is defined as
a. ability to learn and adapt.
b. MA/CA x 100.
c. CA/MA x 100.
d. the sum of the verbal and non-verbal scales.
e. the person's mental age.
The correct answer is B. Mental Age (abilities) divided by Chronological Age (in years) multiplied by 100.
Studies of identical twins do not provide conclusive evidence of the effect of genetics on intelligence, because
a. identical twins reared apart are usually selectively placed in environments that are as similar as possible.
b. the studies are too few in number to be conclusive.
c. identical twins reared together do not share exactly the same environment.
d. the twins who are subjects in such studies typically have not been separated soon enough to rule out environmental effects.
e. identical twins share only about 75 percent of the same genes.
The correct answer is A. Although identical twins share 100 percent of genes, they are not identical beings. Environment does make a difference. However, identical twins are often reared in environments that are relatively similar in terms of intellectual development. Therefore, it is impossible to say what percent of their progress is the result of genes, and what percent is the result of their environments.
If a test measures what it is intended to measure, it has
a. objectivity.
b. reliability.
c. replicability.
d. validity.
e. standardization.
The correct answer is D. Validity answers the question "does the test measure what it originally set out to measure?"
An emotion is comprised of all of the following EXCEPT
a. changes in physiology.
b. cognitive awareness.
c. possible changes in feeling.
d. goal-directed behavior.
e. All of the choices ARE part of an emotion.
The correct answer is E. All emotions have a physiological basis, cognitive awareness, a sense of goal-directedness, and possible changes in feeling.
When people of varying cultures were asked to match facial expressions with specific emotions
a. there was little agreement, even among people from the same culture.
b. there was agreement within a specific culture, but not across cultures.
c. people from underdeveloped societies had responses not seen in industrial societies.
d. there was remarkable agreement among members of all cultures.
e. all cultures had exactly the same expressions.
The correct answer is D. The six basic emotions (happiness, sadness, disgust, surprise, anger, and fear) are universally recognized, suggesting that there is a biological basis for the display of these emotions.
4 principles of psychology
organism, motivation, cognition, competence
Began the first experimental psychology lab in 1870 at the University of Leipzig, Germany
Wilhelm Wundt
Structuralism
Edward Titchener
Examined the structure of the mind, analyzed structure and content of mental states by introspection, and was concerned with reducing experience to its basic parts
Functionalism
William James
Study of how the mind adapts us to our environment. Influenced by Charles Darwin. Felt conscious experience is adaptive and always changing.
Behaviorism
Ivan Pavlov, John B Watson, BF Skinner
Stressed the study of observable behavior, not unobservable consciousness. Behavior is assumed to be wholly determined by environmental factors.
Psychoanalysis
Sigmund Freud
Emphasized the study of unconscious mental processes; argued that people are driven by sexual urges and that the most emotional conflicts date back to early childhood experiences.
Gestalt
Max Wertheimer
Emphasized perception and that stimuli are perceived as whole entities rather than parts put together, (Whole may be greater than the sum of parts)
Humanistic
Carl Rodgers, Abraham Maslow
Stressed that humans have enormous potential for personal growth. Emphasized importance of free will, the human ability to make choices, and the uniqueness of the individual.
Cognitive
Jean Piaget
Studied the internal, mental representations that are used in perceiving, remembering, thinking, and understanding
central nervous system
in bone, responsible for processing information and directing actions.
peripheral nervous system
nerves no encased in bone, main function to carry messages to and from central nervous system
2 divisions: somatic and autonomic
somatic division (also, efferent and afferent)
division of peripheral
carries messages inward to the central nervous system from sensory organs (afferent or sensory neurons) and outward (efferent or motor neurons) to the muscles for action.
reflex arc
when an afferent message travels to the spinal cord and an efferent message for action immediate returns to the muscle, bypassing the brain
autonomic division
involuntary functions. 2 branches: sympathetic and parasympathetic
parasympathetic
quiets the body and conserves energy - decrease heart rate
sympathetic
activates body for emergencies - releases adrenaline
cerebral cortex
outer surface of the brain surrounding the cerebral hemispheres. Small grooves (sulci) and large grooves (fissures) and bulges (gyri). Processes all perceptions and complex thoughts (most recently developed)
hindbrain
extension of the spinal cord and oldest portion of the brain
medulla
part of the hindbrain, an oblong structure at the top of the spinal cord that controls many vital life-support functions such as breathing. heart rate, and blood pressure
pons
part of the hindbrain; located above the medulla, connects the lower brain regions with the higher, important for sleep, dreaming, and arousal
cerebellum
part of the hindbrain; located at the rear of the brain and controls movement, coordination, balance, muscle tone, and learning motor skills
Reticular Activating System (RAS)
monitors the general level of activity in the hindbrain and maintains a state of arousals, keeps the brain awake even during sleep. Part of reticular formation which extends to the upper border of midbrain
Midbrain
it relays sensory information from the spinal cord to the forebrain. Where the upper portion of the RAS is located
Forebrain
most developed part of the brain, also the largest
cerebrum
largest part of the forebrain; responsible for complex mental activities, 2 cerebral hemispheres, outer surface is the cerebral cortex. 4 major lobes (frontal, parietal, occipital, and temporal)
temporal lobe
lobe of the cerebrum; contains auditory cortex
occipital lobe
lobe of the cerebrum; contains visual cortex
parietal lobe
lobe of the cerebrum; somatosensory area that manages skin senses
frontal lobe
lobe of the cerebrum; controls voluntary movement, includes motor cortex
limbic system
part of forebrain, controls emotion, motivation, memory amygdala and hippocampus
corpus callosum
enormous communication network that connects left and right cerebral hemispheres
thalamus
part of forebrain; relays and translates information from all of the sense except smell to higher parts of the brain
hypothalamus
part of forebrain; major role in biological drives, hunger thirst, body temperature regulates pituitary gland
Psychologists who are interested in behavioral similarities and differences between species are
a. biological psychologists.
b. experimental psychologists.
c. comparative psychologists.
d. animal psychologists.
e. physiological psychologists.
c. comparative psychologists.
Employee morale and staff cooperation would be the concern of a(n)
a. clinical psychologist.
b. forensic psychologist.
c. social psychologist.
d. industrial and organizational psychologist.
e. business psychologist.
The correct answer is D. Industrial and organizational psychologists work with management and staff in the world of business.
To determine if people are coming to a full stop at an intersection with a new stop sign, the best research method would be a(n)
a. naturalistic observation.
b. experiment.
c. case study.
d. correlation.
e. survey.
The correct answer is A. In naturalistic observation, the researcher tries to be as inconspicuous as possible so as not to influence the situation.
If a researcher wished to determine whether heat causes an increase in aggression, the best approach would be to
a. observe people in a public park on hot and cold days.
b. compare and cross-reference weather reports with crime statistics.
c. recruit participants to a university study, put half in a cold room and half in a hot room, and then observe their behavior.
d. compare crime rates in countries that are hot vs. cooler.
e. ask people if they feel irritable and prone to aggression in the hot weather.
The correct answer is C. The only way to determine whether one variable causes another is to do an experiment. In an experiment, one factor (variable) is manipulated while all other variables are held constant. Non-experimental methods yield correlational results only. Researchers cannot make causal statements from correlational results.
In an experiment, subjects given various amounts of alcohol drive a course marked by orange pylons. The independent variable in this experiment is the
a. various amounts of alcohol.
b. subjects' driving ability before alcohol consumption.
c. subjects' driving ability after alcohol consumption.
d. the number of orange pylons hit.
e. speed through the obstacle course.
The correct answer is A. An independent variable is the variable that experimenters change while holding all other variables constant. In this case, some participants got more alcohol and some got less. Hitting pylons is an outcome (dependent variable) of the amount of alcohol consumed. The researchers did not manipulate individual driving ability.
Scientists use replication in order to
a. increase validity.
b. increase research grants.
c. show cause and effect.
d. become more confident about their conclusions across a variety of situations.
e. satisfy ethics requirements.
The correct answer is D. Replication involves repeating a study to determine whether the results are supported, or whether they occurred due to chance.
The psychological perspective which includes the assumption that people are often unaware of the real motives behind their behavior is
a. psychoanalysis.
b. trait theory.
c. behaviorism.
d. cognitive psychology.
e. humanistic psychology.
The correct answer is A. Psychoanalytic theory assumes that the unconscious plays a major role in human behavior.
The theorist who claimed that he could make any dozen healthy babies into anything he wished through conditioning was
a. Wilhelm Wundt.
b. Sigmund Freud.
c. Carl Rogers
d. B. F. Skinner.
e. John Watson.
The correct answer is E. Watson was an extreme behaviorist.
he primary job of most brain cells is
a. transmitting messages.
b. picking up sensations from the environment.
c. thinking and reasoning.
d. providing the brain with nutrients.
e. maintaining homeostasis.
The correct answer is A. All brain cells transmit messages.
The neuron's "senders" are the
a. myelin sheaths.
b. dendrites.
c. axon terminal buttons.
d. pons.
e. receptor sites.
The correct answer is C. The axon terminal button at the end of the neuron (nerve cell) communicates with other neurons by secreting neurotransmitters, which cross the synaptic gap.
Activity within a nerve cell is _____; activity between nerve cells is _______.
a. positive; negative
b. electrical; chemical
c. chemical; electrical
d. electrical; electrical
e. chemical; chemical
The correct answer is B. Activity within cells is electrical and operates on the "all-or-none" principle. Chemicals called neurotransmitters communicate information from one neuron to another by drifting across the synaptic gap
The spinal cord is part of the
a. peripheral nervous system.
b. cerebellum.
c. central nervous system.
d. reticular activating system.
e. parasympathetic system.
The correct answer is C. The brain and spinal cord make up the central nervous system; all other parts of the body are controlled by the peripheral nervous system.
The brain's relay station which receives incoming sensory messages and passes them on to the cerebral cortex is the
a. corpus callosum.
b. hypothalamus.
c. limbic system.
d. thalamus.
e. basal ganglia.
The correct answer is D. The thalamus determines which messages get sent to the various parts of the brain.
The part of the brain chiefly responsible for emotion is the
a. limbic system.
b. reticular activating system.
c. thalamus.
d. corpus callosum.
e. hippocampus.
The correct answer is A. The limbic system is the emotional center of the brain.
The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is MOST likely to be activated when you are
a. sleeping.
b. frightened.
c. studying.
d. talking to a good friend.
e. dreaming.
The correct answer is B. The sympathetic nervous system arouses the body and activates the "fight or flight" response.
The association area of the cortex which seems to play a role in planning and problem solving is located in the
a. amygdala.
b. frontal lobes.
c. temporal lobes.
d. occipital lobes.
e. parietal lobes.
The correct answer is B. The frontal lobes are responsible for higher thought processes.
Sarah and James both have brown eyes, but their daughter has blue eyes. What is the MOST likely explanation for this?
a. The child is adopted.
b. James is not the child's father.
c. Eye color is not determined by the dominant-recessive principle.
d. The child's eye color will change when she is older.
e. Both James and Sarah carry a recessive gene for blue eyes.
The correct answer is E. Eye color is determined by the dominant-recessive principle. Whenever a dominant gene is present, it will show up. Both parents have brown eyes, so both have at least one dominant gene. A child will display a recessive trait when he or she receives a recessive gene from both parents. Therefore, in this case, we know that both parents have one gene for brown eyes and one recessive gene for blue eyes, which they each gave to their daughter.
The minimum amount of stimulus energy required to stimulate a receptor is the
a. just noticeable difference (j.n.d).
b. wavelength.
c. absolute threshold.
d. pattern theory.
e. stimulus-receptor prompt.
The correct answer is C. The absolute threshold is the minimum amount of stimulus energy required to stimulate a receptor 50% of the time.
Which of the following is TRUE about perceiving objects?
a. Sensory adaptation allows us to focus on one stimuli among many.
b. Our eyes must continuously quiver in order to counteract the effects of sensory adaptation.
c. Weber's law is another term for the absolute threshold.
d. Perception occurs independently of expectations.
e. Perception is the same as sensation.
The correct answer is B. If our eyes did not quiver, we would eventually no longer notice objects in our field of vision because of the principle of sensory adaptation.
Cones, unlike rods, will respond to
a. movement but not color.
b. color but not movement.
c. movement but not brightness.
d. brightness but not movement.
e. both movement and colo
The correct answer is E. Rods respond to light; cones respond to color and motion.
The LEAST efficient of the human senses is
a. taste.
b. touch.
c. hearing.
d. vision.
e. smell.
The correct answer is A. Taste is our least efficient sense, and much of it depends on smell.
Movements of the head are detected by
a. rods and cones.
b. the semicircular canals.
c. free nerve endings.
d. Krause end bulbs.
e. the ear bones in the middle ear.
The correct answer is B. The semicircular canals are filled with fluid. The angle of the fluid provides feedback and helps maintain equilibrium.
Todd is shown a card with the stimuli AAABBBCCC and is asked to report what he sees. Todd states that there are three groups of different letters. This illustrates the rule of perceptual organization known as
a. similarity.
b. gestalt.
c. closure.
d. continuation.
e. proximity.
The correct answer is A. Similarity refers to a tendency to group similar patterns together.
Binocular vision provides clues regarding
a. depth and distance.
b. brightness and hue.
c. timber and pitch.
d. color and size.
e. complexity and shape.
The correct answer is A. Binocular vision supplies information on two characteristics, depth and distance. ("Bi" means two, as in "Binocular"). True depth perception requires the use of both eyes.
Delirium tremens are associated with
a. addiction to any drug.
b. Parkinson's disease.
c. withdrawal from alcohol.
d. anxiety disorders.
e. withdrawal from stimulants.
The correct answer is C. Delirium tremens are a sign of physical withdrawal from alcohol addiction. The "DTs" are marked by agitation, tremors, nightmares, and even hallucinations.
Which of the following is TRUE about hypnosis?
a. Under hypnosis, people can be forced to do things that violate their morals.
b. Everyone can be hypnotized.
c. Psychologists generally agree that hypnosis is indeed a divided state of consciousness.
d. Hypnosis has enabled some people to go through surgical procedures without anesthetic.
e. Recovered memories retrieved under hypnosis are usually reliable.
The correct answer is D. Not everyone can be hypnotized, but for those who can, hypnosis can provide remarkable results. Caution should be exercised about accepting the validity of recovered memories, and hypnosis remains a controversial topic in psychology.
"Learning is any relatively permanent change in behavior" is an incomplete definition of learning because it does not include the role of
a. growth.
b. conditioning.
c. cognition.
d. experience.
e. reinforcement.
The correct answer is D. Experiental knowledge, which could have its roots in principles of learning such as conditioning and reinforcement, underlies much of our learning.
When a child learns not to use swear words in front of his parents, but does so in front of friends, the child is exhibiting the principle of
a. stimulus discrimination.
b. classical conditioning.
c. stimulus generalization.
d. selective extinction.
e. response generalization.
The correct answer is A. The child has learned to tell apart (discriminate) between his parents and his friends.
It is often suggested that classically conditioned responses are _____, whereas operantly conditioned responses are _____.
a. voluntary, involuntary
b. aversive, appetitive
c. aversive, reflexive
d. reflexes, voluntary
e. appetitive, aversive
The correct answer is D. Classical conditioning begins with unlearned (reflexive) behavior and pairs it with a new stimulus. In operant conditioning, the (voluntary) behavior comes first, and then it is followed by a reward, a punishment, or by no outcome.
A psychology student is training a rat to climb a ladder. She first rewards the rat for any movement it makes toward the ladder, and then only when the rat actually makes contact with the ladder. Eventually, the rat must successfully climb the ladder in order to obtain the reward. This student has used the behavioral technique of
a. shaping.
b. stimulus discrimination.
c. negative reinforcement.
d. positive reinforcement.
e. modeling.
The correct answer is A. Shaping is a technique of gradually changing behavior by reinforcing successive approximations of the behavior (closer and closer to the target behavior).
In general, learning takes place more rapidly with
a. continuous reinforcement.
b. partial reinforcement.
c. random reinforcement.
d. no reinforcement.
e. intermittent reinforcement.
The correct answer is A. Learning takes place faster when the behavior is rewarded every time it occurs (continuously). Intermittent reinforcement (partial, random, etc) is marked by slower learning but greater resistance to extinction. According to Skinner, learning does not take place in the absence of reinforcement.
Systematically applying principles of operant conditioning to influence and change behavior is referred to as
a. observational learning.
b. mind control.
c. classical conditioning.
d. psychotherapy.
e. behavior modification.
The correct answer is E. In behavior modification, behavior is changed by altering the rewards and punishments that are maintaining the behavior.
Jenna is very frustrated because her cat keeps jumping up on the counter, even though she had spent a lot of time trying to train him not to do so. Which concept of learning should Jenna MOST be aware of?
a. Negative reinforcement
b. Positive reinforcement
c. Instinctual drift
d. Preparedness
e. Latent learning
The correct answer is C. Instinctual drift means that species-specific behaviors (instincts) sometime interfere with and over-ride learning. In this case, cats naturally like to investigate and survey their landscape from high places.
A parent who deliberately ignores a child's temper tantrum is attempting to discourage tantrums by
a. negative reinforcement.
b. extinction.
c. positive reinforcement.
d. operant avoidance.
e. learned helplessness.
The correct answer is B. According to the principle of extinction, when a behavior is no longer followed by reinforcement, the behavior decreases in frequency because it is no longer being maintained by reinforcers.
Being aware of the sound presently being made in this room is an example of
a. recall.
b. sensory memory.
c. retroactive interference.
d. flashbulb memory.
e. short-term memory.
The correct answer is B. Sensory memory holds current information recently gathered by the senses for only an instant.
Ishmael wishes to remember the phone number of an attractive woman he just met. The MOST likely strategy he will use is
a. mnemonics.
b. semantics.
c. relearning.
d. rehearsal.
e. recall.
The correct answer is D. Rehearsal is the intentional repetition of information in order to improve short-term memory
A "fill in the blank" type of examination would usually measure
a. explicit memory.
b. recognition.
c. relearning.
d. recall.
e. chunking.
The correct answer is D. Recall is a form of remembering that requires the person to bring information out of memory without many retrieval cues.
If you memorize the letters FBIKEGUCLA as FBI-KEG-UCLA, you have used a technique known as
a. chunking.
b. recognition.
c. relearning.
d. encoding visual characteristic.
e. RNA.
The correct answer is A. Chunking involves organizing units of information into meaningful groups.
The basic sounds of a language are called
a. morphemes.
b. semantics.
c. syntax.
d. vocabulary.
e. phonemes.
The correct answer is E. Phonemes are the basic sounds, not necessarily meaningful in isolation, that form the building blocks of language.
The regulation of temperature in humans and other mammals provides a good example of the general physiological process of
a. arousal.
b. habituation.
c. homeostasis.
d. object incentive.
e. metabolism.
The correct answer is C. Homeostasis is a state of equilibrium or balance in any physiological system.
The sex hormone in females is _____ and the sex hormone in males is _____.
a. estrogen; androgen
b. endorphins; androgens
c. estrogen; endorphins
d. androgen; estrogen
e. androgen; glycogen
The correct answer is A. Females have high levels of estrogen and males have high levels of androgens (e.g., testosterone.)
The correct order of Masters' and Johnson's stages of sexual response is:
a. arousal, plateau, resolution, orgasm.
b. excitement, plateau, resolution, orgasm.
c. excitement, resolution, orgasm, plateau.
d. arousal, resolution, plateau, orgasm.
e. excitement, plateau, orgasm, resolution.
The correct answer is E. Excitement is the building up of arousal, plateau is an increase in excitement, orgasm is muscular contractions, and resolution is a return to a normal non-aroused state.
The correct order of Maslow's needs hierarchy is:
a. physiological needs, safety, love and belonging, esteem, self-actualization.
b. safety, physiological needs, love and belonging, esteem, self-actualization.
c. physiological needs, safety, esteem, love and belonging, self-actualization.
d. physiological needs, self-actualization, safety, love and belonging, esteem.
e. physiological needs, love and belonging, safety, esteem, self-actualization.
The correct answer is A. The correct order from lowest to highest is: physiological needs, safety, love and belonging, esteem, and self-actualization.
At conception, the original fertilized cell consists of 46
a. chromosomes.
b. genes.
c. molecules of DNA.
d. gametes.
e. nuclei.
The correct answer is A. All humans have 46 chromosomes arranged in 23 pairs. Each pair has one chromosome from the mother and one from the father.
harmful substance that can cross the placenta and harm the fetus is called a(an)
a. contaminant.
b. teratogen.
c. carcinogen.
d. enzyme.
e. pathogen.
The correct answer is B. Examples of teratogens, which originate outside the mother's body, include alcohol, drugs, viruses, infections, and byproducts of cigarettes.
Jean Piaget was a Swiss psychologist who was interested PRIMARILY in children's
a. physical development.
b. sexual development.
c. cognitive development.
d. emotional development.
e. moral development
The correct answer is C. Piaget's theory includes the sensorimotor, preoperational, and formal operational stages of children's cognitive development.
Joe is four years old. He watches as you pour out the same amount of juice into two identical glasses, one for him and one for his friend. He correctly tells you that there is the same amount of juice in each glass. However, if you pour the contents of one of the glasses into a taller, thinner glass, he says he wants that one "because there's more juice in it." Joe has not yet mastered the principle of
a. egocentrism.
b. object permanence.
c. conservation.
d. correspondence.
e. concreteness.
The correct answer is C. Conservation is the ability to understand that certain attributes of objects or situations remain the same despite superficial changes in their appearance.
According to Erik Erikson, adolescents are primarily dealing with concerns related to
a. generativity versus self-absorption.
b. identity versus confusion.
c. trust versus mistrust.
d. ego integrity vs despair.
e. intimacy versus isolation.
The correct answer is B. Adolescents struggle with developing an identity of their own (positive outcome) vs. failing to establish a unique identity (confusion).
Psychodynamic theory was originally developed by
a. Carl Rogers.
b. Carl Jung.
c. Alfred Adler.
d. Erich Fromm.
e. Sigmund Freud.
The correct answer is E. Freud developed psychodynamic (or psychoanalytic) theory in the late 1800s.
Which of the following statements BEST describes the structure of personality as Sigmund Freud saw it?
a. The ego originates from the superego.
b. The id mediates between the superego and the ego.
c. The superego is the most powerful unit in the personality.
d. The ego mediates between the id and the superego.
e. The id originates from the superego.
The correct answer is D. The ego is the executive of the personality. It operates on the reality principle and finds ways to satisfy the demands of both the id and the superego.
According to Freudian theory, the Oedipus complex is resolved through the process of
a. regression.
b. identification.
c. modeling.
d. repression.
e. sublimation.
The correct answer is B. The defense mechanism of identification protects the ego from unacceptable thoughts by identifying with the same-sex parent and giving up the desire to possess the opposite-sex parent.
In breaking away from Freud, Alfred Adler proposed that people
a. inherit the learned behaviors of their ancestors.
b. suffer from fixations in the early psychosexual stages.
c. attempt to overcome feelings of inferiority.
d. suffer from strong biological urges.
e. have an ancestral memory called the collective unconscious.
The correct answer is C. Adler said that we attempt to overcome feelings of inferiority by striving to be superior (i.e., to self-actualize).
Social learning theory emphasizes the phenomenon of
a. observational learning.
b. positive reinforcement.
c. self-actualization.
d. introversion-extroversion.
e. personality types.
The correct answer is A. Social learning theory was developed by Albert Bandura; it emphasizes observational, or vicarious, learning - also known as modeling.
If you would enjoy roaming around the world but would also enjoy the rewards of settling down, you are experiencing a(n)
a. bi-dimensional conflict.
b. approach-approach conflict.
c. avoidance-avoidance conflict.
d. approach-avoidance conflict.
e. double approach-avoidance conflict.
b. approach-approach conflict.
A person who is overly energetic and hyperactive, makes grandiose plans, and experiences feelings of omnipotence is
a. schizoid.
b. hysterical.
c. manic.
d. obsessive.
e. anal-retentive.
The correct answer is C. Being manic is an extreme high, often characterized by behaviors that do not reflect reality. At the end of the manic episode, the person often swings the other way into a severe depression.
People diagnosed as having a(n) _______ disorder outnumber all other groups of mentally ill individuals.
a. conversion
b. psychotic
c. affective
d. anxiety
e. personality
The correct answer is D. Anxiety disorders are the most frequently occurring disorders and include generalized anxiety disorder, phobias, PTSD (post-traumatic stress disorder), and obsessive-compulsive disorder. Mood disorders are the second most frequently occurring disorders.
A seemingly charming, candid, generous person who lies freely, forms no close ties, and is selfish and remorseless, is probably a(n)
a. antisocial personality.
b. histrionic personality disorder.
c. narcissistic personality.
d. schizoid personality.
e. autistic personality.
The correct answer is A. Also known as sociopaths or psychopaths, people with antisocial personality disorder have no conscience and no sense of remorse. They view other people opportunistically.
The term dissociative identity disorder is synonymous with
a. multiple personality disorder.
b. schizophrenia.
c. hysteria.
d. pathological impulse control.
e. sexual dysfunction.
The correct answer is A. Dissociative identity disorder is a newer term for multiple personality disorder.
The psychodynamic approach to the treatment of psychological disorders is based on the assumption that maladaptive behavior
a. is learned, and therapy should teach the client more adaptive behavior.
b. is caused by imbalances in biochemical functioning of the brain.
c. occurs when the client no longer feels that life is meaningful.
d. is the result of problems in living.
e. is related to unresolved childhood conflicts.
The correct answer is E. Psychodynamic (Freudian) treatment relies heavily on understanding early life experiences and conflicts, and uncovering the roots of unconscious motivation.
Compared with traditional Freudians, modern psychodynamic therapists tend to give greater emphasis to the
a. patient's social and cultural environment.
b. patient's early childhood experiences.
c. patient's unconscious conflicts.
d. use of applied behavior analysis.
e. role of self-actualization.
The correct answer is A. Although modern psychodynamic therapists still regard early experience and unconscious conflicts as important, they are more likely to give weight to the patient's social and cultural environment.
The ability to understand accurately the feelings of a client is called
a. sympathy.
b. reflection.
c. unconditional positive regard.
d. empathy.
e. congruence.
The correct answer is D. Empathy consists of trying to see the world the way the client sees it.
Note 
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