Micro Final

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181 Terms

1
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The major criteria used in placing bacteria into different groups is based on differences in
A) cell wall structure.
B) cell membrane permeability.
C) presence or absence of flagella.
D) detergent susceptibility.
E) presence or absence of cytoplasmic membrane.
A) cell wall structure.
2
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Cooking oil and gasoline (a hydrocarbon) are NOT amphipathic molecules because they \________.
A. do not have a polar or charged region
B. do not have a nonpolar region
C. are highly reduced molecules
D. have hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions
A. do not have a polar or charged region
3
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Select the statement that is TRUE regarding viroids.
A. They are naked (lacking a protein shell) pieces of DNA.
B. They are naked (lacking a protein shell) pieces of RNA.
C. They are composed of protein encasing DNA.
D. They are composed of both RNA and DNA within a lipid coat.
E. They are known to cause neurodegenerative diseases in animals.
B. They are naked (lacking a protein shell) pieces of RNA.
4
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A molecule with the chemical formula C6H12O6 is probably a
A) polysaccharide
B) phospholipid
C) fatty acid
D) monosaccharide
E) nucleic acid
D) monosaccharide
5
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The difference between simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion is that facilitated diffusion
A) moves materials from a higher to a lower concentration
B) moves materials from a lower to higher concentration
C) requires ATP
D) requires transporter proteins
D) requires transporter proteins
6
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Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, phosphorus, and sulfur may be considered
A) minor elements
B) major elements
C) neutral elements
D) acidic elements
B) major elements
7
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Eukaryotic cells are
A) less complex than prokaryotic cells
B) members of the domains Bacteria and Archaea
C) defined by the presence of a membrane bound nucleus
D) able to reproduce more rapidly than prokaryotes
E) defines by the presence if a cell wall
C) defined by the presence of a membrane bound nucleus
8
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What is the difference between a ribonucleotide and a deoxyribonucleotide?
A. Ribonucleotides contain a sugar with five carbon atoms.
B. Ribonucleotides contain a phosphate group.
C. Ribonucleotides have a hydrogen atom on the 1st carbon of their sugar subunit.
D. Ribonucleotides have a hydroxyl group on the carbon no.2 of their sugar subunit.
D. Ribonucleotides have a hydroxyl group on the carbon no.2 of their sugar subunit.
9
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During which phase of the bacterial growth curve does the total number of viable (live) cells decline?
A) Stationary
B) Lag
C) Exponential
D) Death
D) Death
10
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Mitochondria and chloroplasts are thought to have once been free-living bacteria that invaded another cell.
True
False
False
11
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Which of these scientists were involved in investigating the idea of spontaneous generation?
A) Redi and van Leeuwenhoek
B) van Leeuwenhoek and Pasteur
C) Pasteur and Escherich
D) Redi and Pasteur
D) Redi and Pasteur
12
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Which of the statements about biofilms is true?
A) Biofilms are very rarely involved in human bacterial infections.
B) Biofilms may protect organisms against harmful chemicals.
C) Biofilms are a peptidoglycan-encased community of microorganisms.
D) Biofilms may significantly inhibit bioterm-4remediation efforts.
B) Biofilms may protect organisms against harmful chemicals.
13
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The nucleus
A) is a single phospholipid membrane sac containing prokaryotic DNA.
B) is a smaller structure contained within the eukaryotic nucleolus.
C) is a double membrane sac containing DNA and is found in eukaryotes.
D) cannot transport molecules to the cytoplasm due to the double membrane barrier.
E) is a triple phospholipid membrane sac containing prokaryotic RNA.
C) is a double membrane sac containing DNA and is found in eukaryotes.
14
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Which of these best reflects the following relationship: monosaccharide versus polysaccharide?
A) glucose versus glycogen
B) 1,4-glycosidic linkage versus 1,6-glycosidic linkage
C) α-linkage versus β-linkage
D) glucose versus fructose
A) glucose versus glycogen
15
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A hot tub (with a water temperature of 104°F or 40°C) would most likely contain
A) psychrophiles.
B) freezophiles.
C) mesophiles.
D) Hyperthermophiles
C) mesophiles.
16
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Organisms that use CO2 as their source of carbon are called
A) organotrophs.
B) heterotrophs.
C) autotrophs.
D) chemotrophs.
C) autotrophs.
17
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The bonding of two amino acid molecules to form a larger molecule requires the \________.
A) addition of a water molecule and a carbon dioxide molecule
B) release of a water molecule
C) addition of a carbon dioxide molecule
D) release of a carbon dioxide molecule
E) addition of a water molecule
B) release of a water molecule
18
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A medium that inhibits the growth of organisms other than the one being sought is called a(n)
A) synthetic medium.
B) specific culture medium.
C) selective medium.
D) enrichment medium.
C) selective medium.
19
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Nucleic acids are polymers made up of which of the following monomers?
A) nitrogenous bases
B) nucleotides
C) amino acids
D) ribose sugars
B) nucleotides
20
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Monomers polymerize through condensation (dehydration) reactions Results in the loss of a water molecule. However; Hydrolysis is the reverse reaction: Breaks polymers apart by adding a water molecule
True
False
True
21
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An advantage of the smaller size of prokaryotes, compared to eukaryotes, is
A) high surface area relative to low cell volume AND slower growth rates
B) high surface area relative to low cell volume AND more rapid growth rates
C) slower growth rates AND compartmentalization of cellular processes
D) compartmentalization of cellular processes AND low surface area relative to low cell volume
B) high surface area relative to low cell volume AND more rapid growth rates
22
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The scientist usually considered the first to see microorganisms, which he called "animalcules," was \________.
A. Pasteur
B. Redi
C. van Leeuwenhoek
D. Tyndall
C. van Leeuwenhoek
23
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Candle jars are usually used to
A) prevent candles from melting
B) provide an atmosphere with CO2
C) stimulate the growth of obligate anaerobes
D) prevent the growth of obligate aerobes
B) provide an atmosphere with CO2
24
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MacConkey agar is
A) a selective medium.
B) a selective and differential medium.
C) a differential medium.
D) an enrichment medium.
B) a selective and differential medium.
25
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Organisms that are indifferent to the presence of oxygen and do not use it are
A) aerotolerant anaerobes.
B) facultative anaerobes.
C) obligate aerobes.
D) microaerophiles.
A) aerotolerant anaerobes.
26
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What would true about an organism called Bacillus fastidiosus?
A) it might be expected to be very flexible in its growth requirements
B) it might be expected to be very strict in its growth requirements
C) it could probably be grown on a minimal medium
D) it might be expected to have a spherical shape
B) it might be expected to be very strict in its growth requirements
27
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Individual atoms on the surface of prepared samples can be observed by using the
A) scanning electron microscope.
B) dark-field microscope.
C) atomic force microscope.
D) phase contrast microscope.
E) light microscope.
C) atomic force microscope.
28
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Which one of the following is NOT a component of each monomer used to make proteins?
A) a side chain, R
B) a carboxyl group, COOH
C) a phosphorus atom, P
D) an amino functional group, NH2
C) a phosphorus atom, P
29
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Which of the following includes all of the pyrimidines?
A) cytosine and thymine
B) cytosine, uracil, and guanine
C) cytosine, uracil, and thymine
D) cytosine and uracil
C) cytosine, uracil, and thymine
30
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Bacteria may be stored for several months
A) on a slant in the refrigerator, frozen in agar AND in broth at 37 degrees C
B) in broth at 37 degrees C, on a slant in the refrigerator AND frozen in glycerol solution
C) on a slant in the refrigerator, frozen in glycerol solution, AND freeze-dried
D) freeze-dried, in broth at 37 degrees C AND frozen in agar
C) on a slant in the refrigerator, frozen in glycerol solution, AND freeze-dried
31
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Shake tubes are used to determine the
A) pH requirements for bacterial growth
B) temperature requirements for bacterial growth
C) oxygen requirements for bacterial growth
D) salt requirements for bacterial growth
C) oxygen requirements for bacterial growth
32
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The cell types that lack a membrane-bound nucleus and have rigid cell walls of peptidoglycan are
A) eukaryotes
B) bacteria
C) protozoa
D) fungi
E) archaea
E) archaea
33
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Bacteria on fish caught in the Arctic Ocean would
A) be freezophiles AND continue to grow while the fish is in the refrigerator
B) be mesophiles AND would continue to grow while the fish is in the refrigerator
C) be mesophiles AND would not grow very well in the refrigerator
D) be psychrophiles AND would continue to grow while the fish is in the refrigertor
D) be psychrophiles AND would continue to grow while the fish is in the refrigertor
34
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Cellulose is a major component of plants and is only directly digested by
A) carnivores
B) herbivores
C) termites
D) microorganisms
E) birds
D) microorganisms
35
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Which of the following is NOT part of the passive transport process?
A) plasma membrane
B) transporter proteins
C) ATP
D) concentration gradient
E) aquaporins
C) ATP
36
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Endospores are a reproductive structure.
True
False
False
37
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What do viruses, viroids, and prions all have in common?
A. They infect only animals.
B. They contain only DNA.
C. They contain only RNA.
D. They cause neurodegenerative diseases.
E. They are acellular agents of disease.
E. They are acellular agents of disease.
38
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The scientific name of an organism includes its
A) genus and species
B) domain and genus
C) domain and species
D) family and genus
E) first name and last name
A) genus and species
39
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Phospholipids and triglycerides both
A) have a phosphate
B) have a glycerol backbone
C) have three fatty acids
D) contain serine or some other organic compound
B) have a glycerol backbone
40
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Which terms refer to bacterial morphology?
A) Bacillus
B) Coccus AND bacillus
C) Coccus AND Bacillus
D) all of the above
E) None of the above
B) Coccus AND bacillus
41
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Fats are considered to be lipids because they \________.
A. are soluble in water
B. are hydrophilic compounds
C. are made of fatty acids
D. are essential components of cell membranes
D. are essential components of cell membranes
42
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What is/are the variable (changeable) structure(s) of a DNA nucleotide?
A. the base
B. the sugar
C. the phosphate group
D. the sugar and the base
A. the base
43
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There are 20 different amino acids. What makes one amino acid different from another?
A) different asymmetric carbons
B) different side chains (R-groups) attached to the amino groups
C) different side chains (R-groups) attached to an α carbon
D) different side chains (R-groups) attached to a carboxyl carbon
E) different structural and optical isomers
C) different side chains (R-groups) attached to an α carbon
44
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Viruses are in the domain(s)
A) none of the answer choices are correct
B) bacteria and viridae
C) eukarya
D) archaea AND bacteria
E) viridae
A) none of the answer choices are correct
45
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Which polysaccharide is an important component in the structure of many insects and fungi?
A. cellulose
B. amylopectin
C. chitin
D. amylose
C. chitin
46
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Select the FALSE statement regarding bacteria
A) they are found as rods, spheres, or spirals
B) they are found as single cells
C) they reproduce by binary fission
D) they contain a peptidoglycan cell wall
E) they are never photosynthetic
E) they are never photosynthetic
47
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Trace elements
A) include zinc, copper, and manganese AND may be needed for enzyme function.
B) include zinc, copper, and manganese AND are required in large amounts.
C) may be needed for enzyme function AND are involved in maintaining pH in the cell.
D) are required in large amounts AND may be needed for enzyme function.
A) include zinc, copper, and manganese AND may be needed for enzyme function.
48
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The structures present in the hay infusions used in experiments on spontaneous generation that made them difficult to sterilize are
A. endospores
B chloroplasts
C. organelles
D. toxins
E. nuclei
A. endospores
49
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What is the difference between an aldose sugar and a ketose sugar?
A. the position of the carbonyl group
B. One is a ring form; the other is a linear chain.
C. the number of carbons
D. the position of the hydroxyl groups
A. the position of the carbonyl group
50
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Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is involved in protein synthesis.
True
False
False
51
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Bacteria are useful to study because
A. they produce protein in a simpler manner than more complex organisms.
B. they produce peptidoglycan in a simpler manner than more complex organisms.
C. they are resistant to all known antibiotics.
D. they have the same fundamental metabolic and genetic properties as higher organisms.
E. they produce energy in a simpler manner than more complex organisms.
D. they have the same fundamental metabolic and genetic properties as higher organisms.
52
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Glucose crosses the plasma membrane
A) by osmosis.
B) through simple diffusion.
C) with the help of a nonspecific transporter.
D) through facilitated diffusion.
D) through facilitated diffusion.
53
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lipopolysaccharides LPS is found in the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria.
True
False
True
54
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fatty acids \________.
A. all of the above
B. are made by hydration reactions
C. are made from glycerol, fatty acids, and nitrogen
D. are insoluble in water
D. are insoluble in water
55
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Electron microscopes differ from light microscopes in that
A) light replaces electrons.
B) glass lenses replace electromagnets.
C) resolution is lower.
D) magnification is lower.
E) magnification is higher.
E) magnification is higher.
56
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Small organic molecules that must be provided to bacteria in order for them to grow are called
A) minerals.
B) growth factors.
C) water.
D) vitamins.
B) growth factors.
57
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The solidifying agent used most successfully in bacterial nutrient media is
A) gelatin.
B) peptone.
C) agar.
D) starch.
C) agar.
58
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By which of the following mechanisms can a cell transport a substance from a lower to a higher concentration?
A) simple diffusion
B) facilitated diffusion
C) active transport
D) extracellular enzymes
E) aquaporins
C) active transport
59
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The enzymes that deal with toxic oxygen-containing molecules is/are
A) glycolase AND superoxide dismutase.
B) superoxide dismutase AND cytochrome oxidase
C) superoxide dismutase AND catalase.
D) catalase AND cytochrome oxidase.
C) superoxide dismutase AND catalase.
60
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Which of the following stains are considered differential?
A) Capsule stain AND Gram stain.
B) Flagella stain AND acid-fast stain.
C) Acid-fast stain AND Gram stain.
D) Acid-fast stain AND capsule stain.
E) Gram stain AND flagella stain.
C) Acid-fast stain AND Gram stain.
61
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An agent used to reduce the number of bacteria on a toilet would most accurately be called a(n)

A) disinfectant.
B) antiseptic.
C) aseptic.
D) fungicide.
A) disinfectant.
62
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Which of the following best describes the pattern of microbial death?

A) The cells in a population die at a constant rate.
B) All the cells in a culture die at once.
C) Not all of the cells in a culture are killed.
D) The pattern varies depending on the antimicrobial agent.
A) The cells in a population die at a constant rate.
63
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**Natamycin is produced during fermentation by the bacterium Streptomyces natalensis :is an antifungal antibiotic approved for use in foods, mostly cheese.

A) True
B) False
A) True
64
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When carbon dioxide is compressed into a "supercritical" state, it has properties of both a liquid and a soild

A) True
B) False
B) False
65
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The recommended optimum concentration of ethanol is 70%, but concentrations between 60% and 95% seem to kill as well

A) True
B) False
A) True
66
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The ability of very small amounts of heavy metals, especially silver and copper, to exert antimicrobial activity is referred to as biocontrol action

A) True
B) False
B) False
67
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High efficiency particulate air (HEPA): filters iltration removes microbes \>0.1 µm

A) True
B) False
B) False
68
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Moist heat destroys organisms by denaturing proteins

A) True
B) False
A) True
69
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Application of heat to living cells can result in all of the following EXCEPT

A) breaking of hydrogen bonds.
B) alteration of membrane permeability.
C) denaturation of enzymes.
D) decreased thermal death time.
D) decreased thermal death time.
70
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Which of the following does NOT achieve sterilization?

A) dry heat
B) pasteurization
C) autoclave
D) supercritical fluids
B) pasteurization
71
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Dilution test method is used to determine the effectiveness of a disinfectant when diffuses from a mini-disk toward the area of bacterial growth over the surface of an agar plate.

A) True
B) False
B) False
72
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The mycobacteria exhibit low resistance to chemical biocides.

A) True
B) False
B) False
73
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Ozone (O3) : is often used to supplement chlorine in the disinfection of water because it helps neutralize tastes and odors . more effective killing agent than chlorine,

A) True
B) False
A) True
74
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Gram-negative bacteria: A principal factor in there relative resistance to biocides is the external lipopolysaccharide layer

A) True
B) False
A) True
75
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................................ is a process in which water is removed from a product after it is frozen and placed under a vacuum, allowing the ice to change directly from solid to vapor without passing through a liquid phase.

a) lyophilization
b) freeze-drying
c) a and b
d) none of the above
c) a and b
76
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Proton motive force

A) is used to synthesize ATP.
B) is used to synthesize ADP.
C) is used to produce NADH.
D) is used to produce FADH2.
A) is used to synthesize ATP.
77
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Which is (are) true of coenzymes?

A) They are organic molecules.
B) They transfer atoms from one molecule to another.
C) They may bind to a number of different enzymes.
D) All of the answer choices are correct.
D) All of the answer choices are correct.
78
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The name given to the reaction involving removal of electrons or hydrogen atoms from a compound is

A) glycolysis.
B) oxidation.
C) reduction.
D) metabolism.
B) oxidation.
79
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Allosteric enzymes

A) may bind two substrates at the same time.
B) are used to bind to other enzymes.
C) have an additional binding site that is involved in regulating enzyme activity.
D) are twice as fast as single-site enzymes.
C) have an additional binding site that is involved in regulating enzyme activity.
80
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The use of the suffix "ase" on a word denotes a(n)

A) substrate.
B) product.
C) enzyme.
D) electron acceptor.
C) enzyme.
81
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Biosynthetic reactions that require energy for the conversion of molecular subunits into larger molecules are called

A) kinetic energy.
B) anabolic reactions.
C) catabolic reactions.
D) precursor molecules.
B) anabolic reactions.
82
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Adenosine triphospate (ATP)

A) Composed of ribose, adenine, three phosphate groups
B) Cells use energy to produce ATP by adding Pi to adenosine diphosphate (ADP)
C) Energy released by removing Pi from ATP to yield ADP
D) all of the above
D) all of the above
83
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The sugar component of RNA and DNA nucleotides is synthesized

A) as deoxyribose and then changed to ribose.
B) as ribose and then changed to deoxyribose.
C) as ribose and then changed to riboxy.
D) using the Calvin cycle
B) as ribose and then changed to deoxyribose.
84
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NAD in its reduced form is symbolized as

A) NADH.
B) NAD.
C) NAD−.
D) NADP.
A) NADH.
85
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The transition step

A) links glycolysis to the pentose phosphate pathway.
B) links the pentose phosphate pathway to the electron transport chain.
C) links glycolysis to the TCA cycle.
D) takes place in the matrix of the nucleus.
C) links glycolysis to the TCA cycle.
86
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The readily usable energy currency of cells is

A) electricity.
B) the electron transport system.
C) ATP.
D) CTP.
C) ATP.
87
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Which is true regarding the three central metabolic pathways?

A) They form high-energy bonds that can be used to synthesize ATP.
B) They form intermediates that can be oxidized to generate reducing power.
C) They form precursor metabolites.
D) All of the answer choices are correct
D) All of the answer choices are correct
88
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**Oxygen serves as the terminal electron acceptor in

A) fermentation.
B) aerobic respiration.
C) anaerobic respiration.
D) reduction.
B) aerobic respiration.
89
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Tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle :
- With transition step, oxidizes pyruvate; releases CO2
- Generates reducing power, precursor metabolites, ATP

A) True
B) False
A) True
90
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Why would a cell ferment rather than respire?

A) There's no oxygen present, and it cannot respire anaerobically.
B) It lacks the ability to respire (i.e. no electron transport chain).
C) There is no oxygen present and it cannot use anaerobic respiration OR it lacks the ability to respire (i.e., no electron transport chain).
D) More ATP is produced for the cell by fermentation than by aerobic respiration.
C) There is no oxygen present and it cannot use anaerobic respiration OR it lacks the ability to respire (i.e., no electron transport chain).
91
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The P-site

A) is found on the polymerase enzyme.
B) is an allosteric site on an enzyme.
C) is a promoter site on the ribosome.
D) is a binding site on the ribosome.
D) is a binding site on the ribosome.
92
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The molecules that bind to a repressor and cause it to no longer bind to the operator are called

A) activators.
B) repressors.
C) introns.
D) inducers.
D) inducers.
93
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Which may be or is an RNA molecule?

A) AGCCTAC and GGGCCCA
B) GGGCCCA and AAATTTA
C) GGGCCCA and GCCCUUA
D) GCCCUUA and AAATTTA
C) GGGCCCA and GCCCUUA
94
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The minus strand of DNA serves as the template for RNA production.

A) True
B) False
A) True
95
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Which is FALSE about the RNA transcript?

A) It is formed using the DNA minus strand as a template.
B) It has the same 5'-3' orientation as the DNA positive strand.
C) It is made in short fragments that are then stitched together.
D) The template starts at the promoter region.
C) It is made in short fragments that are then stitched together.
96
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The set of genes in bacteria that are linked together and transcribed as a single unit is referred to as a(n)

A) operon.
B) regulon.
C) operator.
D) repressor.
A) operon.
97
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The two strands of DNA are bonded to one another by

A) covalent bonds.
B) oxygen bonds.
C) hydrogen bonds.
D) carbon bonds
C) hydrogen bonds.
98
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Activators

A) are involved in negative control AND bind to the terminator.
B) are involved in positive control AND bind to the terminator.
C) are allosteric proteins AND are involved in positive control.
D) are allosteric proteins AND are involved in negative control.
C) are allosteric proteins AND are involved in positive control.
99
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Ribozymes are non-protein molecules with catalytic activity.

A) True
B) False
A) True
100
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How many nucleotides are in a codon?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
C) 3